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BMS 100 > ANS > Flashcards

ANS Flashcards

1
Q

efferents from spinal cord to 1st ganglion

A

pre-gangionic fibre

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2
Q

Describe the general model of the SNS

A
  1. motor output to the SNS descends from the brain OR input from afferent (the body) synpases on neurons in the intermediolateral cell column (gray matter)
  2. SNS neurons send efferent axons through the white rami communicates to paravertebral ganglion
  3. within the paravertebral ganglion, the axon can:
    - synapses within paravertebral at that level
    - continue to another paravertebral at a different spinal level
    - pass through the paravertebral ganlion and continue to a prevertbral ganlion and synpase there
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3
Q

efferents from gangion to target organ

A

post-ganglionic fibre

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4
Q

where is the SNS found?

A

Found in lamina VII of the
thoracic and upper lumbar
spinal cord

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5
Q

what pathways also impact the activity of neurons in the intermediolateral horn/column

A

reflex pathways

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6
Q

describe option one of SNS

A

synapses on a neuron in the paravertebral ganglion at that same spinal level

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7
Q

what does option one control

A

Model is typical of sympathetic inputs to skin, blood vessels at that spinal level

also some of the inputs to the heart and lungs

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8
Q

describe option 2

A

synapses on a neuron in a paravertebral ganglion at a different spinal level

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9
Q

what ganglia receive fibres from the upper thoracic inter mediolateral horn:

A

cervical ganglia

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10
Q

Superior cervical ganglion = level
Middle cervical ganglion =
Inferior cervical ganglion =

A

superior = C1-C4
middle = C5-C6
inferior = C7-C8

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11
Q

The _______ cervical ganglion fuses with fibres from the first
thoracic ganglion to form the stellate ganglion

A

inferior

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12
Q

Middle + stellate – SNS input to:

A

heart, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles

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13
Q

_______ cervical ganglion – SNS
input to the cranial nerves. Which cranial nerves?

A

Superior
- nerves travel along blood vessels and often join the parasympathetic fibres of cranial nerves

CN III, VII, IX, X

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14
Q

The heart and lungs receive inputs from “Option __” and “Option __” gray
ramii

A

1 and 2
forms web-like cardiac and pulmonary plexuses that innervate these structures

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15
Q

Long ciliary nerves → SNS input to ______

A

pupil
- cause pupillary dilation
-accompany short ciliary nerves for cranial nerve 3

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16
Q

SNS input tends to make tears, saliva _____ “watery”, more “mucus-y”

A

less watery
CN VII, IX

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17
Q

describe option 3

A

passes through the paravertebral ganglion (no synapse) → synapses on a prevertebral ganglion

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18
Q

greater splanchnic nerve →

A

celiac ganglion (T5 – T9)

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19
Q

lesser splanchnic nerve →

A

superior mesenteric ganglia,
aorticorenal ganglia (T10 – T11)

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20
Q

least splanchnic nerve →

A

renal plexus/ganglia (T12)

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21
Q

lumbar & sacral splanchnic nerves→

A

inferior mesenteric ganglia,
plexuses to pelvic and lower abdominal organs (L1 – L2)

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22
Q

The sympathetic nervous system has ____ pre-ganglionic fibres and _____ post-ganglionic fibres

A

short pre ganglionic
long post ganglionic

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23
Q

Sympathic nervous system has neuronal cell bodies in the ___________ horn of ___to___

A

Neuronal cell bodies in the intermediolateral horn of T1
– L2

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24
Q

SNS: ____-ganglionic fibres can be white rami communicantes
from the spinal cord or splanchnic nerves

A

Pre-ganglionic fibres

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25
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system has ____ pre-ganglionic fibres and ____ post-ganglionic fibres

A

long pre
short post

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26
Q

PNS: neuronal cell bodies in the ______ or _____ spinal levels

A

in the brainstem (cranial nerve nuclei) or sacral spinal levels

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27
Q

the PNS has ____ prevertebral or postvertebral ganglia

A

NO prevertebral or postvertebral ganglia

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28
Q

PNS: Edinger-Westphal nucleus (midbrain) → ciliary ganglion

A

controls Pupillary constriction (CN III)

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29
Q

Superior salivatory nucleus (pons) → sphenopalatine ganglion

A

controls Lacrimal gland, nasal mucous secretions (CN VII):

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30
Q

Superior salivatory nucleus (pons) → submandibular ganglion controls

A

Sublingual, submaxillary salivary glands (CN VII):

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31
Q

Inferior salivatory nucleus (medulla) → otic ganglion controls

A

Parotid salivary glands (CN IX):

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32
Q

Salivary & lacrimal secretion is mainly under ____________ nervous system control

A

parasympathetic

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33
Q

more saliva, more watery, more digestive enzymes

A

PNS

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34
Q

less fluid, more “sticky” saliva

A

SNS

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35
Q

what cranial nerve is responsible for most parasympathetic output

A

the vagus

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36
Q

the vagus: Longest course of any
cranial nerve – leaves
through jugular foramen and descends alongside the

A

carotid arteries

37
Q

Vagus nerve: Forms anterior and posterior trunks at the stomach and divides to supply plexuses in the abdominal cavity, all the way to the left _____

A

(distal) colon

38
Q

Basic PaNS Anatomy – Sacral Efferents bodies are found

A

in S2 – S4 levels

39
Q

PaNS sacral efferents travel with pelvic splanchnic nerves to supply: (3)

A

▪ the rectum
▪ bladder
▪ male and female reproductive organs

40
Q

main receptors and neurotransmitter for SNS Preganglionic

A

Nicotinic and acetylcholine

41
Q

main receptors and neurotransmitters for SNS Postganglionic

A

Neurotransmitters:
Norepinephrine
(+ Epinephrine in adrenal
medulla)

Receptors:
Adrenergic
Alpha and Beta

42
Q

Receptors and Neurotransmitter PaNS Preganglionic

A

Acetylcholine

Nicotinic

43
Q

Receptors and Neurotransmitter PaNS Postganglionic

A

Neurotransmitter
Acetylcholine

Receptors:
Muscarinic

44
Q

Notable exceptions for SNS postganglionic

A

Acetylcholine in skin

Adrenal glands don’t have
post-ganglionic innervation…
they “are” the ganglion

45
Q

Is preganglionic myelinated or non-myelinated?

A

preganglionic = myelinated
postganglionic = nonmyelinated

46
Q

where is SNS preganglionic located? where is postganglionic?

A

pre: Intermediolateral column, T1 – L3

post: Prevertebral and paravertebral

47
Q

where is PaNS preganglionic located? where is postganglionic?

A

pre: Brainstem nuclei & sacral segments

post: Small ganglia in walls of viscera

48
Q

Increases glucose availability (gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis)

Increases blood flow to skeletal muscles, heart

Decreases blood flow to GI tract, skin, kidneys

Reduced contraction of bladder, contraction of urethral sphincter

Major neurotransmitters: epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

“Fight or Flight” = SNS

49
Q

the sympathetic nervous system tends to supply visceral AND “non-visceral” organs. What do non visceral organs include?

A
  • Skin (blood vessels, glands)
  • Skeletal muscles (blood vessels, general metabolism)
50
Q

Bronchoconstriction and increased mucous secretion

Increases digestive function and GI motility

Increased blood flow to external genitalia

Major neurotransmitter: acetylcholine

A

“Rest and digest”

51
Q

the parasympathetic nervous system has relatively little impact on blood vessels outside of:

A

the GI system
the reproductive system

52
Q

Acetylcholine is synthesized in _________ nerve terminals and then stored in vesicles

A

presynaptic

53
Q

Acetyl-CoA + Choline —————->
what enzyme?

A

Acetylcholine
Enzyme: choline acetyltransferase

54
Q

After it is secreted into the synapse, it’s degraded by ___________. What is it degrade to?

A

acetylcholinesterase

Degraded to acetate and choline (choline is taken back up into the presynaptic terminal)

55
Q

Acetylcholinesterase is widely distributed in connective tissue throughout the body and in the synapse of _________ terminals

A

cholinergic

56
Q

Norepinephrine synthesis: What happens outside the vesicle?

A

Tyrosine —–> Dopa (hydroxylation)
Dopa —–> Dopamine

57
Q

Norepinephrine synthesis: what happens inside the vesicle?

A

dopamine is transported into the synaptic vesicle:
Dopamine ——–> Norepinephrine

58
Q

Norepinephrine synthesis: In the adrenal medulla, most norepinephrine is converted
into _________ through ________ (in the vesicle)

A

Norepinephrine —> Epinephrine (methylation)

59
Q

hormones made by your adrenal glands

A

Catecholamines

60
Q

___to___ of secreted norepinephrine is taken up again into the presynaptic terminal. Is this an option for epinephrine?

A

50 – 80%

Not an option for epinephrine, which is secreted into the
bloodstream by the adrenal medulla (endocrine)

61
Q

Norepinephrine can be broken down by _________ oxidase near the synapse

A

monoamine

62
Q

Norepinephrine can also be broken down by ___________

A

catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

COMT is widely distributed throughout tissues

63
Q

Both the parasympathetic _________ and sympathetic _______ outputs are important for pupillary size. However, focusing the lens is mostly under control of the
_____________ system

A

para - constriction

sympathetic - dilation

parasympathetic

64
Q

strongly stimulated by parasympathetic activity – lots of
watery secretions that are rich in enzymes (when enzymes apply)

A

Nasal, lacrimal, salivary, gastrointestinal glands:

65
Q

The glands of the intestines are less controlled by the ____, more by the food in the ________

A

ANS
more by the food in the lumen of the gut

66
Q

Sweat glands are stimulated by the ____ – however, the neurotransmitter secreted is acetylcholine

A

SNS

67
Q

Blood vessels: Sympathetic nervous system – vasoconstriction in most vascular beds – mediated by _____ receptors

A

alpha-1 receptors

68
Q

Sympathetic nervous system: Vasodilation in others mediated by ______ receptors in skeletal muscles, heart, liver

A

beta-2 receptors

69
Q

______ nervous system – very limited effect on any blood vessels outside the GI tract and reproductive organs

A

Parasympathetic

70
Q

Heart: SNS– _____ receptors increase
contractility (basically, force of contraction) and heart rate → increased cardiac output

A

Sympathetic nervous system – beta-1

71
Q

Heart: PaNS ________ receptors decrease heart rate but have a small (negative) influence on contractility

A

muscarinic receptors

72
Q

Gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, hyperglycemia with
_________ nervous system stimulation

A

sympathetic

73
Q

Baroreceptor reflex
afferent:
efferent:

A

afferent – baroreceptors from CNs IX and X

efferent – parasympathetic and
sympathetic → CN X, thoracic plexus

74
Q

GI reflexes mediated by sensing food (whether sight/taste/smell or presence of food/secretions in the lumen)

afferent:
efferent:

A

afferent: visceral receptors from CN X

efferent: CN X

75
Q

Micturition (urination) reflex: afferents & efferents at the level of
the ______ spinal cord

A

sacral

76
Q

– a substance that activates a receptor when it binds to it

A

Agonist

77
Q

a partial agonist is a substance that binds to a receptor but doesn’t activate it fully

A

Variation

78
Q

a substance that inactivates a receptor or enzyme when it binds to it

A

Antagonist
- Can be reversible – it will eventually “let go” of the receptor or enzyme

Can be irreversible – it stays bound, and the receptor or enzyme (usually enzyme) is rendered useless

79
Q

Alpha and beta receptors have _______ affinities for different agonists and antagonists

A

different

80
Q

Reserpine – blocks VMAT → _________ of catecholamines

A

depletion
causes a decrease in catecholamine transmission

81
Q

Non-vesicle-mediated “leakage” of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic terminal. Is this an increase?

A

Amphetamine, and tyramine - optimize the release of dopamine

Increase in catecholamine transmission - make it more leaky and dopamine will escape

82
Q

Inhibition of reuptake at the presynaptic terminal. Cocaine, selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (i.e. Effexor). increase or decrease?

A

increase

83
Q

Inhibition of NT degradation. Mono-amine oxidase inhibitors (tranylcypromine). increase or decrease?

A

Increase catecholamine transmission

84
Q

Inhibition of NT release due to auto-receptor activation. Clonidine is thought to be a major example. Increase or decrease?

A

causes a decrease in catecholamine transmission

85
Q

Clonidine is a selective alpha-__ agonist

A

alpha-2 agonist

86
Q

Acts on presynaptic terminals to reduce adrenergic transmission in the central nervous system. Sits ahead of the sympathetic nervous system.

A

Clonidine

87
Q

Isoproterenol and dobutamine are mostly used in internal medicine/intensive care settings. Isoproterenol activates…. Dobutamine activities…

which increases blood pressure the most

A

Isoproterenol: Beta-1 and Beta-2 receptors

Dobutamine: activates beta-1 receptors with less beta2 receptor effect

88
Q

Albuterol, salbutamol are inhaled selective _____ agonists

A

beta-2
Activate beta-2 receptors in the bronchioles

89
Q

Phenylephrine: selective agonist for alpha-__ receptors

A

alpha-1 receptors

The main indication is as an over-the-counter decongestant.

Causes vasoconstriction and decreased secretions from the nasal mucosa (more blood = more mucous production)

Can also be used IV (emergently) to increase blood pressure

BMS 100 (37 decks)

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