Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Principles of Biology and Lab > Module 4 Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Heredity > Flashcards

Module 4 Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Heredity Flashcards

1
Q

A diploid cell has _______ the number of chromosomes as a haploid cell.

A

twice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An organism’s traits are determined by the specific combination of inherited _____.

A

genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Identical copies of chromatin held together by cohesin at the centromere are called _____.

A

sister chromatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chromosomes are duplicated during what stage of the cell cycle?

A

S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The mitotic spindles arise from which cell structure?

A

centrosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Unpacking of chromosomes and the formation of a new nuclear envelope is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?

A

telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Many of the negative regulator proteins of the cell cycle were discovered in what type of cells?

A

cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_______ are changes to the order of nucleotides in a segment of DNA that codes for a protein.

A

gene mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A gene that codes for a positive cell-cycle regulator is called a(n)…

A

proto-oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The crossover events are the second source of genetic variation produced by meiosis.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Meiosis is the nuclear division that forms diploid cells.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In metaphase I, the microtubules pull the linked chromosomes apart.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Meiosis usually produces ________ daughter cells.

A

four haploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During meiosis II, the sister chromatids within the two daughter cells separate, forming six new haploid gametes.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sexual reproduction requires fertilization, a union of four cells from two individual organisms.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A diploid, multicellular life-cycle stage that gives rise to haploid cells by meiosis is called a ________.

A

sporophyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Germ cells are specialized cells that produce gametes.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A ___________occurs when a chromosome segment dissociates and reattaches to a different, nonhomologous chromosome.

A

translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The number and appearance of chromosomes including length, banding pattern, and centromere position is called __________.

A

karyotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The gain of an extraneous chromosome is called __________.

A

trisomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An organism with more than the correct number of chromosome sets (not just an extra chromosome) is called __________.

A

polyploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The first level of DNA organization in a eukaryotic cell is maintained by which molecule?

A

histone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which eukaryotic cell-cycle event is missing in binary fission?

A

karyokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

FtsZ proteins direct the formation of a _______ that will eventually form the new cell walls of the daughter cells

A

septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name the processes that eukaryotic cell division and binary fission have in common.

A

DNA duplication, segregation of duplicated chromosomes, and division of the cytoplasmic contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The formation of what structure, that will eventually form the new cell walls of the daughter cells, is directed by FtsZ?

A

septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following events does not occur during some stages of interphase?

A

separation of sister chromatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Attachment of the mitotic spindle fibers to the kinetochores is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?

A

prometaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Separation of the sister chromatids is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?

A

anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The chromosomes become visible under a light microscope during which stage of mitosis?

A

prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What structure is formed when the Golgi vesicles fuse at the metaphase plate of dividing plant cells?

A

cell plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At which of the cell-cycle checkpoints do external forces have the greatest influence?

A

G1 checkpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If the M checkpoint is not cleared, what stage of mitosis will be blocked?

A

anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which protein is a positive regulator that phosphorylates other proteins when activated?

A

cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which negative regulatory molecule can trigger cell suicide (apoptosis) if vital cell cycle events do not occur?

A

p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which molecule is a Cdk inhibitor that is controlled by p53?

A

p21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

_________________cells are the result of the first meiotic division of a diploid cell.

A

two haploid

38
Q

At metaphase I, homologous chromosomes are connected only at what structures?

A

chiasmata

39
Q

If a muscle cell of a typical organism has 32 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in a gamete of that same organism?

A

16

40
Q

The pea plants used in Mendel’s genetic inheritance studies were diploid, with 14 chromosomes in somatic cells. Assuming no crossing-over events occur, how many unique gametes could one pea plant produce?

A

128

41
Q

At which stage of meiosis are sister chromatids separated from each other?

A

anaphase II

42
Q

During ________, the chromosomes arrive at opposite poles and begin to decondense.

A

telophase II

43
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding crossover?

A

chiasmata are formed

44
Q

The sister chromatids are pulled apart by the kinetochore microtubules and move toward opposite poles during which phase?

A

anaphase II

45
Q

Overall, meiosis II resembles the ____________ division of a haploid cell.

A

miotic

46
Q

What is a likely evolutionary advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

A

sexual reproduction results in variation of the offspring

47
Q

Which type of life cycle has both a haploid and diploid multicellular stage?

A

alternation of generations

48
Q

What is the ploidy of the most conspicuous form of most fungi?

A

haploid

49
Q

Hydras and jellyfish both live in a freshwater lake that is slowly being acidified by the runoff from a chemical plant built upstream. Which population is predicted to be better able to cope with the changing environment?

A

jellyfish

50
Q

________________ corresponds to phenotypically male individuals with small testes, enlarged breasts, and reduced body hair.

A

klinefelter syndrome

51
Q

A chart displaying a person’s chromosomes is called a ________.

A

karyogram

52
Q

A human has 22 pairs of autosomes and two sex chromosomes; this human is considered to be a _______.

A

euploid

53
Q

The distinct color in tortoiseshell cats, where different areas of fur display different colors is an example of what chromosome process?

A

X inactivation

54
Q

______occurs when a segment of a chromosome dissociates and reattaches to a different, nonhomologous chromosome.

A

translocation

55
Q

Jacobsen syndrome is a genetic disorder that results in the loss of the long arm of chromosome 11. This is an example of…

A

monosomy

56
Q

Which conclusion regarding the identity of the unknown organism is correct? The organism is:

A

prokaryotic, as the organism lacks a nucleus.

57
Q

Cells grown under anaerobic conditions experience which of the following?

A

the absence of oxygen

58
Q

Why did the scientists most likely include glucose in the growth medium?

A

as a source of energy

59
Q

The scientists most directly assessed the function of which organelle by using the growth conditions described?

A

mitochondria

60
Q

Which process best describes the activity of neurotransmitters once an electrical signal reaches an axon terminal?

A

exocytosis, which requires ATP

61
Q

Which ion movements are most likely observed along the axon?

A

inward movement of sodium and outward movement of potassium

62
Q

What is a consequence of neurotransmitters not reentering the axon terminal? (Choose all that apply.)

A

increased ion entry into a target neuron; decreased signaling between neurons

63
Q

Which mechanism best describes the effect of the saline solution on erythrocyte function?

A

The solution is hypertonic, which causes water to exit from the cell.

64
Q

In terms of osmosis, which event most likely occurs upon placement of the plant cell in the saline solution?

A

Water exits the cell and there is a decrease in turgor pressure.

65
Q

Which hypothesis is most consistent with morphology of the unknown cell upon being placed in the saline solution?

A

The cell has a low number of aquaporins.

66
Q

A mutation to collagen-encoding DNA prevents the synthesis and processing of collagen at the step involving which organelle?

A

ribosome

67
Q

Which statement accurately describes the synthesis and transport of the organelle responsible for the production of collagen protein? The organelle is…

A

synthesized in the nucleolus and resides outside the nucleus.

68
Q

The enzyme responsible for modifying the collagen precursor protein is most likely located where?

A

rough endoplasmic reticulum

69
Q

Of the following, which process is altered by Compound X?

A

mitosis, which is decreased

70
Q

What stage of cell division is affected by Compound X?

A

anaphase

71
Q

How does Compound X most directly contribute to the progression of cancer? Compound X…

A

inhibits cancer through modifying cell division.

72
Q

Which metabolic processes predominate in Compound X treated cells?

A

glycolysis and anaerobic respiration

73
Q

If yeast cells were treated with Compound X, what would the most likely molecular end product be?

A

ethanol

74
Q

In order to produce glucose, what is the initial energy source used by the plant being engineered, regardless of season?

A

sunlight

75
Q

Compared to the summer months, which change is expected to occur during the winter months in the plant being engineered?

A

decreased production of O2

76
Q

During periods of light, the formation of which molecules allow for continued glucose synthesis during periods of dark?

A

NADPH and ATP

77
Q

In the engineered plant, how are organic molecules most likely stored during the winter months?

A

starch

78
Q

A researcher examined the effect of aspirin on heart rate in humans. He gathered data from 5,000 individuals and took their heart rates at the start of the experiment. He continued to measure their heart rates every day for 30 days. For each of those 30 days, 2,500 individuals took 5 mg of aspirin daily, and 2,500 individuals took 10 mg of aspirin daily. What is his control for this experiment?

A

the heart rate of the individuals during the start of the experiment

79
Q

In your experiment on the effect of heart rate, you measured your heart rate in beats per minute as well as how difficult it was for you to breathe after each exercise. What was the qualitative observation in your study?

A

the level of difficulty breathing

80
Q

A researcher is interested in the effect of stress on college students. She gives them a survey and asks a number of questions. Which of these questions would provide quantitative data for her study?

A

how many days have you missed due to stress?

81
Q

Giant pandas mark their territory by urinating on trees.They make efforts to appear larger than other giant pandas by urinating as high on the tree as possible. They have taken this to the extreme by doing handstands when they mark the trees. Locals say that the pandas prefer urinating on trees with soft, mossy bark to trees with rough, coarse bark. You design an experiment to test this hypothesis. What is the independent variable of your experiment?

A

type of tree bark (soft or course)

82
Q

A student wants to test the following hypothesis: “Higher levels of the pesticide Atrazine will cause increased mortality in human cells.” He places 15 cells in one well plate and adds 0.2 ng of Atrazine to each well, 15 cells in a well plate with 0.4 ng of Atrazine added, and 15 cells in a well plate with 0.6 ng of Atrazine added. The cells are kept in the same incubator prior to treatment with Atrazine. He then counts the number of cells alive in each well plate after 48 hours. Based on his data, he concludes that higher levels of Atrazine are more deadly to human cells. What is wrong with his experiment?

A

he had no control group

83
Q

You are using the virtual microscope and see a cell with a clear nucleus and organelles, but it lacks a cell wall. Based on the options, from what organism could this cell originate?

A

giraffe

84
Q

You are watching a paramecium swim under the microscope, and it is swimming to the left of center under the 4X objective. When you switch to the 10X objective, you can no longer see the paramecium, even when the image is in focus. What has happened?

A

When you increased the magnification, the field of view decreased, leaving you to look at the center of the image, leaving the paramecium off to the left.

85
Q

You are using the virtual microscope with the 4X objective and move the fine focus knob as far as it will go, but still cannot get the image into focus. What is wrong?

A

You need to start with coarse focus when focusing on the image the first time.

86
Q

If the process of meiosis I starts with one cell that contains 24 chromosomes in 12 homologous pairs, what will be the end result when meiosis II is complete?

A

four cells with 12 chromosomes in zero homologous pairs

87
Q

Looking at a slide of cells from an oak leaf, most cells will be in which phase?

A

interphase

88
Q

Which tissue is likely to have the largest percentage of cells undergoing mitosis?

A

the growing shoot of a tomato plant

89
Q

A student is in the lab, and the instructor says to pull out the microscope slides that show the process of meiosis. There are four slide options in the slide box. Which should be chosen to see meiosis?

A

frog testis

90
Q

After cutting one’s hand, the cells need to divide rapidly to heal the wound. If one could look at those cells under the microscope, what would one find?

A

a large number of cells undergoing mitosis

Principles of Biology and Lab (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions