Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

RESP > 15. Pulmonary Pharmacology > Flashcards

15. Pulmonary Pharmacology Flashcards

(61 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the inflammatory mediators involved in the initial phase of asthma?

A

Mast cell IgE
Histamine
Prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What effect do the mediators in the initial phase of asthma have?

A

Bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the inflammatory mediators involved in the intermediate phase of asthma?

A

IL-4,5,13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What effect do the mediators in the intermediate phase of asthma have?

A

Leukocyte release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the pathophysiology of the late phase of asthma?

A

Influx of Th2 cells> activate neutrophils and eosinophils> release proteins that damage the lung epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name a protein that damaged the lung epithelium in asthma

A

Eosinophil cationic protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the parasympathic control of asthma?

A

M3 receptors and ACh cause bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the sympathetic control of asthma?

A

B2 adrenoceptors and adrenaline inhibit bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name 3 types of bronchoconstrictors

A

B2 adrenoceptor agonists
Muscarinic antagonists
Xanthines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MOA of B2 adrenoceptor agonists?

A

Increase cAMP by GPCR-linked activation of adenylate cyclase, causing relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
Inhibit mediator release from mast cells
Increase mucociliary clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name a short acting and long acting B2 adrenoceptor agonist

A

Short: salbutamol and terbutaline
Long: Salmeterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the side effects of B2 agonists?

A

Tremor
Arrhythmias
Hypokalaemia
Muscle cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 2 muscarinic antagonists

A

Ipatropium

Titropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the MOA of ipatropium?

A

Inhibits action of ACh and M1,2,3

Causes bronchodilation and decreased mucous production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which acts quicker: B2 agonists or muscarinic antagonists?

A

B2 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MOA of titropium?

A

Selective inhibition of M1 and M3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the side effects of muscarinic antagonists?

A

Very well tolerated: dry mouth and urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the MOA of xanthines?

A

Inhibit phosphodiesterase> increases cAMP and cGMP, causing bronchodilation
Also anti-inflammatory so inhibits the late phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give 2 examples of xanthines

A

Theophylline (PO)

Aminophylline (IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the side effects of xanthines?

A

Have a narrow therapeutic range so side effects common
Nausea, anorexia
Arrhythmias, nervousness, tremors, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What isoenzyme of CYP450 breaks down theophylline?

A

CYP1A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What substances can affect the break down of theophylline?

A

Rifampicin increases CYP450 so increases clearance
Macrolides inhibit clearance, so increase toxicity
Smoking and caffeine can alter blood levels of theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name 3 classes of anti-inflammatories that are used in asthma

A

Glucocorticoids
Cromones
Leukotriene synthesis inhibitors and receptor antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the MOA of corticosteroids?

A

Bind to intracellular glucocorticoid receptor
Transactivate responsive genes via glucocorticoid response elements
Transrepress pro-inflammatory TFs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Name a glucocorticoid response element
Lipocortin 1: activation results in decreased prostaglandins
26
Name 2 pro-inflammatory transcription factors
AP-1 | NFkappaB
27
Name 3 inhaled corticosteroids
Beclomethasone Budesonide Fluticasone
28
Name a PO corticosteroid
Prednisolone
29
Name an IV corticosteroid
Hydrocortisone
30
Name 2 cromones
Sodium cromoglycate | Nedocromil
31
What route are cromones given?
Inhaled
32
What is the MOA of cromones?
Mast cell stabilisation (decrease degranulation and mediator release) Inhibit sensory neurons Inhibit eosinophil accumulation in lungs
33
What are the side effects associated with cromones?
Cough and wheeze transiently after administrating
34
Which are more effective: steroids or cromones?
Steroids
35
What side effects are associated with PO steroids?
``` Adrenal suppression Infection Effects of mineralocorticoids Structural effects Glucose intolerance ```
36
What structural effects can steroids have?
Osteoporosis Myopathy Growth retardation Obesity
37
What are the side effects associated with inhaled corticosteroids?
Oral candidiasis | Dysphonia (myopathy of laryngeal muscles)
38
What enzyme converts arachiodonic acid to leucotrienes?
LOX
39
What drug inhibits LOX?
Zileuton
40
What drugs inhibit the leucotriene receptor?
Zafirlukast | Montelukast
41
What are the effects of leucotriene receptor antagonists?
Reduce mucosal inflammation, oedema, mucous and bronchoconstriction
42
How are leucotriene receptor antagonists administered?
PO
43
When are leucotriene receptor antagonists useful?
Exercise, cold, aspirin and NSAID induced asthma | Not in acute attacks
44
What are the side effects of leucotriene receptor antagonists?
Headaches GI upset EGPA rarely
45
Where is the mutation for A1ATD found?
SERPINA-1 gene, chromosome 14
46
What other diseases does A1ATD increase the risk for?
Liver disorders Vasculitis Skin disease
47
What is the treatment for A1ATD?
Augmentation therapy: infused pooled A1AT
48
What is type 1 respiratory failure?
PO2 is low but PCO2 normal | Due to a V/Q mismatch
49
What conditions can cause type 1 respiratory failure?
PE | High altitude
50
What is type 2 respiratory failure?
Low PO2 and high PCO2 | Hypoventilation throughout lung
51
What conditions can cause type 2 respiratory failure?
COPD Asthma Sedation overdose
52
What is the treatment for type 2 respiratory failure?
Low dose O2 (24%) while monitoring ABG Through a NIPPV (pressurised face mask) Mechanical ventilation only for acute cases
53
Explain class 1-5 CF mutations
1. no functional CFTR 2. misfolded CFTR that doesn't reach surface 3. non-functional CFTR 4. Faulty opening of CFTR 5. Not enough
54
Name a class 2 mutation
delta F508
55
Name a class 3 mutation
G551D
56
Name a class 4 mutation
R117H
57
Name a CF potentiator
Ivacaftor
58
What is the function of potentiators?
Help the CFTR transport Cl- across the cell surface | Used in G551D
59
What is the function of correctors?
Bind to CFTR and help it fold into the right shape so more gets to membrane
60
Name a CF corrector
Lumacaftor
61
What name is given to the triple combo CF treatment?
TRIKAFTA

RESP (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions