Immunology Make Up Exams Flashcards by Erin Polley

1.) A plasma cell differs from a B cell in which way?

a. Plasma cells are an immature form in B-cell development
b. Only plasma cells secrete circulating antibody
c. Plasma cells are only found in peripheral blood
d. Plasma cells secrete cytokines

b. Only plasma cells secrete circulating antibody

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2.) A processed antigen first encounters and binds to MHC class II molecules in the:

a. endoplasmic reticulum
b. membrane surface
c. nucleus
d. endosomal compartment

d. endosomal compartment

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3.) Antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells requires

a. class I MHC molecules
b. class III MHC molecules
c. class II MHC molecules
d. no MHC molecules

c. class II MHC molecules

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4.) Characteristics of MHC class II molecules include which of the following?

a. Have an alpha chain and beta-2 microglobulin
b. Combine with antigen made inside the cell
c. Have alpha and beta chains of approximately equal size
d. Interact with CD8+ T cells

Have alpha and beta chains of approximately equal size

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5.) Class II molecules bind to what kind of peptides?

a. From processed endogenous antigens
b. Carbohydrates
c. From processed exogenous antigens
d. Native peptides

From processed exogenous antigens

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6.) Cytotoxic T cells are the primary immune response against which type of pathogen?

a. Parasites
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Viruses

Viruses

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7.) Endogenous peptides binding to MHC-A, MHC-B, or MHC-C molecules on the surface of hepatocytes are critical for the response by:

a. cytotoxic T cells
b. macrophages
c. T helper cells
d. B lymphocytes

a. cytotoxic T cells

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8.) Granzymes activate which of the following in a target cell?

a. Complement activation
b. Apoptosis
c. Cytokine secretion
d. Phagocytosis

Apoptosis

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9.) How many antigen binding sites does IgA in secretions have?

a. 4
b. 1
c. 2
d. 10
e. 5

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10.) Identify the correct pairing of an immunoglobulin and its property.

a. IgE: major immunoglobulin of secondary response
b. IgG: most abundant in serum
c. IgA: crosses the placenta
d. IgM: immunoglobulin produced by a T cell

b. IgG: most abundant in serum

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11.) Identify the statement about monoclonal antibodies that is true.

a. They all recognize numerous antigens
b. They are found only in cancerous states
c. They are used for testing only and not as therapeutic agents
d. They arise from a single plasma cell.

d. They arise from a single plasma cell.

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12.) If a mother is MHC A3A14/B5B15/Cw3Cw4 and her child is A3A9/B5B27/Cw4Cw7, which of the following men is the most likely candidate for the father? (The numbers indicate different allotypes)

a. A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7
b. A5A9/B17B27/Cw3Cw5
c. A4A15/B2B27/Cw1Cw5
d. A9A11/B15B21/Cw1Cw4

A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7

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13.) Immunoglobulins are grouped into classes on the basis of similarities in:

a. antigen binding sites
b. heavy chains
c. both heavy and light chains
d. light chains

b. heavy chains

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14.) In antigen processing, the function of transporters associated with antigen-processing (TAP) proteins is to:

a. recognize and digest exogenous protein
b. help digest large proteins
c. transport digested proteins to MHC class I molecules
d. bind to MHC class II molecules in the endoplasmic reticulum

c. transport digested proteins to MHC class I molecules

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15.) MHC class I antigens are recognized by which of the following cells?

a. Macrophages
b. CD4+ T cells
c. B cells
d. CD8+ T cells

d. CD8+ T cells

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16.) MHC molecules containing beta-2-microglobulin:

a. contain alpha and beta transmembrane polypeptides.
b. are encoded by HLA-DR genes.
c. are encoded by HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C genes.
d. participate in the activation of CD4 T cells.

c. are encoded by HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C genes.

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17.) Perforin and granzymes are used by which cells to kill target cells?

a. B cells
b. CD4 T cells
c. Macrophages
d. CD8 T cells

d. CD8 T cells

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18.) T cells are capable of recognizing:

a. native (nondegraded) peptides
b. haptens
c. degraded peptides
d. conformational epitopes

c. degraded peptides

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19.) T helper cells recognize which of the following?

a. Microbe-specific structures
b. Native (unmodified) extracellular viral proteins
c. Exogenous peptide bound to class II MHC
d. Endogenous peptides bound to class I MHC

c. Exogenous peptide bound to class II MHC

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20.) The AFFINITY of antigen–antibody binding is influenced by which of the following?

a. How well the antigen fits into the binding site on Fab
b. The charge distribution on Fc
c. The number of Fab sites on the immunoglobulin
d. The number of antigens in the reaction

a. How well the antigen fits into the binding site on Fab

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21.) The antigen specificity of a B cell is determined:

a. after interaction with antigen
b. after isotype switching
c. only by the L chain
d. by H- and L-chain variable-region sequences

d. by H- and L-chain variable-region sequences

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22.) The cells that primarily function by secreting large amounts of cytokines are:

a. T helper cells
b. plasma cells
c. cytotoxic T cells
d. B cells

a. T helper cells

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23.) The function of CD4+ T cells is:

a. to kill virally infected cells
b. phagocytosis
c. production of opsonins
d. to help B cells make antibody

d. to help B cells make antibody

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24.) The primary response is characterized by:

a. the recognition of antigens by naïve B cells.
b. the recognition of antigens by memory B cells
c. the production of large amounts of IgG
d. a very short lag period

a. the recognition of antigens by naïve B cells.

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25.) The purpose of the invariant chain is to block the peptide-binding site of: a. class II MHC molecules b. antibody molecules c. class I MHC molecules d. T-cell receptors.

a. class II MHC molecules

26.) The receptor for antigen on a mature naïve B cell is: a. class II MHC molecules b. class I MHC molecules c. IgG d. IgM

IgM

27.) The term “human leukocyte antigen” is synonymous with: a. major histocompatibility complex b. allele c. haplotype d. chromosome

a. major histocompatibility complex

28.) Which cell is capable of producing antibody? a. CD4+ T cell b. Neutrophil c. Macrophage d. Plasma cell

d. Plasma cell

29.) Which cells are responsible for killing virally infected host cells and tumor cells? a. B cells b. Plasma cells c. CD8 T cells d. CD4 T cells

c. CD8 T cells

30.) Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary response? a. IgM b. IgE c. IgG d. IgA

IgM

31.) Which immunoglobulin appears in the highest titer in serum during a secondary immune response? a. IgM b. IgD c. IgG d. IgA

c. IgG

32.) Which is a characteristic of IgM? a. It is able to activate complement. b. It can cross the placenta c. It increases greatly in the secondary response d. It can bind only two antigens

a. It is able to activate complement.

33.) Which is characteristic of IgG? a. The least abundant antibody in serum b. First class of antibody to appear c. Found mainly in secretions d. Provides immunity for the newborn

d. Provides immunity for the newborn

34.) Which of the following is a characteristic of IgA? a. It activates the classical complement pathway b. It is a pentamer in serum c. It is found in secretions d. It is the primary response antibody

c. It is found in secretions

35.) Which of the following is a characteristic of MHC-DR, MHC-DP, and MHC-DQ molecules? a. Expressed co-dominantly (maternal and paternal) b. Antigen receptors on all lymphocytes c. Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes only d. Surface alloantigens on liver and kidney cells

a. Expressed co-dominantly (maternal and paternal)

36.) Which of the following proteins that form channels in target cell membranes? a. granzyme B b. pentraxins c. opsonins d. perforin

perforin

37.) Which option best describes MHC class I antigens? a. They are found on all nucleated cells. b. They are coded for on chromosome 9. c. They are recognized by helper T cells. d. They combine with exogenous antigen.

a. They are found on all nucleated cells.

38.) Which marker is found on the group of T cells that assists B cells in making antibody? a. CD5 b. CD8 c. surface Ig d. CD4

CD4

39.) Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen? a. Fc b. CH c. Fab d. CL

Fab

40.) Which T-cell surface protein is associated with the T-cell receptor and is involved in signal transduction? a. CD4 b. CD8 c. CD154 d. CD3

CD3

All the following are characteristics of acute-phase reactants EXCEPT: -they limit destruction of host tissue -they are constituents that increase rapidly in response to infection -they enhance phagocytosis -they are used to diagnose a specific disease

-they are used to diagnose a specific disease

Select the test that could be used to determine whether a patient has a specific deficiency in C3. -CH50 -Hemolytic titration assay -AH50 -Radial immunodiffusion

-Radial immunodiffusion

Which of the following can activate the alternative complement pathway? -IgG -C1q -mannose-binding lectin -C3b

C3b

Which of the following is a characteristic of opsonins? -They are expressed on the surface of neutrophils -They are molecules that coat bacteria, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis -They are produced by NK cells -They are carbohydrates that stimulate T cells

-They are molecules that coat bacteria, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis

Where does the specific immune response to foreign antigen mainly occur? -Skin -Bone marrow -Lymph nodes -Blood

-Lymph nodes

Which of the following are most likely sites where specific immune responses develop against bacteria causing a skin infection? -Bone marrow -Lymph nodes -Blood -Spleen

-Lymph nodes

All the following cell types can present antigen to T helper cells, EXCEPT: -monocyte -macrophage -dendritic cell -neutrophil

-neutrophil

All the following are characteristics of a strong immunogen EXCEPT: -it is a large molecule -it is protein in nature -it is a repeating polymer -it is foreign to the host

-it is a repeating polymer

A macromolecule that is capable of eliciting an immune response in an immunocompetent individual is called: -a hapten -an acute-phase reactant -an antibody -an antigen

-an antigen

Which of the following is characteristic of natural immunity? -T lymphocytes play a major role -It involves memory -it involves specificity -mechanisms are always present and fully functional

-mechanisms are always present and fully functional

Which of the following complement components has chemotactic activity? -C3a -C1qrs -C3b -C5b6789

C3a

Identify the condition that could result from a deficiency in complement C2. -Hereditary angioedema -Immune complex disease -Increased vascular permeability -Severe infections with encapsulated bacteria

-Immune complex disease

What is cleaved by C3bBb? -C3 -C4 -C5 -C6

Which of the following is a characteristic of natural killer cells? -They are a type of lymphocyte -They are part of the adaptive immune system -They are smaller than B and T cells -They mature in the thymus

-They are a type of lymphocyte

Which of the following is a low-molecular-weight molecule that has one binding site for an antibody? -Hapten -Antigen -Immunogen -Adjuvant

Hapten

An antigenic determinant is also called: -a polysaccharide -an antibody -an epitope -an immunogen

-an epitope

Hematopoietic stem cells are located in the: -lymph nodes -thymus -bone marrow -spleen

-bone marrow

Which of the following is NOT a component or characteristic of natural (innate) immunity? -Repeated exposure to a pathogen does not change the response -The response involves phagocytosis -The response involves acute-phase reactants -The response involves antibodies

-The response involves antibodies

A substance that is too small to stimulate antibody production by itself unless it is attached to a larger carrier molecule is called: -a cross reacting antigen -an autoantigen (not this one) -an alloantigen -a hapten

-a hapten

The anaphylotoxins are produced by proteolytic cleavage of: -C1q, C1r, and C1s -C5 and C3 -C4 and C2 -C5, C6, C7, and C8

-C5 and C3

Contact with antigen and activation of B cells normally occurs in the: -thymus -connective tissue -peripheral blood -lymph nodes

-lymph nodes

Which of the following are components play a role in initiating both innate and adaptive immune responses? -T helper cells -B cells -Immunoglobulins -Macrophages

-Macrophages

A 50-kDa protein from a bacterial cell that has numerous different epitopes would be called: -an antigen but not an immunogen -an immunogen and an antigen -a hapten and an antigen (not this one) -a hapten but not an antigen

-an immunogen and an antigen

Which of the following would be the most effective immunogen? -One with a molecular weight of less than 10,000 Da -One that is genetically foreign and has a single epitope -One with multiple epitopes with a single repeated specificity -One with multiple epitopes with many specificities

-One with multiple epitopes with many specificities

The antigens that bind the MHC class II antigens are first “processed” by: -the proteasome -enzymes in the endosome -the endoplasmic reticulum -transporters associated with antigen processing

-enzymes in the endosome

1. A radial immunodiffusion test is run for 72 hours. The concentration of the antigen is then calculated using the: a. log of the diameter of the precipitation ring b. square of the diameter of the precipitation ring c. diameter of the precipitation ring d. radius of the precipitation ring

b. square of the diameter of the precipitation ring

2. If an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion pattern shows an arc equidistant between antigens A and B, this indicates that the antigens: a. are entirely different b. are identical c. share a common epitope, with A being a more complex antigen d. share a common epitope, with B being a more complex antigen

b. are identical

3. In a capture assay to determine the presence of a viral antigen in a patient sample, which of the following would be on solid phase? a. Antihuman immunoglobulin b. Antigen c. Unlabeled Antibody d. Labeled antibody

c. Unlabeled Antibody

4. Compared to a heterogenous assay, a homogenous assay: a. Is easier to adapt to automation b. Requires more procedural steps c. Is more sensitive d. Is more specific

a. Is easier to adapt to automation

5. Fluorescently labeled antibodies are used in flow cytometry to determine: a. The shape of the nucleus b. The size of the cell c. The granularity of a cell d. Proteins associated with a cell

d. Proteins associated with a cell

6. An intrinsic parameter that can be measured by a flow cytometer is: a. RNA content b. Surface expression of CD3 c. Granularity d. Cytoplasmic protein content

Granularity

7. Which of the following tests can be useful in confirming the specificity of serological screening assays? a. Southern blots b. Eastern blots c. Northern blots d. Western blots

d. Western blots

8. The BEST method to demonstrate deposition of IgG complexes on the basement membrane of kidney is using a. Immunofixation b. Flow cytometry c. ELISA d. Immunofluorescent staining

d. Immunofluorescent staining

9. A patients WBC’s are placed in culture. 3H-thymidine is added to the cultures 48 hours later, and the amount of radioactivity incorporated in DNA (CPM) will be measured. Which of the following should be added to stimulate proliferation of both T and B cells? a. Tetanus toxioid b. Con A c. LPS d. PWM e. PHA

PWM

10. The production of insoluble complexes that absorb or scatter light but are too small to see directly is called: a. Agglutination b. Precipitation c. Equivalence d. Sensitization

Precipitation

11. A good enzyme for use in an immunoassay should have a: a. Toxic enzymatic product b. High substrate conversion rate c. High cost d. Rapid degradation time

b. High substrate conversion rate

12. A child in day care has developed pneumonia. A child in a nearby daycare also has a respiratory infection, but not as severe. Samples from each child is found to have influenza virus using PCR. Restriction enzyme digests of the amplified samples shows identical banding patterns. What conclusion can be drawn from these results? a. The children may have been exposed to a common source of the cause of their illness b. One child has a bacterial infection c. The children are ill with different strains d. The virus mutated and may differ in pathogenicity

a. The children may have been exposed to a common source of the cause of their illness

13. When a patients red blood cells combine with antigen-A typing serum to produce a positive result, this reaction is known as: a. Flocculation b. Reverse passive agglutination c. Hemagglutination d. Passive agglutination

c. Hemagglutination

14. How would you interpret results of DNA restrtiction analysis by gel electrophoresis if there was a difference in one band? a. The wrong buffer was used in electrophoresis b. The samples are the same c. Gel electrophoresis should be repeated d. The samples are not identical

d. The samples are not identical

15. What process confers specificity in molecular biology methods? a. Polymorphism b. Strand cleavage c. Amplification d. Hybridization

Hybridization

16. In flow cytometry, it is possible to detect the expression of 10 different cell membrane proteins simultaneously by: a. Using 10 different lasers that produce light at different wavelengths b. Measuring mass as well as fluorescent intensity c. Staining the cells with 10 different labeled probes that fluoresce at different wavelengths d. Measuring the amount of light scattered at 10 different wavelengths

c. Staining the cells with 10 different labeled probes that fluoresce at different wavelengths

17. In flow cytometry, if there are two light detectors, what does the amount if side scatter indicate? a. Granularity of the cell b. Shape of the cell c. Size of the cell d. Surface markers

a. Granularity of the cell

18. Which of the following best describes homogenous assays? a. The reagent antibody has an enzyme tag b. The concentration of patient antigen is always directly proportional to the label detected c. A washing step is not necessary d. Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts

c. A washing step is not necessary

19. A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a large carrier, the antibody is soluble and the antigen and carrier bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay is described? a. Neutralization b. Precipitation c. Homogenous EIA d. Agglutination

d. Agglutination

20. If a serum sample causes a slight or marginal agglutination reaction when mixed with a particulate antigen then you should: a. Decrease the viscosity of the sample b. Increase the particle surface charge by altering the pH c. Test a more diluted sample d. Report that the patient does not have antibodies against that antigen

c. Test a more diluted sample

21. Pregnancy testing can be performed at home using: a. Capture assay b. ELISA c. Chemiluminescence d. Immunochromatography

d. Immunochromatography

22. In most flow cytometers, labeled cells: a. Absorb fluorescence and emit electronic impulses b. Scatter the light and emit fluorescence c. Absorb both fluorescence and light d. Scatter the light and absorb fluorescence

b. Scatter the light and emit fluorescence

23. An intrinsic parameter that can be measured by light scatter in a flow cytometer is: a. Cytoplasmic protein content b. Cell size c. Surface expression of CD3 d. RNA content

b. Cell size

24. A fluorescent signal in flow cytometry is generated by: a. Cell metabolism b. Fluorochromes that absorb energy from a laser beam and then release the energy as longer-wavelength c. Light reflected off cells passing through a laser beam d. Light scattered by fluorochromes

b. Fluorochromes that absorb energy from a laser beam and then release the energy as longer-wavelength

25. If antibody is uniformly distributed in a gel and antigen is added to a well cut into the gel, the process is called: a. Radial diffusion b. Immunofixation c. Double diffusion d. Retrodiffusion

a. Radial diffusion

26. Which of the following is true of a reverse passive agglutination test? a. Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles b. The antigen is a natural particle c. The antigen-antibody reaction is competitive (no agglutination indicates a positive result) d. Antibody is attached to particles

d. Antibody is attached to particles

27. Nitroblue tetrazolium is added to a patient WBC’s. Under microscopic examination, the neutrophils but not lymphocytes are deep blue color. Which of the following is likely true? a. Phagocytes are able to produce reactive oxygen species b. The patient likely suffers from recurrent bacterial and fungal infections c. Patient will be prone to develop localized inflammatory responses that isolate infections or other irritants d. There is a defect in the primary lymphoid organ that impairs lymphocyte development

a. Phagocytes are able to produce reactive oxygen species

28. In a polymerase chain reaction, the first cycle shows a positive signal: a. The degree of complementarity between the primers and target b. The maximum number of cycles that can be carried out before the amplicons saturate the solution c. The minimum amount of target that can be amplified d. An indication of the original amount of target in the sample

d. An indication of the original amount of target in the sample

29. A tissue section is fixed to a microscope slide, then incubated with a fluorescently labeled antibody that binds to an antigen expressed by cells in that tissue. The preparation is then washed and inspected with a fluorescent microscope. This technique is called: a. Autofluorescence b. Indirect immunofluorescence c. Fluorescence polarization d. Direct immunofluorescence

d. Direct immunofluorescence

1. A serological test that uses red blood cells coating with exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against those exogenous antigens is called: a. Hemagglutination b. Complement fixation c. Neutralization d. Latex agglutination

a. Hemagglutination

31. Which of the following best describes a factor important for competitive binding assays? a. Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts b. The concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected c. A limited number of binding sites are present d. All patient antigen is allowed to bind

c. A limited number of binding sites are present

32. Flow cytometry is commonly used to: a. Measure complement activation b. Measure serum protein concentrations c. Identify microbes d. Determine the stage of leukocyte differentiation

d. Determine the stage of leukocyte differentiation

33. As measured in flow cytometry, cells that are the smallest and have the least granules would be identified as: a. Monocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Granulocytes

b. Lymphocytes

34. If an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion pattern shows an arc between antigens A and B with an extended line pointing towards antigen B this indicates that the antigens: a. Are identical b. Are entirely different c. Share a common epitope, with B being a more complex antigen d. Share a common epitope with A being a more complex antigen

d. Share a common epitope with A being a more complex antigen

35. An immunoassay is performed in the following way: Antigen is bound to a solid support. Patient serum is added, and patient antibodies bind to the antigen. The well is washed and enzyme labeled anti-immunoglobulin antibodies are added. The well is washed and the enzyme substrate is added. Enzyme activity is determined. Which immunoassay is described? a. Competitive b. ELISA c. Homogenous d. Capture

ELISA

36. An ELISA assay was preformed on a patients serum sample. What is the relationship of the amount of enzyme activity to the amount of patient analyte measured? a. Directly proportional b. Indirectly proportional

a. Directly proportional

37. The measurement of light scattered at an angle by the antigen-antibody complexes in a solution is called? a. Nephelometry b. Turbidity c. Agglutination d. Equivalency

Nephelometry

38. A patient is being treated for HIV infection. Before treatment, real-time PCR results for viral load had a cycle threshold (CT) of 28, but after 2 months of treatment a CT of 24 was found. These results indicate: a. The treatment is working b. The number of Th cells are increasing c. The viral load is increasing

c. The viral load is increasing

39. When carrier particles are coated with an antigen that is not normally found on them this is known as: a. Hemagglutination b. Direct agglutination c. Passive agglutination d. Reverse passive agglutination

c. Passive agglutination

40. Which of the following is true of a reverse passive agglutination test? a. The antigen-antibody is competitive (no agglutination indicates a positive result) b. Antibody is attached to particles c. Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles d. The antigen is a natural particle

b. Antibody is attached to particles

41. In performing blood typing using the tube method, if the red cell button is not resuspended properly, what are the most likely results? a. Makes the reaction weaker b. False positive c. False negative d. Does not affect the results

b. False positive

42. Which of the following is characteristic of a passive agglutination test? a. The antigen-antibody reaction is competitive (no agglutination indicates a positive result) b. The antigen is naturally found on particles c. Antibody is attached to particles d. Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles

d. Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles

43. A fluorescent signal in flow cytometry is generated by: a. Fluorochromes that absorb energy from a laser beam and then release the energy as longer wavelength light b. Cell metabolism c. Light scattered by fluorochromes d. Light reflected off cells passing through a laser beam

a. Fluorochromes that absorb energy from a laser beam and then release the energy as longer wavelength light

44. An immunoassay is performed in the following manner to look for antigen (Ag) in the patient serum: Patient serum + labeled Ag + known antibody (Ab) are added together and incubated. Unbound material is washed off. The amount of labeled Ag is then measured. What assay is performed? a. Competitive b. Capture c. Homogenous d. ELISA

Competitive

45. If crossed lines result in an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction with antigens A and B, this indicates that antigens A and B: a. Share common epitope with B being a more complex antigen b. Are entirely different c. Share a common epitope with A being a more complex antigen d. Are identical

b. Are entirely different

46. Point-of-care testing is performed most easily using: a. Immunochromatographic assay b. Capture ELIA c. Immunofixation assay d. Homogenous enzyme immunoassay

a. Immunochromatographic assay

Immunology Make Up Exams Flashcards

(111 cards)