Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension Flashcards

1
Q

Pulmonary Hypertension (PH)

  • higher than normal BP in the ___ that carry blood away from the heart into the ___
  • mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) greater than or equal to ___ mmHg at rest
  • more common
A
  • arteries
  • lungs
  • 20
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2
Q

Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH)

  • progressive disease involving ___ dysfunction = elevated pulmonary arterial ___ and pulmonary vascular ___
  • more rare
A
  • endothelial
  • pressure, resistance
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3
Q

PAH Causes

  • unknown ( ___ )
  • genetic
  • ___ and ___ exposure
  • disease associated with PAH: CHD, HIV, ___ tissue disorders
A
  • idiopathic
  • drug, toxin
  • connective
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4
Q

PAH Treatment

  • medications specifically for PAH
  • ___ in responders
  • ___ transplantation
A
  • CCB
  • lung
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5
Q

Hemodynamic Definitions

PH:
- mPAP > ___ mmHg

PAH:
- mPAP > ___ mmHg
- pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) < ___ mmHg
- pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) > 2 ___

dont need to know

A
  • 20
  • 20
  • 15
  • wood units
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6
Q

Pulmonary arterial wedge pressure (PAWP) - estimates ___ atrial pressure
- normal = ___ - ___ mmHg
- elevated numbers signal ___ failure or ___ stenosis

Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
- calculated using formula based on mPAP and PAWP

A
  • left
  • 4-12
  • LV, mitral
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7
Q

PAH Epidemiology

rare
- mean age: 50 +/- ___ years
- 4x more common in ___
- median survial of ___ years
- prognosis is poor

Underrecognized
- median 1.1 years to diagnostic right heart catheterization
- 1/5 symptomatic > 2 years before diagnosis

A
  • 14
  • women
  • 6
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8
Q

PAH Epidemiology

negative predictors
- advanced functional ___
- poor ___ capacity
- high ___ atrial pressure
- ___ ventricular dysfunction
- low ___

A
  • class
  • exercise
  • right
  • right
  • CO
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9
Q

Signs and Symptoms

  • ___ (27%)
  • fainting or light headed (15%)
  • ___ pain (22%)
  • ___ (86%)
  • palpitations
  • __ (21%)
A
  • fatigue
  • chest
  • SOB
  • edema
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10
Q

Diagnosis

echocardiogram
- useful for evaluating potential ___ , RV function, estimating ___ and ___

right heart catheterization
- Confirms ___ and estimates ____
- assess response to pulmonary ___ before starting therapy (AVT)

exercise testing
- distance walked in 6 min

biomarkers
- ___ and NTproBNP

A
  • causes, PAP, PVR
  • diagnosis, severity
  • vasodilators
  • BNP

BNP = brain natriuretic peptide

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11
Q

Effects of PAH

  • ____ side of heart has difficulty pumping against high ___ pressures
  • leads to ___ ventricular failure
A
  • right, pulmonary
  • right
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12
Q

PAH Disease Progression

  • risk factors and associated conditions

vascular injury (endothelial dysfunction)
- ___ nitric oxide synthase
- ___ prostacyclin production
- ___ thromboxane production
- ___ endothelin 1 production

disease progression

A

decreased
decreased
increased
increased

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13
Q

WHO Functional Classes

Class I
- symptom ___ when physically active or resting

Class II
- slight ___ of physical activity
- ordinary activity may cause ___
- ___ at rest

Class III
- marked ___ in physical activity
- less than ___ activity causes symptoms
- ___ at rest

Class IV
- significant symptoms with __
- symptoms at ___

A
  • free
  • limitation
  • symptoms
  • comfortable
  • limitation
  • ordinary
  • comfortable
  • activity
  • rest
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14
Q

Treatment of PAH - PCOL

  • CCB
  • direct pulmonary vasodilators ( ___ )
  • ___ inhibitors
  • ___ receptor antagonists
  • prostacyclins
  • ___ guanylate cyclase stimulator ( ___ )
A
  • iNO
  • PDE-5
  • endothelin
  • soluble, riociguat
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15
Q

CHEST Guidelines

after diagnosis with right heart catheter
1) acute ___ testing (AVT)
2) if they respond positive, they get a ___
3) if negative, have RV failure, or CCB contrainidcation, do NOT do ___

A

vasoreactivity
CCB
CCB

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16
Q

Acute Vasoreactivity Test (AVT)

  • done in cath lab during initial hemodynamic evaluation
  • acute response to ___ -specific vasodilators predicts response to ___
  • agents include (inhaled ___ , IV ___ )
  • positive test = drop in mPAP > ___ mmHg with PAP less than ___ mmHg with stable improved ___
A
  • pulmonary, CCBs
  • NO, epoprostenol
  • 10, 40, CO
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17
Q

CCBs

  • only 5-8% of patients are responders; long term response is rare
  • consider CCBs in positive responders without ___ sided failure
  • do not use without ___ AVT

Recommended drugs
- long acting ___ 120-240 mg daily
- long acting ___ 240-720 mg daily
- ___ 20 mg daily

NO ___ due to negative inotropic effects

if pts do not improve to functional class ___ or ___ after CCB initiation, start additional or alternative PAH therapy

A
  • right
  • positive
  • nifedipine
  • diltiazem
  • amlodipine
  • verapamil
  • I, II
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18
Q

WHO FC I

treatment naive PAH with WHO FC I
- continue monitoring for disease progression (dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, weakness)
- do not necesarily require immediate drug therapy; consider ___ if responder

A

CCB

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19
Q

WHO FC II

treatment naive PAH WHO FC II

Tolerate combo therapy?
- yes: combo treatment - ___ + ___
- no: monotherapy - ___ , ___ , or ___

A
  • ambrisentan, tadalafil
  • ERA, riociguat, PDE-5i
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20
Q

WHO FC III

Treatment naive PAH WHO FC III without rapid progression/poor prognosis

Tolerate combo?
- yes: combo therapy - ___ + ___
- no: monotherapy - ___ , ___ , or ___

A

ambrisentan, tadalafil

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21
Q

Therapeutic Pathways

Nitric Oxide Pathway
- PDE-5i: ___, ___
- ___ GC stimulator: ___

A
  • sildenafil, tadalafil
  • soluble, riociguat
22
Q

Therapeutic Pathways

Endothelin Pathway
3 drugs:
___ , ___ , ___

A

bosentan
ambrisentan
macitentan

23
Q

Therapeutic Pathways

Prostacyclin Pathway
- for high risk class ___ and ___
- prostacyclins: ___ (IV) , ____ (inh), ___ (IV, subQ, inh, PO)
- IP prostacyclin receptor agonist: ___

A
  • III, IV
  • epoprostenol, iloprost, treprostinil
  • selexipag
24
Q

PDE-5i

  • decreases conversion of ___ to GMP
  • increased levels of ___ lead to ___ vasodilation
  • sildenafil and tadalafil: improved ___ functional capacity
  • may be used as ___ or in combination with other classes
  • considered ___ in many cases (. FC ____ , FC ___ without rapid progression)
A
  • cGMP
  • cGMP, pulmonary
  • 6MWD
  • monotherapy
  • first line, II, III
25
Q

PDE5-i

tadalafil (Adcirca)
- dosing: ___
- t1/2: ___ - ___ hrs
- dose adjustments for ___ impairment
- avoid use with ___ or nitrates (hypotension)

AE
- flushing, headache, dyspepsia, visual disturabances ( ___ -tinged vision), priapism, tinnitus, ___ loss, sudden vision loss, ___

A
  • daily
  • 15-35
  • renal
  • riociguat
  • blue
  • hearing
  • hypotension
26
Q

PDE5-i

sildenafil (Revatio)
- dosing: ___ daily
- t1/2: ___ hrs
- avoid use with ___ or nitrates (hypotension)
- ___ administration available for pt that is NPO. (Dosing differs from PO and must be given as a slow ___ to avoid hypotension) $$$

AE
- flushing, headache, dyspepsia, visual disturabances ( ___ -tinged vision), priapism, tinnitus, ___ loss, sudden vision loss, ___

A
  • thrice
  • 4
  • riociguat
  • IV, infusion
  • blue
  • hearing
  • hypotension
27
Q

Endothelin Receptor Antagonists

ET receptors on vascular smooth muscle mediate ___
- overexpression of ET-1 in PH pts correlated with ___
- blocking ET = ___

Option in classes ___ - ___
- tadalafil + ___ combo is firstline for class ____ and ___ without rapid progression

improve ___, pro- ___, delay time to clinical worsening, and optimize ___

A
  • vasoconstriction
  • remodeling
  • vasodilation
  • II-IV
  • ambrisentan
  • II, III
  • 6MWD, BNP, hemodynamics
28
Q

ET Receptor Subtypes: A vs B

A receptors
- located on ___ smooth muscle walls
- promote ___ , proliferation, and ___

B receptors:
- located on ___: promote ___ , stimulate ___ and ___ production
- located on __ cells of vascular walls: cause ___ and cell proliferation

In PAH, expression of ___ receptors is ___ in the media of blood vessels (vasoconstriction)

___ = selective for A
___ and ___ are mixed

unclear how selectivity impacts clinical outcomes

A
  • pulmonary
  • vasoconstriction, inflammation
  • endothelium, vasodilation, NO, prostacyclin
  • muscle, vasocontriction
  • B, upregulated
  • ambrisentan
  • bosentan, macitentan
29
Q

ERA

Bosentan (Tracleer)
- mixed
- dosing: ___ daily
- t1/2: ___ hrs
- strong CYP2C9/3A4 substrate/inducer (++++)

AE
- peripheral ___
- ___ abnormalities
- anemia
- ___ program due to black box warning for reproductive harm and ___
- avoid use in ___ impairment (3x > LFT)

Monitoring
- ___ test (baseline + monthly)
- ___ (baseline + monthly)
- ___ (baseline, 1st month, 3rd month, quartlerly)

this drug sucks

A
  • BID
  • 5hrs
  • edema
  • LFT
  • REMs, hepatotoxicity
  • hepatic
  • pregnancy
  • LFT
  • hemoglobin
30
Q

ERA

ambrisentan (Letairis)
- selective for ___ receptor
- dosing: ___ daily
- t1/2: ___ - ___ hrs
- substrate for CYP3A4 (+)

AE
- strong peripheral ___ with headache and nasal ___ (+++)
- ___ program due to blackbox warning for ___ harm
- ___ abnormalities
- avoid use in ___ imapairment (3x > LFT)

Monitoring
- ___ test (baseline + monthly)
- ___ testing not required, but good idea to check baselie, first 1-2 months, then periodically
- ___ monitoring (baseline, after first month, then periodically)

A
  • A
  • once
  • 9-15
  • edema, congestion
  • REMS, reproductive
  • LFT
  • hepatic
  • pregnancy
  • LFT
  • hemoglobin
31
Q

ERA

macitentan (Opsumit)
- dosing: ___ daily
- t1/2: ___ - ___ hrs (metabolite 46-56 hrs)
- substrate for CYP3A4 (++)

AE
- peripheral ___ (+)
- ___ abnormalities (++)
- ___ program due to blackbox warning for ___ harm
- do not use in pts with ___ impairment (3x > LFT)

Monitoring
- ___ test (baseline, monthly)
- ___ monitoring (baseline, “as indicated”)
- ___ monitoring (baseline, “as indicated”)

A
  • once
  • 14-19
  • edema
  • LFT
  • REMs, reproductive
  • hepatic
  • pregnancy
  • LFT
    hemoglobin
32
Q

ERA Clinical Effects

improves
- ___ capacity (6MWD)
- ___ capacity
- ___ parametes
- time to clinical ___
- WHO FC

improvement not likelt seen for ___ - ___ weeks

A
  • exercise
  • functional
  • hemodynamic
  • worsening
  • 8-10
33
Q

Soluble GC Stimulator

___ (Adempas)
- may be used as alternative to ___
- cannot be used in combo with ___ or ___ due to risk of hypotension
- demonstrate ___ and ___ activity in animal models
- improves ___ capacity, WHO FC, and time to clinical ___

A

riociguat
- PDE5-i
- sildenafil, tadalafil
- antiproliferative, antiremodeling
- exercise, worsening

34
Q

AMBITION
- subjects were treatment naive patients with FC II or III
- tested combo therapy of ___ and ___ vs these drugs by themselves with placebo

TAKEAWAY:
- combo therapy more effective than mono
- however SE were more common ( rates of ___ were similar)

A
  • ambrisentan, tadalafil
  • hypotension
35
Q

TRITON
evaluating efficacy of triple vs dual therapy in lowering PVR in newly diagnosed, treatment naive pts.
___ , ___ , ___ vs placebo

Results
- triple therapy = 54%
- dual therapy = 52%

TAKEAWAY: no significant difference; not much benefit/evidence for ___ therapy

A
  • tadalafil, selexipag, macitentan
  • triple
36
Q

WHO FC III with rapid progression or poor prognosis

candidate for parenteral prostanoids?
- Yes: SC ___ , IV ___ , IV ___
- No: consider ___ or oral prostanoid (likely in combo with ___ + ___ )

A
  • treprostinil, treprostinil, epoprostenol
  • inh, ERA, PDR-5i
37
Q

WHO FC IV

candidate for parenteral prostanoids?
- Yes: SC ___ , IV ___ , IV ___
- No: consider ___ or oral prostanoid + ___ + ___

A
  • treprostinil, treprostinil, epoprostenol
  • inh, ERA, PDR-5i
38
Q

Prostacyclins

  • prostacyclins stimulate the ___ pathway to increase pulmonary ___ , inhibit ___ aggregation, have cytoprotective and ___ effect
  • parenteral prostacyclins = standard for severe PH with RV failure
  • subQ ___ is becoming most common
A
  • cAMP, vasodilation, platelet, antiproliferative
  • treprostinil
39
Q

Prostacyclin

  • available in parenteral (IV + subQ), oral, and inhaled formulations
  • reserved for WHO Class ___ (rapidly progressing) and ___ patients
  • may be used in combination with ___ plus ___ or riociguat
  • do not use oral, inh, and parenterally concurrently
A

III, IV
- ERA, PDE-5i

40
Q

Prostacyclins

ADRs
- headache, ___ and limb pain, flushing/rash, diarrhea, nausea/vomiting, ___ (more in epoprostenol), ___

  • PO: diarrhea, ___
  • Inhaled: cough, throat irritation
  • IV: ___ infections, erythema
  • subQ: sit pain, infusion site reactions
A
  • jaw
  • thrombocytopenia
  • hypotension
  • anemia
  • line
41
Q

Oral Prostacyclins

treprostinil (Orenitram)
- dosing: __ daily or every __ hrs; titrate to effect
- t1/2 ~ ___ hrs
- if more than 2 doses are missed; must ___

A
  • twice, 8
  • 4
  • re-titrated
42
Q

Oral Prostacyclins

selexipag (Uptravil)
- dosing: titrate to max tolerated dose (1600 mcg ___ daily)
- t1/2 = ___ - ___ hrs, active metabolite up to ___ hrs
- therapy interrupted over 3 days requires ___
- do not crush or chew
- contraindicated with strong CYP ___ inhibitors (gemfibrozil)

A
  • twice
  • 0.8-2.5, 13.5
  • re-titration
  • 2C8
43
Q

Inhaled Prostacyclins

Illoprost (Ventavis)
- dosing: ___ times daily (bonk)
- t1/2: ___ - ___ min
- administration considerations: requires up to ___ doses daily; special inhaler requires setup prior to use
- must be plugged in

A
  • 9
  • 2-30
  • 9
44
Q

Inhaled Prostacyclins

treprostinil (Tyvaso)
- more common
- dosing: ___ times daily
- t1/2 = ___ hrs
- 1 ampule = ___ hrs of therapy
- special inhaler; battery powered

A
  • 4
  • 4
  • 24
45
Q

Prostacyclin: Treprostinil IV/SQ

treprostinil (Remodulin)
- SQ and IV dosing is the ___
- t1/2 = ___ hrs
- start at ___ - ___ ng/kg/min and titrate up to ___ - ___ ng/kg/min
- IV infusion requires stable access, do not ___ with anything else

A
  • same
  • 4
  • 1-3
  • 50-80
  • co-infuse
46
Q

Prostacyclin: SQ vs IV treprostinil

IV is reserved for patients who cannot tolerate SQ
- SQ infusion site reactions can be treated with antihistamines and topical agents
- SQ avoids risk of central line associated ___
- SQ pumps are smaller and more ___
- SQ administration typically utilizes ___ drug; IV must be prepared with ___ cassettes

A
  • infection
  • portable
  • undiluted, diluted
47
Q

Prostacyclin: epoprostenol IV

epoprostenol ___ - ___ ng/kg.min IV (continuous) titrated
- t1/2: ___ - ___ min
- must always have ___ prepared
- abrupt d/c may precipitate PH crisis
- Flolan (had to keep on ___ at all times - non-thermostable)
- Veletri (thermostable)
- requires permanent stable IV access, no SQ
- incompatible with everything - do not ___ with any other fluid
- inadvertent bolus can lead to CV collapse and death

no one uses this anymore; it’s poopy

A
  • 1-3
  • back-ip
  • ice
  • co-administer
48
Q

Disease Progression Guidelines

expert consultation likely needed
- for patients who do not respond to initial therapy (mono or combo), consider adding a 2nd or 3rd class
- example: add on ERA is on ___, or add inhaled ___ if already on ERA and PDE-5i

for FC III and FC IV pateints with inadequate response to max PCOL, consider ___ transplantation

A
  • PDE-5i, prostacyclin
  • lung
49
Q

Adjunct Therapy

treat underlying conditions like HTN and sleep apnea

___ or ___ therapy depending on cardiac function
- warfarin INR goal: ___ - ___
- aspirin 81 mg daily
- ___ to maintain euvolemia

A

anticoagulation, antiplatelet
- 1.5-2.5
- diuretics

50
Q

Supportive Therapy

  • immunizations: flu, pneumococcal, covid
  • supplemental ___ (pulmonary ___ )
  • ___ supplementation
  • avoid ___ travel
  • palliative care
A
  • oxygen, vasodilation
  • Fe
  • air
51
Q

Pregnancy Considerations

avoid pregnancy
- __ containing contraceptives may increase ___ risk
- ___ can decrease efficacy
- ___ and ___ are category X (REMS program)

A
  • estrogen, VTE
  • Bosentan
  • ERAs, riociguat
52
Q
A