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EPPP > Diagnosis & Psychpathology > Flashcards

Diagnosis & Psychpathology Flashcards

1
Q

paresthesias

A

an abnormal sensation, typically tingling or pricking (“pins and needles”), caused chiefly by pressure on or damage to peripheral nerves

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2
Q

avolition

A

a significant or severe lack of motivation or a pronounced inability to complete purposeful tasks

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3
Q

panic attack

A

an abrupt surge of intense fear or intense discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes

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4
Q

obessions

A

recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images that are experienced, at some time during the disturbance, as intrusive and unwanted, and that in most individuals cause marked anxiety or distress

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5
Q

compulsions

A

repetitive behaviors or mental acts that the individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly

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6
Q

localized amnesia

A

an inability to recall all events related to a circumscribed period of time

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7
Q

selective amnesia

A

an inability to recall some events related to a circumscribed period of time

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8
Q

generalized amnesia

A

a loss of memory for one’s personal identity as well as some semantic and skill knowledge

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9
Q

depersonalization

A

involves a sense of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer of one’s own thoughts, feelings, and actions

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10
Q

derealization

A

a sense of unreality or detachment with regard to one’s surroundings

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11
Q

hypnogogic hallucinations

A

vivid hallucinations that occur while falling asleep

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12
Q

hypnopompic hallucinations

A

vivid hallucinations that occur while waking

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13
Q

cataplexy

A

a brief loss of muscle tone

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14
Q

parasomnia

A

undesirable motor, verbal, or experiential phenomena that occur as primary sleep events or secondary to systemic disease and are categorized as occurring in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep, or as types not related to a specific sleep state

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15
Q

sleep bruxism

A

when a person involuntarily grinds or clenches their teeth while sleeping, sometimes leading to wearing down the teeth and jaw discomfort

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16
Q

somnambulism

A

sleepwalking

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17
Q

REM sleep behavior disorder

A

a parasomnia that occurs later in the night than NREM disorders;
usually affects middle-aged or elderly individuals, especially males, and sufferers often also have a neurological disorder;
the temporary muscle paralysis that normally occurs during REM sleep doesn’t occur so individuals may act out dreams through potentially violent movements or behaviors during sleep that can cause injuries to themselves or bed partners

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18
Q

synesthesia

A

a condition in which an involuntary joining of one sense is accompanied by a perception in another sense (a person sees a certain color in response to a certain letter of the alphabet or number)

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19
Q

hypersomnia

A

a condition in which you feel extreme daytime sleepiness despite getting sleep that should be adequate

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20
Q

post traumatic amnesia (PTA)

A

a pattern of mental disturbance characterized by memory failure for day-to-day events, disorientation, misidentification of family and friends, impaired attention and illusions resulting from a head injury

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21
Q

alogia

A

a symptom that causes you to speak less, say fewer words or only speak in response to others

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22
Q

traditional (first-generation) psychotics

A

chlorpromazine, thioridazine, and haloperidol

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23
Q

newer (second-generation) psychotics

A

clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine, and ariprazole

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24
Q

tardive dyskinesia

A

repetitive, involuntary movements, such as grimacing and eye blinking

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25
Q

medication for bipolar I

A

lithium; valproate, carbamazepine, or other antiseizure medication may be prescribed

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26
Q

atypical feature of MDD

A

significant weight gain or increase in appetite, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, pattern of interpersonal rejection sensitivity

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26
Q

hypokalemia

A

the condition that involves low levels of serum potassium

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27
Q

hyperorexia

A

excessive appetite

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28
Q

hypalgesia

A

decreased sensitivity to pain

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29
Q

Voyeuristic Disorder

A

characterized by recurrent and intense sexual arousal from observing an unsuspecting person who is naked, is disrobing, or is engaged in sexual activity

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30
Q

exhibitionist disorder

A

recurrent and intense sexual arousal from exposing one’s genitals to an unsuspecting person

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31
Q

Frotteuristic disorder

A

recurrent and intense sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting adult

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32
Q

pedophilic disorder

A

recurrent and intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or sexual behaviors involving sexual activity with one or more prepubescent children

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33
Q

fetishistic disorder

A

characterized by recurrent and intense sexual arousal from using nonliving objects or focusing on one or more nongenital body parts

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34
Q

transvestic disorder

A

involves recurrent and intense sexual arousal from cross-dressing

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35
Q

covert sensitization

A

pairing presentation of the object of sexual desire with an aversive stimulus in imagination

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36
Q

orgasmic reconditioning

A

instructs a client to begin masturbating while fantasizing about the inappropriate stimulus then switch from the paraphilic to more appropriate fantasies at the moment of masturbatory orgasm

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37
Q

satiation therapy

A

first masturbating to orgasm while imagining appropriate stimuli and then continuing to masturbate while fantasizing about paraphilic images after orgasm

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38
Q

splitting

A

vacillating between contradictory views of the self and others as “all good” or “all bad”

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39
Q

difference between delirium and dementia

A

delirium affects mainly attention and awareness;
dementia affects mainly memory and other cognitive function

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40
Q

anterograde amnesia

A

type of memory loss that occurs when you can’t form new memories

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41
Q

retrograde amnesia

A

the inability to remember past events or experiences

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42
Q

iatrogenic condition

A

one that is produced by the treatment

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43
Q

avoidant personality

A

combination of social avoidance, fear of humiliation, and loneliness

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44
Q

tonic phase

A

extension of the limbs

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45
Q

clonic phase

A

violent rhythmic contractions

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46
Q

idiopathic

A

of unknown cause

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47
Q

homeopathic

A

a more natural approach to healing in which the patient is given small doses of substances, which in larger doses, cause the same symptoms that they are suffering from

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48
Q

allopathic

A

the typical biomedical treatments which are practiced by most physicians in North America and Europe today

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49
Q

autoplastic

A

adaptation through altering one’s own behavior

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50
Q

coprolalia

A

involuntary utterances of obscenities

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51
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

dementia caused by a lack of thiamine in the brain, which is usually caused by chronic alcoholism and sometimes by severe malnutrition;
characterized by anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation (fabrication of memories to compensate for memory loss)

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52
Q

Briquet’s syndrome

A

AKA somatization disorder

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53
Q

identity foreclosure

A

characterized by a commitment to an identity (e.g., career) that was defined or suggested by a parent of other significant person

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54
Q

structural abnormalities in ASD

A

amygdala and cerebellum; and abnormalities in serotonin, GABA, and other neurotransmitters

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55
Q

best prognosis for ASD

A

development of functional language by age five, an IQ over 70, a later onset of symptoms, and an absence of comorbid mental disorders

56
Q

ADHD prevalence rate

A

5% for children and 2.5% for adults, with a male-to-female gender ratio of about 2:1 for children and 1.6:1 for adults

57
Q

drug of choice for Tourette’s

A

clonidine

58
Q

structural abnormalities in schizophrenia

A

increased volume in the lateral and third ventricles, reduced size of the hippocampus and amygdala, decreased cerebral blood flow in the prefrontal cortex, elevated dopamine levels or oversensitive dopamine receptors, which has been expanded to include other neurotransmitters, especially norepinephrine, serotonin, and glutamate

59
Q

delusion of reference

A

in which the person believes that objects or events in the immediate environment have an unusual and particular significance to him or her

60
Q

sensate focus

A

nondemand pleasuring

61
Q

characteristics linked to successful smoking cessation

A

age 35 or older, married or living with a partner, later age when started smoking, being male

62
Q

Cluster A
Cluster B
Cluster C

A

odd or eccentric behaviors;
dramatic, emotional, or erratic behaviors;
anxiety or fearfulness

63
Q

illusion

A

misperception of a real stimulus

64
Q

specifier “provisional” is used when

A

the clinician believes the full criteria for a diagnosis will eventually be met but does not currently have sufficient information for a firm diagnosis

65
Q

etiology of ID

A

30% to chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., Down Syndrome, damage from toxins);
15 to 20% to environmental factors and other mental disorders (severe deprivation, autism);
10% to pregnancy and perinatal complications (fetal malnutrition, anoxia, HIV);
5% to heredity (Tay-Sachs disease, PKU, fragile X syndrome);
5% to general medical conditions during infancy or childhood (lead poisoning, malnutrition);
In 30 to 40% of cases, the cause is unknown, but low birth weight has been identified as the strongest predictor of these cases

66
Q

differential diagnosis of ID

A

SLD, ASD, Neurocognitive Disorder, and Borderline Intellectual Functioning

67
Q

brain abnormalities in ADHD

A

prefrontal cortex (mediates higher-order cognitive functions);
cerebellum (coordinates motor activity);
caudate nucleus and putamen (part of the basal ganglia and are involved in the control of movement)

68
Q

behavioral disinhibition hypothesis

A

the essential characteristic of ADHD is an inability to adjust activity levels to the requirements of the situation

69
Q

common co-diagnoses of SLD

A

ADHD (20 to 30%), ODD, conduct disorder, MDD

70
Q

possible contributors to SLD

A

exposure to toxins (especially lead), early malnutrition, food allergies, hemispheric abnormalities (e.g., incomplete dominance or mixed laterality), and cerebellar-vestibular dysfunction due, for example, to otitis media (inflammation of the middle ear)

71
Q

Clonidine side effects

A

dry mouth, headache, hypotension (low blood pressure), vomiting, dizziness, irritability, sedation

72
Q

medication for Tourette’s and ADHD

A

clonidine or the antidepressant desipramine

73
Q

delusions

A

false beliefs that are maintained despite conflicting evidence

74
Q

delusion subtypes

A

1) Erotomanic: believes that another person (usually of higher status) is in love with them
2) Grandiose: believes that they have remarkable but unrecognized talent or wisdom or made a meaningful discovery
3) Jealous: believes spouse or lover is unfaithful
4) Persecutory: believes that they are being conspired against, cheated, spied on, or maliciously maligned
5) Somatic: believes that they have abnormal bodily functions or sensations
6) Mixed: The person’s delusion incorporates more than one theme
7) Unspecified: The person’s delusional belief cannot be determined or does not match one of the specific types
pjsegmu

75
Q

better prognosis for schizophrenia

A

late and acute onset, a precipitating event, female gender, good premorbid adjustment, insight into the illness, a brief duration of active-phase symptoms, a family history of a mood disorder, and no family history of schizophrenia

76
Q

concordance rates for the biological relatives of a person who has received a diagnosis of Schizophrenia

A

Biological sibling: 10%
Dizygotic (fraternal) twin: 17%
Monozygotic (identical) twin: 48%
Child of one parent with Schizophrenia: 13%
Child of two parents with Schizophrenia: 46%

77
Q

manic episode

A

a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and abnormally and persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy

78
Q

12-month prevalence rate for Bipolar I Disorder

A

0.6% in the United States, and the lifetime male-to-female prevalence ratio is approximately 1.1:1

79
Q

interpersonal and social rhythm therapy (IPSRT)

A

focuses on helping clients recognize the impact of interpersonal activities and relationships on social and circadian rhythms and regularize those rhythms so they can gain control over their mood cycles

80
Q

classic, or “vegetative” signs of depression

A

persistent problems with appetite, weight loss or gain, sleep difficulties, reduced energy level, and changes in sexual desire or function

81
Q

MDD with seasonal pattern (AKA seasonal affective disorder, SAD)

A

applied when the mood episode consistently occurs at a particular time of the year, most often beginning in the fall and continuing into the winter months;
symptoms include a lack of energy, hypersomnia, increased appetite and weight gain, and carbohydrate craving

82
Q

explanation for SAD

A

related to reduced exposure to sunlight which disrupts the body’s normal circadian rhythms, resulting in an increased production of melatonin (a hormone that causes drowsiness) and a lower-than-normal level of serotonin

83
Q

depression and sleep

A

associated with decreased slow-wave or non-REM sleep;
early morning waking, decreased sleep continuity;
earlier onset of REM sleep or decreased REM latency

84
Q

type of memory affected by depression

A

recall memory

85
Q

12-month prevalence rate for MDD

A

7%, with the rate for individuals ages 18 to 29 being 3 times the rate for individuals ages 60 and older;
rates are about equal for males and females before puberty but, starting in early adolescence, the rate for females is 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males

86
Q

etiology of MDD

A

genetic factors that predispose a person to both neuroticism and depression;
low levels of norepinephrine (the catecholamine hypothesis);
low levels of norepinephrine and serotonin (permissive theory);
linked to a high level of cortisol (stress hormone released by the adrenal gland), which causes degeneration of cells in the hippocampus

87
Q

Seligman’s (1978) learned helplessness model of depression

A

the result of repeated exposure to uncontrollable negative life events with a tendency to attribute those events to stable, internal, and global factors;
revised version of this model places less emphasis on attributions and identifies a feeling of hopelessness as the proximal and sufficient cause of depression

88
Q

Lewinsohn’s (1974) behavioral theory of depression

A

result of a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement for adaptive behaviors, which causes extinction of those behaviors as well as pessimism, low self-esteem, social isolation, and dysphoria that, in turn, are reinforced by the sympathy and concern of others

89
Q

Beck’s (1976) cognitive theory of depression

A

emphasizes the role of negative self-statements about oneself, the world, and the future (AKA the negative or depressive cognitive triad)

90
Q

Rehm’s (1987) self-control model of depression

A

attributes depression to problems related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement;
people who are depressed attend more to negative than positive life events, have strict standards of self-evaluation and make internal attributions for negative events, and provide themselves with insufficient reinforcement and excessive punishment

91
Q

3 major types of antidepressants are prescribed

A

tricyclics (TCAs), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

92
Q

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and depression

A

not a preferred treatment for depression b/c of adverse side effects (disorientation and anterograde and retrograde amnesia) but these effects are reduced when ECT is administered only to the right (nondominant) hemisphere;
ECT is effective for severe endogenous depression that is resistant to antidepressants

93
Q

specific phobia specifiers

A

animal, natural environment, blood-injection-injury, situational (cued), and other
ABSNO

94
Q

most common psychiatric disorder in older adults

A

GAD

95
Q

12-month prevalence rate of OCD

A

1.2% - equally common in male and female adults;
but male children have higher rates than female children;
* For males, the peak onset is between 6 and 15.
* For females, the peak onset is between 20 and 29

96
Q

etiology of OCD

A

heredity, a low level of serotonin, and brain structure abnormalities including the orbitofrontal cortex and caudate nucleus

97
Q

medication for OCD

A

clomipramine (a TCA), fluvoxamine, sertraline (Zoloft), and several other SSRIs

98
Q

eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) and PTSD

A

found to be an effective treatment, but there is evidence that its effects are due to exposure to feared stimuli and that eye movements are unnecessary

99
Q

Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)

A

diagnosis requires the presence in one person of two or more distinct personalities or the experience of possession, accompanied by recurring gaps in the recall of ordinary events, personal information, or traumatic events that can’t be explained by normal forgetfulness

100
Q

dissociative amnesia

A

characterized by an inability to recall important autobiographical information that can’t be explained by ordinary forgetfulness and causes significant distress or impaired functioning;
increased risk for this disorder is associated with exposure to one or more traumatic events (esp childhood physical or sexual abuse, interpersonal violence)

101
Q

Somatic Symptom Disorder

A

involves one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or a significant disruption in daily life with excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms as manifested by at least one of 3 characteristic symptoms:
 Disproportionate and persistent thoughts about the seriousness of the symptoms; persistently high level of anxiety about one’s health or symptoms; excessive time and energy devoted to symptoms or concerns about health

102
Q

somatization disorder comorbidities

A

personality disorder (61%), MDD (55%), GAD (34%), and panic disorder (26%)

103
Q

illness anxiety disorder

A

preoccupation with having a serious illness, an absence of somatic symptoms or the presence of mild symptoms, a high level of anxiety about one’s health, and either performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of medical care

104
Q

Conversion Disorder (Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder)

A

diagnosed in the presence of at least one symptom that involves an alteration in voluntary motor or sensory function and is incompatible with known neurological and medical conditions

105
Q

treatment for factitious disorder

A

symptom management rather than “curing” the disorder and is most effective when it includes establishing a strong therapeutic alliance and providing supportive therapy and consistent care;
use of confrontational techniques is usually contraindicated because they tend to increase the person’s defensiveness and denial and the likelihood that he or she will terminate therapy prematurely

106
Q

insomnia treatment

A

benzodiazepine, antihistamine, or other drug;
CBT intervention that includes:
 Sleep restriction (restricting time in bed to improve sleep continuity)
 Stimulus control (strengthening the bed and bedroom as cues for sleep)
 Sleep-hygiene education (providing information on healthy sleep behaviors and environmental conditions conducive to sleep)
 Relaxation training, and/or cognitive restructuring

107
Q

Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorders

A

characterized by recurrent episodes of incomplete awakening that occur most often during Stage 3 or 4 sleep in the first third of a major sleep episode and that involve:
 Sleepwalking: associated with low levels of autonomic arousal and is characterized by prominent, organized motor activity such as walking around, talking, and eating
 Sleep terrors: sudden awakening from sleep that usually starts with a panicky scream and is accompanied by intense anxiety and autonomic arousal - motor activity is less organized and usually involves resisting being touched or held and sitting up
 The person has little or no recall of the episode when he or she wakes up.
 The person has similar sleep and EEG patterns

108
Q

sex therapy is most effective for which sexual dysfunction?

A

Premature Ejaculation

109
Q

sex therapy includes

A

sensate focus and the start-stop or squeeze technique

110
Q

paraphilia

A

any intense and persistent sexual interest other than sexual interest in genital stimulation or preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners

111
Q

10 classes of substances

A

alcohol; caffeine; cannabis; phencyclidine and other hallucinogens; inhalants; opioids; sedatives, hypnotics, and anxiolytics; stimulants; tobacco; and other/unknown (this category includes Gambling Disorder)

112
Q

substance use disorders

A

presence of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that the individual continues using the substance despite significant substance-related problems

113
Q

substance use disorders specifiers

A

1) Early: there is more than 1 month but less than 12 months of remission
2) Sustained: there is 12 months or longer of remission
3) Full: the person no longer meets any of the criteria for substance dependence of abuse
4) Partial: one or more of the criteria for substance dependence are still met but the full criteria are no longer met

114
Q

incentive-sensitization theory

A

repeated activation of the dopaminergic reward system in the brain by the substance and cues related to the substance sensitizes this system, resulting in a craving for and a compulsion to use the substance

115
Q

tension-reduction hypothesis (Conger, 1956) and the self-medication hypothesis

A

people use alcohol and other drugs to alleviate stress and enhance their mood and that repeated use of a drug for these reasons eventually leads to addiction;
addiction is the result of negative reinforcement (alleviation of stress) and positive reinforcement (mood enhancement).

116
Q

smoking cessation interventions

A

most successful when they combine therapy (e.g., behavior therapy, CBT, self-guided therapy), pharmacotherapy (nicotine replacement therapy and/or the antidepressant Wellbutrin), and advice and support from medical or mental health professionals

117
Q

Marlatt and Gordon (1985) found that 3 high-risk situations are associated with nearly 75% of all lapses

A

negative emotional states, interpersonal conflict, and social pressure

118
Q

relapse prevention therapy (RPT)

A

describes addiction as an “overlearned habit pattern” and proposes that the risk for relapse is reduced when a person views a lapse as the result of specific, external, and controllable factors;
encourages clients to believe that a lapse will not necessarily lead to total relapse and to view a lapse as a learning experience;
clients helped to identify the circumstances that increase the risk for a lapse (e.g., situations that elicit negative emotions or expose them to alcohol or alcohol-related cues) and to use CBT to help prevent lapses and cope more successfully with lapses when they occur;
focuses on minimizing the abstinence violation effect (continue to engage in prohibited behavior following the violation to abstain) and help the client to develop “positive addictions”

119
Q

features of Substance/Medication-Induced Mental Disorders

A

(a) involves a clinically significant symptomatic presentation of a mental disorder
(b) evidence from a history, a physical exam, or lab results confirms that the disorder developed during or within 1 month of substance intoxication or withdrawal
(c) cannot be better accounted for by another mental disorder or medical condition
(d) doesn’t occur exclusively during an episode of delirium
(e) symptoms cause significant distress or impairment in functioning

120
Q

best predictor for alcoholism is

A

family history of alcoholism

121
Q

symptom onset of alcohol withdrawal

A

begin within 4-12 hours after stop drinking, peak during the 2nd day of abstinence, and decrease markedly by the 4th or 5th day

122
Q

delirium tremens (DT’s)

A

severe alcohol withdrawal symptoms that may include vivid hallucinations, delusions, autonomic hyperactivity, and agitation

123
Q

2 medications to treat opioid withdrawal

A

buprenorphine (Subutex) and buprenorphine/naloxone (Suboxone)

124
Q

Paranoid Personality Disorder

A

pervasive pattern of distrust and suspiciousness of others that involves interpreting their motives as malevolent

125
Q

Schizoid Personality Disorder

A

pervasive pattern of detachment from interpersonal relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression in interpersonal settings

126
Q

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

A

pervasive social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships and cognitive or perceptual distortions and behavioral eccentricities

127
Q

etiology for antisocial PD

A

heredity, family characteristics (parenting behavior characterized by high negativity, low warmth, and inconsistency), and personality traits (lack empathy, lower-than-normal autonomic response to threatening stimuli)

128
Q

antisocial personality disorder

A

pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15

129
Q

BPD

A

pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect plus marked impulsivity

130
Q

BPD theories

A

1) Mahler’s object relations theory: abnormalities in the separation-individuation process that lead to fixation at this stage and vacillation between a need for separation and a fear of abandonment;
2) Kernberg: caregiver behaviors that alternate unpredictably between being nurturing/gratifying and depriving/punitive produces a weak ego that relies primarily on the primitive defense mechanism of “splitting”;
3) Linehan: pervasive emotion dysregulation:
* (a) biologically based vulnerability to high emotionality and inability to regulate intense emotional responses
* (b) exposure to an invalidating environment in which communication of private experiences is responded to by significant others in erratic and negative ways

131
Q

main strategies of DBT

A

(a) group skills training to develop mindfulness, emotion regulation, and interpersonal effectiveness;
(b) individual outpatient psychotherapy to maintain motivation and strengthen newly acquired skills;
(c) telephone coaching to provide between-session support and promote generalization of skills

132
Q

Histrionic Personality Disorder

A

pervasive pattern of emotionality and attention-seeking

133
Q

Narcissistic Personality Disorder

A

pervasive pattern of grandiosity in fantasy or behavior, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy

134
Q

Avoidant Personality Disorder

A

pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation

135
Q

Dependent Personality Disorder

A

pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive, clinging behavior and fear of separation

136
Q

OCPD

A

pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control that limit flexibility, openness, and efficiency

137
Q

akesthesia

A

inability to remain still

EPPP (8 decks)

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