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NURS 501 Advanced Pathophysiology UofA > Week 2 Immune System > Flashcards

Week 2 Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

Name of cell that all immune cells stem from

A

Hematopoietic stem cell

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2
Q

2 types of progenitor cells from hematopoietic cells

A
  1. Myeloid
  2. Lymphoid
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3
Q

Myeloid (innate immune) cell type that is the “first responder” and phagocytize organisms.

A

Neutrophil

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4
Q

Myeloid (innate immune) cell type that is involved in immune reactions and destruction of LARGE microbes (i.e. parasites) and have a 2-lobe nucleus shape.

A

Eosinophils

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5
Q

Myeloid (innate immune) cell type that is involved in anaphylaxis allergic reactions, parasites, and contain HEPARIN.

A

Basophils

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6
Q

Myeloid (innate immune) cell type that is reside in tissues and release histamine. Associated with wound healing and allergic reactin. have granules containing histamine and heparin.

A

Mast Cells

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7
Q

4 Granulocyte cells

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
  4. Mast Cells
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8
Q

Precursor cell to Macrophage and dendritic cells

A

Monocytes

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9
Q

“Large Eaters” Type of monocyte cells that digest pathogens and signal (communicate with) other immune cells to fight off infection. Named for the type of tissue they reside.

A

Macrophage

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10
Q

Type of monocyte cell that have finger-like “branches” and are in tissues that are exposed to environment. Act as messengers from innate and adaptive system of immune cells. Present antigens and interact with B & T cells

A

Dendritic cells

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11
Q

Type of lymphoid cell (innate immune system) that induces apoptosis (cell death) of abnormal cells (infected cells).

A

Natural Killer Cells

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12
Q

Type of lymphoid cell (adaptive immune system) that mature in bone marrow that are activated when exposed to pathogen.

A

B-cells

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13
Q

Type of Activated B-cell that retain information about pathogen exposures (memory) for a faster immune response.

A

Memory B cells

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14
Q

Type of Activated B-cell that are “antibody factories”

A

Plasma Cells

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15
Q

Type of lymphoid cell (adaptive immune system) that is produced in the bone marrow and mature in the Thymus.

A

T-cells

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16
Q

Type of T-cell that targets infected or cancerous cells by releasing lymphokines that degrades cell walls.

A

CD8+ (Cytotoxic) T-cells

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17
Q

Type of T-cell that helps coordinate immune response by activating B-cells to produce antibodies.

A

CD4+ (Helper) T-cells

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18
Q

Part of the immune system that has a set of 20 proteins that help antibodies and other cells to fight bacteria.

A

Complement System

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19
Q

Part of immune system that creates a membrane attack complex (MAC) and has the job of opsonization (tagging) and recruiting cells to the site of injury.

A

Complement system

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20
Q

Type of complement protein that tags and binds to bacteria (opsonization) that promotes phagocytosis.

A

C3b

21
Q

What does C3b convert to after being combined with proteins?

A

C5 convertase

22
Q

C5 convertase cleaves C5 into what two proteins that stimulate histamine release AND attracts macrophages, monocytes, and neutrophils to phagocytize foreign cells.

A

C5a and C5b (anaphylatoxins)

23
Q

C5b combines with C6-9 to form what, that creates a pore in pathogen
to lead to cell lysis?

A

MAC (Membrane Attack Complex)

24
Q

Final function of complement system?

A

C3a and C5a that attracts active macrophages.

25
Q

What does PAMPs stand for and what is it’s function?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns. Recognizes foreign cells.

26
Q

What does DAMPs stand for and what is it’s function?

A

Damage Associated Molecular Proteins. It has recognizes heat shock proteins from damaged cells.

27
Q

Which type of antibody is the first to respond, and the largest?

A

IgM

28
Q

Which type of antibody is the second to respond and can pass thru the placenta “gestation”? They tag antigens for NK cells to kill.

A

IgG

29
Q

Which type of antibody is found in the mucous layer and most abundant in the body as well as in breastmilk?

A

IgA

30
Q

Which type of antibody causes Type 1 hypersensitivity and causes release of histamines AND is protection against parasites.

A

IgE

31
Q

Which type of antibody is co-expressed with IgM by B-cells?

A

IgD

32
Q

What are 3 functions of H1 (histamine) receptors? *one heart

A
  1. Increase vascular permeability
  2. Increase vasodilation
  3. Initiate bronchial and smooth muscle contractions.
33
Q

What are 2 functions of the H2 (histamine) receptor? *2 lungs

A
  1. increase vascular permeability
  2. increase gastric secretion.
34
Q

What is the function of the mediator proteoglycans?

A
  1. Heparin - anticoagulant
  2. Chondroitin Sulfate - affects kinin pathway, vasodilation.
35
Q

Main role of T-cells

A

destroy antigens

36
Q

Main role of B-cells

A

produce antibodies against antigen.

37
Q

How is natural passive immunity acquired?

A

Between mother and infant through placenta and breastmilk for a year.

38
Q

How is artificial active immunity acquired?

A

Vaccines

39
Q

How is Artificial passive immunity acquired?

A

gamma globulin injections.

40
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is associated with allergic reactions and anaphylaxis?

A

Type 1 Hypersensitivity

41
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is associated with hyperacute transplant rejection and how quickly can it occur?

A

Type 2 Hypersensitivity. within minutes to hours.

42
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is associated with acute transplant rejection and how quickly does it occur?

A

Type 4 Hypersensitivity. within days to weeks.

43
Q

For SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematous) how clinical findings need to be present for diagnosis?

A

4 need to be present.

44
Q

For SLE, what are the clinical manifestations for skin, and joints, organs, and neuro?

A

Skin: Butterfly rash, photosensitivity, oral ulcers, alopecia (hair loss),
Joints: inflammation in 2 or more joints.
Organs: serositis (membrane inflammation) Lungs, heart, blood vessels.
Neuro: seizures or psychosis

45
Q

For SLE, what are the clinical lab findings?

A

Hemolytic anemia
Leukopenia
Lymphocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia
proteinuria

46
Q

What labs are run for SLE?

A

CBC, positive anti-nuclear antibodies: anti-DS DNA or Anti-Smith antibody, low C3 and C4, complete complement test (CH50), direct Coombs (RBC antibodies)

47
Q

Name 3 HIV diagnostic tests

A
  1. HIV antibody (ELISA at home)
  2. p24 antigen testing (15 days post infection)
  3. NAAT (nucleic acid amplification test) 7-10 days post infection.
48
Q

What low level count of CD4+ cells is diagnostic for HIV in adults and children?

A

Adults <200 cells/mm3
Children <500 cells/mm3

NURS 501 Advanced Pathophysiology UofA (9 decks)

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