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Microbiology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What best describes a symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit?

A

mutualism

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2
Q

Which of the following bacteria do NOT have a cell well?

A

mycoplasmas

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3
Q

Prokaryotic cells that move in response to nutrient levels are said to display

A

chemotaxis

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4
Q

Which of the following contains DNA or RNA but not both?

A

Viruses

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5
Q

An obligate halophile requires high

A

salt

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6
Q

In a chemical reaction, enzymes ___ the activation energy and ___ the reaction rate.

A

lower; increase

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7
Q

Which of the following is a direct counting method?

A

viable plate count

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8
Q

Psychrotrophs would be expected to grow

A

at refrigeration temperatures

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a bacterial shape or arrangement?

A

bacilli in chains

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10
Q

Which bactereial structure is primarily responsible for preventing bacteria from being destroyed by the hosts immune cells?

A

capsule

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11
Q

The initial step in the process of many bacterial infections is adhereence of the microbe to mucous membranes. The bacterial component that mediates adhereence is the

A

pilus

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12
Q

Plasma membranes are composed principally of

A

protein and phospholipid

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13
Q

Which type of organism gets energy from breaking down organic molecules and uses sugars as a carbon source?

A

chemoheterotroph

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14
Q

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that simple ediffusion

A

does not require a protein

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15
Q

The breakdown of a protein into its building blocks (amino acids) is

A

catabolic and exergonic

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16
Q

Which of the following can be determined using simple stains?

A

size, shape and cellular arrangement

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17
Q

Microbes that primarily infect the lungs are likely to be classifed as

A

obligate aerobes

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18
Q

Certain antibiotics, such as streptomycin, inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by targeting the

A

70s ribosome

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19
Q

What is the difference between spirilla and spirochetes?

A

spirilla are rigid with external flagella; spirochetes are flexible with internal flagella

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20
Q

Helicobater pylori is a bacterial pathogen known to cause gastric ulcers and stomach cancer in humans. Which term best describes H. pylori?

A

mesophilic acidophile

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21
Q

Abiogenesis refers to the

A

spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter

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22
Q

Lysozyme in tears is an effective mechanism for precenting bacterial conjunctivitis (pink eye), Which bacterial structure does lysozyme degrade?

A

peptidoglycan

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding mitochondria?

A

mitochondria are not found in plant cells

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24
Q

What enables competitive inhibitors to bind to a specific enzyme?

A

competitive inhibitors have structures that resemble the enzyme’s substrate

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25
Q

Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that solubilizes CO2 so that it can be removed from human tissues. Zinc is required for this enzyme to function. Thus, zinc is best described as a(n) ___ that is required to form the functional ___

A

inorganic cofactor; holoenzyme

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26
Q

How does a noncompetitive inhibitor reduce an enzyme’s activity?

A

The inhibitor binds to a location other than the active site, changing the shape of the active site.

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27
Q

What is the advantage of the spiral movement of spirochetes?

A

It allows the cells to move more easily through viscous human tissues and fluids, such as mucus.

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28
Q

Catabolic and anabolic reactions are coupled (connected). Which statement best describes this relationship?

A

Catabolic reactions provide energy and smaller molecules required for anabolic reactions.

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29
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is grown for 80 hours. During that time, they go through four generations of growth. What is the generation time in minutes?

A

80 hourts/ 4 generations = 20 hours * 60 minutes… 1200 minutes/generation

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30
Q

What. is the total number of bacteria produced if 10 bacteria undergo binary fission for. 5 generations?

A

10 x 2^5

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31
Q

What tube below. shos the. expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe?

A

B

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32
Q

Whichtube below shos the expected growth pattern for a microaerophile?

A

E

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33
Q

In the figure below, which represents a cell wall that possesses endotoxin?

A

B

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34
Q

In the figure below, which represents a cell wall sensitive to the antibiotic penicillin?

A

A

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35
Q

Which of the. following would you expect to find in Gram-ppositive cell walls?

A

Peptidoglycan…teichoic. acid

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36
Q

Which of the following include eukaryotic cells?

A

Fungi, animals, helminths

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37
Q
A

memorize

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38
Q

After using an inoculating loop to transfer a culture from one medium to the next, what step should be taken next to avoid contamination?

A

Heat the inoculating loop with the bunsen burner flame until it becomes red hot.

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39
Q

Immersion oil should be cleaned off an objective with which product

A

lens paper

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40
Q

The 40x objective of a light microscope is also known as the __ objective

A

high-dry

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41
Q

You have just rotated the 40x objective into position after viewing the specimen with the 10x objective. What should be your next step?

A

adjust the fine focus knob

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42
Q

What is the purpose. of heat fixing your slide before staining?

A

Heat fixation adhere the cells to the slide and coagulates thebacterial proteins, effectively killing the bacteria

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43
Q

What does ubiquitous mean?

A

Everywhere or in large amounts q

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44
Q
A

memorize

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45
Q

An inanimate object capable of being contaminated by infectious microbes is known as a(n)

A

fomite

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46
Q

Small, circular DNA molecules that replicate independently of bacterial chromosomes are called

A

plasmids

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47
Q

hich scientist is most responsible for finally disproving the. theory of spontaneous

A

Louis Pasteur

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48
Q

Some bacteria are obligate anaerobes. Which statement best explains this phenomenon?

A

They lack superoxide dismutase and catalase.W

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49
Q

hich is the acid-fast stain clinically useful?

A

It identifies the causative agents of leprosy and tuberculosis.

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50
Q

Which of the following steps in viral multiplication is only true of animal viruses?

A

uncoating

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51
Q

Which receptors of the influenza virus are responsible for binding to the host cell?

A

hemagglutinin

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52
Q

The region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transciption is called the

A

promoter

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53
Q

Transcription produces which of the following?

A

mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA

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54
Q

Corynebacterium. diphtheria is made virulent by incorporated prophage. genes encoding the diphtheria toxin. What term describes this process?

A

lysogenic conversion

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55
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of DNA replication?

A

new strands made in a 3’ -> 5’ direction

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56
Q

According to the operon model, a repressible enzyme will stop being produced when the

A

end-product is in excess

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57
Q

Deleterious mutations of ___ would result in the lac operon always being turned on.

A

repressor

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58
Q

RNA molecules. differ from DNA molecules because only RNA

A

All choices are correct

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59
Q

A gram-negative bacilli infection would be best treated with

A

aminoglycosides

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60
Q

Which viruses can cause gastroenteritis. with acute diarrhea?

A

Noroviruses and rotaviruses

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61
Q

Which of the following does NOT apply to shingles?

A

Occurs before chickenpox

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62
Q

Which of the following is NOT a chacteristic of the genetic dode?

A

all of the above are true of the genetic code

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63
Q

The analysis of the bases of the nucleic acid of a newly discoveredvirus showed 20% adenine, 40% G, 10% T and 30% cytosine. Thee viral nucleic acid is most likely

A

single-stranded DNA

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64
Q

Important charactereistics of antimicrobic drugs include all of the following EXEPT

A

has a low therapeutic index

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65
Q

The cellular basis for bactereial resistance to antimicrobics include

A

All these choices are correct

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66
Q

The most damaging type of mutation is a ___ mutation which can be caused by ___ mutations.

A

frameshift; deletion and insertion

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67
Q

Which of the following is FALSA regarding the lagging strand of DNA replication?

A

It is synthesized by DNA polymerase I instead of DNA polymerase III

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68
Q

Regarding both penicillins and quinolones, which one of the following tis the most accurate?

A

Both are bactericidal drugs

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69
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of measles?

A

Negri bodies can be found in the brainstem

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70
Q

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are

A

All the choices are correct.

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71
Q

Which of would be the first step in the biosynthesis of a virus with reverse transcriptase?

A

a complementary strand of DNA must be synthesized from an RNA template.

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72
Q

Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involese

A

injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell.

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73
Q

All of the following pertain to virus eenvelopes EXPECT they

A

are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.

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74
Q

All the following are correct about polio, EXEPT

A

The Salk vaccine contains an attenuated (weakened) virus.

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75
Q

Which of the following is NOT a means of drug resistance in bacteria?

A

development of a superinfection

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76
Q

Rubella is

A

associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and mental defects.

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77
Q

Which is incorrect about rabies?

A

all are correct statements.

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78
Q

When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means the

A

virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.

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79
Q

You are studying an unknown virus that does not perform transciption to make viral proteins. Which of the following characteristics must also be TRUE for this unkown virus?

A

The virus has a positive, sense-stranded RNA genome.

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80
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement about eukaryotic mRNA?

A

mRNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm following RNA processing.

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81
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding smallpox as compared to chickenpox?

A

Chickenpox causes a vesicular rash, whereas smallpox causes a maculopapular rash.

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82
Q
A

memorize

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83
Q
A

memorize

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84
Q
A

memorize

85
Q
A

memorize

86
Q

Which of these numbers correctly expresses a dilution factor?

A

10^-4

87
Q

What is the corrrect order of the Gram stain?

A

crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin

88
Q

What does the kirby-bauer test assess?

A

The susceptibility of an organism to a set of abtibiotics

89
Q

Two plates recently inoculated with B. subtilis are exposed to UV radiation with the lid OFF. Plate A is exposed for 10 seconds, and plate B is exposed for 3 minutes. You should expect

A

more B. Subtilis growth on plate A than plate B.

90
Q

Failure to apply safranin in a gram stain would result in

A

gram-positive bacterium staining purple and G-negative bacteria being colorless

91
Q

Which of the following lists the types of microbes in order of susceptibility to antiseptics and disinfectants, from the most susceptible to least susceptible?

A

non-acid-fast bacteria, acid-fast bacteria, encapsulated bacteria, bacterial spores

92
Q

Which antibiotic is typically administered to patients with MRSA or C. difficile infections?

A

Vancomycin

93
Q

Which of the following is least likely to kill endospores?

A

Pasteurization

94
Q

If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with

A

chickenpox

95
Q

B-lactam drugs inhibit enzymes known as ___, thereby decreasing the crosslinking of peptidoglycan. Clavulanate inhibits enzymes known as ___.

A

transpeptidases; B-lactamases

96
Q

Structual genes code for

A

mRNA and proteins

97
Q

Which antibiotic is typically NOT administered to pregnant women, nursing mother or children under 8 years of age?

A

tetracycline

98
Q

Which of the following is INCORRECT about purines?

A

purines are only found in DNA, not in RNA.

99
Q

Which of the following lists microbes or microbial structures in order from hardest to destroy by heat to the easiest to destroy?

A

bacterial endospores, fungal spores, vegetative bacteria, fungi

100
Q

In Frederick Griffith’s experiment what most likely explains the recovery of live streptococcus pneumoniae S strain cells from a mouse injected with heat-killed S strain mixed with live R strain cells?

A

The R strain cells picked up the S strain DNA, enabling it to produce a capsule

101
Q

The decimal reduction time for a bacterium is 30 minutes upon boiling. Starting with 10^12 bacteria, how many bacteria would remain after 2 hours and 30 minutes of boiling?

A

10^7

102
Q

What is an example of a virulence factor that is related to immune system evasion?

A

capsule

103
Q

T Helper cells release ___ to activate B Cells

A

cytokines

104
Q

Which of the following is NOT a first line of defense

A

inflammation

105
Q

Virulence factors include all the following EXEPT

A

cytokines

106
Q

Which portal of entry is the MOST commonly used by pathogens

A

respiratory

107
Q

Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT

A

production of antibodies

108
Q

All of the following can be recognized by toll-like receptors (TLRs) EXCEPT

A

interferons

109
Q

The binding of an antibody to an antigen can cause all of the following EXCEPT

A

clonal expansion

110
Q

Which of the following lymphoid organs has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?

A

Spleen

111
Q

The human body typically begins to be colinized by its normal flora

A

during and immediately after birth

112
Q

Which pair is mismatched

A

Coagulase to dissolve fibrin clots

113
Q

Shivering is a sign that

A

body temperature is rising

114
Q

The slowing, rolling, sticky of leukocytes to blood vessel walls is called ___ whereas the squeezing of leukocytes out of the vessel is called ___

A

margination…diapedesis

115
Q

Fever is initiated when circulating substances known as ___ affect the bodies thermostat also known as the bodies ___.

A

pyrogens;… hypothalmus

116
Q

Antigen presenting cells

A

all of the above

117
Q

all of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen EXCEPT

A

it is mostly IGm that are produced

118
Q

The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called an ___ however if the molecule is too small by itsself to illicite an immune response it is termed an ___

A

epitope…hapten

119
Q

Rabbid animals typically salivate excessively in the late stages of the disease this excess salivation

A

is the result of hydrophobia

120
Q

Your patient is born without a thymus how would this affect your patient

A

the patient would not produce mature T lymphocytes

121
Q

which of the following statements about innate immunity is INCORRECT

A

innate immunity remembers specific antigens and amplifies response upon later exposure

122
Q

Your four yo patient recently received a Dtap vaccination providing immunity to diphtheria tetanus and pertussis. If your patient is exposed to pertussis a few weeks later, which of the results would you expect to receive when measuring the patient’s antibody titer?

A

A sharp increase in IgG

123
Q

Which of the following events occurs LAST in inflammation?

A

Macrophages clean up cellular debris and dead neutrophils by phagocytosis

124
Q

All of the following apply to T cells EXCEPT that they

A

Coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies

125
Q

All of the following apply to B cells EXCEPT

A

Play a critical role in both the cell-mediated and humoral responses

126
Q

Which T cell is INCORRECTLY matched to its description?

A

Tc: Attack other T cells during self-tolerance screening

127
Q

What is the role of B cell receptors and T cell receptors in the immune response?

A

To recognize specific epitopes of an antigen

128
Q

CD4 T cell activation occurs through _____ antigen presentation, involving presentation of antigen with _____. On the other hand, CD8 T cell activation occurs through _____ antigen presentation, involving presentation of antigen with _____.

A

Extracellular; MHC II; intracellular; MHC I

129
Q

Genetic mutations in the CD8a gene often result in a CD8 T cell deficiency. Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to occur on a patient with such a mutation?

A

This patient would be less able to respond to viral infections

130
Q

Both Vibrio cholerae and Salmonella typhi are capable of causing disease in otherwise healthy individuals. The ID of V. cholerae is 1,000,000 cells, while the ID S. typhi is 10,000 cells. Based on this information, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A

Both V. cholerae and S. typhi are pathogenic, but S. typhi is more infectious than V. cholerae

131
Q

Which of the following is a distinct advantage of active immunnity over passive immunity

A

active immunity enables the developement of immunologic memory whereas no memory developes with passive immunity

132
Q

place the stages of adaptive immunity in the correct order from first to last

A

1=antigen presentation, lymphocyte activation, lymphocyte proliferation and differentiation, antigen elimination

133
Q
A

memorize

134
Q
A

memorize

135
Q

Staphylococcus and micrococcus bacteria, or a gram blank and catalase blank

A

Positive and positive

136
Q

Streptococcus and enterococcus bacteria are gram blank in calories blank

A

Positive and negative

137
Q

The presence of starch is determined by a blank color, when blank is added

A

Dark, purple and iodine

138
Q

Amylase breaks down

A

Starch

139
Q

Kovacs reagent is used to detect

A

Catalase

140
Q
A

memorize

141
Q

Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen

A

True

142
Q

Most of your immune system is located in the

A

Spleen

143
Q

Lymphocytes and macrophages typically destroy pathogens in the

A

Lymph nodes

144
Q

Which of the following sites would most likely be free of normal microbiota

A

Lungs

145
Q

Hospital staff talk about polymorphonuclear leukocytes they are referring to

A

Neutrophils

146
Q

Which of the following is an example of a GALT

A

Pyers patches

147
Q

Which molecule causes vasodilation and increased permeability during inflammation

A

Histamine

148
Q

What are the four cardinal signs of inflammation

A

Redness, edema, pain, heat

149
Q
A

memorize

150
Q

It’s possible to get bone fractures from tetanus

A

True

151
Q

The higher, the incidence of splenic lymphocyte apoptosis the greater the severity of sepsis

A

True

152
Q

In both botulism and tetanus respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing, and if left untreated, respiratory failure leads to death

A

True

153
Q

Splenic white pulp contains

A

Leukocytes

154
Q

Helicobacter chloride is a blank, whereas borrelia burgdorferi is a blank bacterium

A

Spyro bacillus, and Spyro cheat

155
Q

Children are more likely to get otitis media in adults because children’s used stationary tubes are

A

All the above

156
Q

Severe sepsis can be characterized as all the following, except

A

Low blood pressure

157
Q

Violent, coughing, and gasping for air is the blank stage of whooping cough

A

Proximal

158
Q

Which of the following is not a recognized form of anthrax

A

Septic

159
Q

Fever, headache and stiff neck are typically the initial symptoms of

A

Meningitis

160
Q

What is the typical habitat of endospore forming bacteria that are agents of disease?

A

Soil

161
Q

Which of the following is not typically a zoo in attic?

A

Anthrax

162
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic of tetanus?

A

Black eschar

163
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the paucibacillary form of leprosy

A

Disfiguration and loss of extremities

164
Q

Which of the following variance factors does not contribute to the spread of necrotizing fasciitis

A

Urethra, Jenna tocsin

165
Q

Spastic paralysis is caused by toxin, released from blank, whereas flaccid paralysis is caused by toxin released from blank

A

Clostridium, tetany and clostridium botulinum

166
Q

Helicobacter Pouri infection can lead to

A

Peptic also disease and stomach cancer

167
Q

Poultry products are likely a source of infection by

A

Salmonella in Terrica or camped out Dr., July

168
Q

Which of the following is not true, regarding the different types of plague

A

All are true about plague

169
Q

Which of the following can be treated by fecal microbiota transplants

A

Clostridium Difícil associated diarrhea

170
Q

Vernon cystic fibrosis patients are most susceptible to infection by

A

Pseudo Monas, are you getting Asa?

171
Q

Which of the following organisms cause a type of diarrhea with rice water stools?

A

Vibrio cholera

172
Q

Which of the following bacteria would not be treated with penicillin?

A

Neisseria meningitis

173
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about Lyme disease?

A

All the choices are correct

174
Q

Late stage of sepsis is a blank response due to blank

A

Hypo, inflammatory, and immune cell apoptosis

175
Q

Your patient has a foot wound that has developed into a serious necrosis in the recommend treatment has been sessions in the hyperbaric oxygen chamber. The ideology is.

A

Clostridium perry fringes

176
Q

The blockage of the passage of air to the lungs, by firing in the tissue are characteristic of blank, whereas the destruction of the mucocele or airy excavator is characteristic of blank

A

Diphtheria and pertussis

177
Q

KCS lesions containing inflammatory white blood cells within the lungs are called blank and be found in patients with blank

A

To Burgos and tuberculosis

178
Q

You’re a streamer migraines, often develop as a result of what infection

A

burgdorferi

179
Q

Cholera symptoms include

A

All the choices are correct

180
Q

In E. coli O157:H7, the O refers to its ____ antigen, whereas the H refers to its ____

A

Cell wall; flagellar

181
Q

Which is. the correct order of the “sepsis continuum?”

A

SIRS –> sepsis –> severe sepsis –> septic shock

182
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding leprosy?

A

Transmitted by the gastrointestinal route

183
Q

Gas gangrene may be distinguished from necrotizing fasciitis by the presence of ____ in the affected area of gas gangrene

A

Gram-positive, endospore-forming bacilli

184
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about the multibacillary (MB) form of leprosy?

A

The MB form is more common than the milder PB form

185
Q

Latent tuberculosis

A

Results when M. tuberculosis bacteria are phagocytized and walled off within granulomas in the lungs

186
Q

Your patient starts to develop a macular, maculopapular and petechial rash beginning on his hands and feet and spreading towards his torso. He states that he received a tick bite a few days ago after hiking in the woods. Which of the following. is the most likely diagnosis

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

187
Q

The nurse is reviewing instructions with a pregnant woman. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A

“I will eat cheese and lunchmeats to ensure I get enough protein and calcium.”

188
Q

What infectious agent is of concern from the previous question?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

189
Q

You should always perform a Gram stain first when attempting to identify a bacterial unknown.

A

True

190
Q

Upon the breakdown of glucose, bacteria will either produce acidic or neutral end-products, but not both

A

True

191
Q

Streptococci are catalase _____, whereas staphylococci are catalase _____

A

Negative: positive

192
Q

Motility in a SIM agar deep is due to the presence of what bacteria appendage

A

Flagella

193
Q

A positive citrate utilization test will turn the median

A

Blue

194
Q

Hydrogen, sulfide production can be detected by blank, which turns blank

A

Iron black

195
Q

A TSI slant can be used to test for all the following except

A

Motility

196
Q

Which of the following is false about indoor production?

A

It indicates the presence of hemolysins

197
Q

MacConkey agar and Hektoen enteric agar platese are selective for the growth of ___ bacteria, and differential for ___

A

Gram-negative; lactose fermenters

198
Q
A

Memorize

199
Q

Inhalation anthrax is the most common and most lethal form of anthrax

A

True

200
Q

Pregnant woman should eat sashimi to prevent listeriosis

A

Falsa

201
Q

You are more likely to get CA-MRSA than HA-MRSA

A

true

202
Q

Which is not a typical symptom of pneumonia

A

diarrhea

203
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of Lyme disease?

A

persistent cough

204
Q

Which of the following is a virulence factor of Aerococcus urinae?

A

its ability to form a biofilm

205
Q

Which of the following bacteria do NOT cause cellulitis

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

206
Q

Swollen lymph nodes are also known as

A

buboes

207
Q

Which virulence factor produces blue pus

A

pyocyanin

208
Q

Your 10 year old patient is diagnosed with hemolytic uremic syndrome after consumption of undercooked beef. The most likely causative E. coli strain is

A

all of the above

Microbiology (18 decks)

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