IO Flashcards

1
Q

personnel psychology

A

concerned with theory and applications related to evaluating, selecting, and training workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

organizational psychology

A

focuses on individual and group processes within organizations and is concerned with the factors that affect such outcomes as job satisfaction, motivation, work effectiveness, and quality of work life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

engineering psychology

A

deals with the relationships between workers and the work context (AKA human factors psychology and ergonomics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

job-oriented techniques

A

focus on the task requirements of the job (e.g., lifting, repairing, installing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

worker-oriented techniques

A

identify the knowledge, skills, abilities, and personal characteristics that are required for successful job performance (e.g., high school education, manual dexterity, 20/20 vision, adaptability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

objective measures

A

direct, quantitative measures of performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

subjective measures

A

rely on the judgment of a rater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

“360-degree” performance measures

A

incorporate ratings from multiple raters such as supervisors, supervisees, peers, subordinates, and customers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

personnel comparison systems (PCS)

A

involve rating an employee by comparing him/her to other employees in a rank-ordered system, from best to worst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

critical incidents

A

descriptions of specific job behaviors that are associated with very good and very poor performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

halo effect

A

tendency to judge all aspects of a person’s behavior on the basis of a single attribute or characteristic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

central tendency bias

A

tendency to assign average ratings to all ratees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

leniency bias

A

tendency to give all ratees positive ratings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

strictness bias

A

tendency to assign negative ratings to all ratees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

contrast effect

A

tendency to give ratings on the basis of comparisons to other ratees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

frame-of-reference training

A

help raters recognize the multidimensional nature of job performance and to ensure that different raters have the same conceptualizations of job performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

average validity coefficient for job knowledge tests

A

.62

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

criterion contamination

A

when a rater’s knowledge of a person’s performance on a selection instrument (e.g., performance in the assessment center) affects how the rater evaluates the person’s performance once he or she is on the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

big 5 personalities

A

extraversion, agreeableness, openness, emotional stability, and conscientiousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

average validity coefficient of cognitive ability tests when used to:
predict performance ratings;
predict performance on a work sample

A

.51
.75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

adverse impact

A

a substantially different rate of selection for different groups that are defined on the basis of gender, race/ethnicity, age, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

80 percent (4/5ths) rule

A

adverse impact is occurring when the selection rate for a minority group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ)

A

there is a valid reason for hiring a substantially larger proportion of a particular subgroup; if an employer can demonstrate that it is job-related and a business necessity, despite having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

unfairness

A

one group consistently scores lower than another group on a selection test, but both groups perform equally well on the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

within group norming

A

converting raw scores to standard scores, percentile ranks, or other norm-referenced scores within each group and then using the same predetermined cutoff for both groups. When using this technique, members of different groups can obtain different raw scores on a test but the same norm-referenced score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

banding

A

treating scores within a given score range (or band) as equivalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

incremental validity

A

usefulness of a selection test in terms of decision-making accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

utility analysis

A

to assess the cost-effectiveness of a selection procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

compensatory technique

A

an applicant who gets a low score on one predictor can “make up for it” by doing very well on another predictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Kirkpatrick’s evaluation criteria levels

A
  1. reaction criteria: participants’ response to the training or intervention
  2. learning criteria: quantifiably measure what has been learned
  3. behavior criteria: impact of the intervention on the individual’s behavior or performance
  4. results criteria: measure the impact of training on the broader organizational goals and objectives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Holland’s Personality & Environment Typology types

A

realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, conventional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Roe’s Fields and Levels Theory

A

links children’s experiences with their parents to their later occupational choice and the level they achieve within that occupation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

personal authoritative reality

A

a thought, act, direction, or behavior that the individual feels is right for him or herself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

common reality

A

what “they” say you should do, for example, “if you don’t get a good education, you can’t get a good job.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

circumscription

A

the progressive elimination of least preferred options or alternatives that occurs as children become increasingly aware of occupational differences in gender or sex-type, prestige, and then field of work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

compromise

A

the expansion of occupational preferences in recognition of and accommodation to external constraints (e.g., level of effort required, accessibility, cost) encountered in implementing preferences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Krumboltz’s Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM)

A

career transitions result from learning experiences from planned and unplanned encounters with the people, institutions and events in each person’s particular environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Holland’s Personality and Environment Typology

A

all behaviors (including career choice) are a function of personality and the social environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Super’s Career and Life Development Theory

A

assumptions that career development can be described in terms of a predictable sequence of stages and that the tasks of each stage must be mastered in order for the individual to progress to the next stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Taylor’s Scientific Management

A

1) Use scientific methods to determine the best way of doing a particular job. 2) Divide jobs into their most elementary components. 3) Use a piece-rate incentive system in which pay depends on output as a way to motivate workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Theory Z

A

consensual decision-making, slow promotion, holistic knowledge of the organization, individual responsibility, long-term employment, and a moderately specialized career path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

human relations approach

A

worker performance is affected primarily by social factors including attitudes toward supervisors and co-workers and informal work group norms

43
Q

total quality management (TQM)

A

Skill Variety: Workers are cross-trained to increase their range of knowledge and skills; constant learning and development is required.
Task Variety: Workers work on a whole product or component of a product and see how their work fits into the “bigger picture.”
Autonomy, Participation, and Empowerment: Workers have a high degree of decision-making authority.
Task Significance: Contact and communication with external customers is part of the work process.
Feedback: Feedback comes directly from the work process (rather than from management).

44
Q

systems approach

A

emphasizes that an organization is an open system that receives input from both within and without; that changes in one part of the organization affect all other parts; and that the whole organization is an entity greater than the sum of its constituent parts

45
Q

autocratic leaders

A

make decisions alone and instruct subordinates what to do

46
Q

Democratic leaders

A

involve subordinates in the decision-making process

47
Q

laissez-fare leaders

A

allow subordinates to make decisions on their own with little guidance or help

48
Q

consideration leader

A

person-oriented and focus on the human relations aspects of supervision

49
Q

initiating structure leader

A

task-oriented and focus on setting goals, ensuring that subordinates follow rules, and clarifying subordinate and leader roles

50
Q

Theory X leader

A

beliefs that work is inherently distasteful; that most workers lack ambition and need to be directed; and that motivation is dominated by lower-level needs

51
Q

Theory Y leader

A

believe that, under the proper conditions, work is “as natural as play”; that most workers are self-directed, responsible, and ambitious; and that workers require freedom and autonomy

52
Q

Fiedler’s Contingency (LPC) Theory

A

High LPC leaders describe their least preferred co-worker in positive terms and are primarily relationship-oriented.
Low LPC leaders describe their least preferred co-worker negatively and are task and achievement-oriented

53
Q

House’s Path-Goal Theory of Leadership

A

predicts that subordinates’ satisfaction and motivation are maximized when they perceive that their leader is helping them achieve desired goals

54
Q

House’s 4 leadership styles

A

Instrumental (directive) leaders: provide specific guidelines and establish clear rules and procedures.
Supportive leaders: focus on establishing supportive relationships with subordinates.
Participative leaders: include subordinates in decision-making.
Achievement-oriented leaders: set challenging goals and encourage higher levels of performance

55
Q

Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model

A

the optimal style depends on the job maturity of subordinates, which is determined by the subordinate’s ability and willingness to accept responsibility
telling, selling, participating, delegating

56
Q

transformational leadership

A

influence and motivate subordinates by activating subordinates’ higher-order needs, appealing to higher ideals and values (e.g., justice and equality), encouraging subordinates to sacrifice self-interest for the sake of the organization, and clarifying what is needed to accomplish the change

57
Q

transactional leaders

A

focus more on stability than change and leadership is by contingent reinforcement in which the subordinates are motivated by the leaders’ use of rewards, promises and/or threats of disciplinary actions or punishments

58
Q

Vroom and Yetton’s Normative (Decision-Making) Model

A

AI (autocratic) leaders do not consult subordinates and make decisions on their own

AII (autocratic) leaders obtain information from subordinates but make the final decision on their own

CI (consultative) leaders discuss problems with each subordinate individually but make the final decision on their own

CII (consultative) leaders discuss problems with subordinates as a group but make the final decision on their own

GII (group decision) leaders discuss problems with subordinates as a group and reach a group decision through discussion and consensus

59
Q

Leader Member Exchange (LMX) Theory

A

conceptualizes leadership as a process that is centered on the interactions between leaders and members, with the dyadic relationship between them being the focal point.
it emphasizes that not all members of an organization achieve the same quality of relationship with leaders and explains how relationships with various members can develop

60
Q

7 phases of organizational development (OD)

A

entry, contracting, diagnosis, feedback, planning, intervention, and evaluation (ECDFPIE)

61
Q

quality circles (QCs)

A

small groups of workers from the same department or division who meet regularly to discuss how their work can be improved

62
Q

process consultation

A

efforts to help team members understand and alter processes that are undermining their interactions

63
Q

empirical-rational strategies

A

based on the assumption that people are basically rational and, if they have all relevant information about a situation, will act in accord with their self-interest

64
Q

Normative-Reeducative strategies

A

based on the assumption that social norms underlie patterns of behavior in organizations

65
Q

power-coercive strategies

A

using rewards, punishment, or legitimate authority to coerce employees to comply with change

66
Q

goals-based program evaluation

A

measures how well a program is meeting objectives

67
Q

process-based program evaluation

A

analyzes the effectiveness of the systems and processes that are used to carry out the program’s objectives

68
Q

outcomes-based program evaluation

A

focuses on the results and benefits received by clients who participate in the program

69
Q

centralized communication network

A

all communication must pass through one person or one position

70
Q

decentralized communication network

A

information flows more freely between individuals

71
Q

rational-economic model

A

attempt to find the optimal solution by searching for all possible solutions and weighing alternatives until they make the decision that results in the greatest benefit for the organization. AKA “maximizing”

72
Q

administrative model

A

evaluating solutions as they become available and selecting the first solution that is minimally acceptable. AKA “satisficing”

73
Q

Driver’s Decision-Making Styles

A

2 key factors that determine an individual’s style of decision-making: the amount of information considered (analysis of the situation); and the focus or number of alternative decisions identified (formulation of a solution)

74
Q

Driver, Brousseau, & Hunsaker’s 5 basic decision-making styles

A
  1. decisive style: satisficing and uni-focus style
  2. flexible style: satisficing, multi-focus style
  3. hierarchic: maximizing and uni-focus style
  4. integrative style: maximizing and multi-focus style
  5. systemic: maximizing style, that can be uni-focused or multi-focused
75
Q

loss aversion

A

tendency to be influenced more by potential losses than potential gains when making decisions

76
Q

prospect theory

A

people are adverse to loss (Tversky and Kahneman);
people are more willing to take a risk to avoid suffering any loss

77
Q

organizational justice

A

the degree to which employees believe they are being treated fairly

78
Q

distributive justice

A

the perceived fairness of outcomes such as hiring, performance appraisals, raise requests, or layoff decisions

79
Q

procedural justice

A

the perceived fairness of the process or procedure by which outcomes are allocated

80
Q

interactional justice

A

the perceptions of the interpersonal exchange between an individual and supervisor or third party

81
Q

informational justice

A

the amount of information or the appropriateness of the explanations provided about why procedures were used or outcomes were distributed in a certain way

82
Q

interpersonal justice

A

how an individual is treated by a supervisor or third party involved in executing procedures or determining outcomes

83
Q

organizational culture

A

the shared assumptions, values, norms and tangible signs of organization members taught to new members through formal statements and informal behaviors

84
Q

performance =

A

ability + motivation

85
Q

need theories of motivation

A

people are willing to exert effort when that effort will lead to fulfillment of certain deficiencies or needs

86
Q

Maslow’s 5 basic needs

A

1) physiological needs (water, food, etc.)
2) safety needs (security)
3) social needs (company of and acceptance by others)
4) esteem needs (recognition from others)
5) self-actualization needs (self-fulfillment)

87
Q

Alderfer’s ERG Theory

A

1) existence - physiological, safety
2) relatedness - social, esteem
3) growth - self-actualization

88
Q

McClelland’s Need for Achievement

A

People with a high need for achievement desire autonomy and personal responsibility, prefer moderately difficult goals, and seek recognition for their efforts. They are highly motivated to put effort into their work and tend to stay on the job longer and perform better.

89
Q

The Job Characteristics Model

A

1) Skill variety: The more skills required by a job, the more meaningful it is
2) Task identity: Jobs that constitute a whole piece of work are more meaningful than those that consist of some portion of the whole job
3) Task significance: Jobs that have clear importance to others are more meaningful than those that don’t
4) Autonomy: Jobs are more meaningful to the degree that they allow for worker independence, freedom, and decision-making authority
5) Feedback: Jobs providing built-in feedback are more meaningful than those that do not

90
Q

Goal-Setting Theory

A

the most important contribution to a worker’s willingness to work to achieve goals is conscious acceptance of and commitment to the goals by making challenging but attainable goals and receiving feedback

91
Q

Locke’s 2 purposes of goals

A

basis for motivation and they direct behavior

92
Q

Management by Objective (MBO)

A

having an employee and their superior agree to specific, measurable goals that the employee will accomplish during a specific time period

93
Q

equity theory

A

people assess both their inputs (contributions to the work situation) and their outcomes (the rewards they receive for their work) compared to that of other workers to see if it is equal (AKA equity) or unequal (AKA inequity).
employees are motivated to create equity

94
Q

outcome justice

A

the fairness of outcomes such as raises and promotions

95
Q

expectancy theory

A

1) the belief that effort will lead to successful performance (expectancy beliefs);
2) the belief that successful performance will result in certain outcomes (instrumentality beliefs);
3) the desirability of those outcomes (valence)

96
Q

reinforcement theories of behavior

A
  1. People keep doing things that have rewarding outcomes
  2. People avoid doing things that have negative outcomes
  3. People eventually stop doing things that don’t have rewarding outcomes
97
Q

personal characteristics related to job satisfaction

A

older age, higher level in the organization hierarchy, white

98
Q

the strongest predictor of job success

A

skill utilization

99
Q

organizational commitment

A

the extent to which a person identifies with an organization and is willing to work to help the organization achieve its goals

100
Q

Baltes and colleagues (1999) research on compressed work week (CWW)

A

positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance, employee overall job satisfaction, and employee satisfaction with the work schedule;
however, it was not found to have a strong impact on job performance or absenteeism

101
Q

causes of work stress

A

quantitative overload (too much work to do in the time available), qualitative overload (work that is too difficult), work underload (too little work to do or work that is too easy), having no control over one’s work or the work environment, violence, downsizing

102
Q

factors that can reduce the effects of job-related stress

A

high job satisfaction; high autonomy and power; social support; good physical health; and sufficient ability to perform the job

103
Q

those at high risk for burnout

A

women, single and divorced employees, people who have little opportunity for promotion, and professionals who deal frequently with other people