15.1 Fundamentals (Level 1, 4 Questions) Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

What is energy?
A) The ability to create mass
B) The force applied over time
C) The capacity to perform work

A

C) The capacity to perform work

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2
Q

What unit is used to measure energy?
A) Newton
B) Joule
C) Watt

A

B) Joule

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3
Q

What type of energy is stored due to an object’s position, such as height?
A) Kinetic Energy
B) Thermal Energy
C) Potential Energy

A

C) Potential Energy

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4
Q

What type of energy is associated with motion, such as an aircraft moving down a runway?
A) Sound Energy
B) Kinetic Energy
C) Chemical Energy

A

B) Kinetic Energy

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5
Q

What does the First Law of Motion (Inertia) state?
A) Force equals mass times acceleration
B) Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
C) A body remains at rest or in motion unless acted on by a force

A

C) A body remains at rest or in motion unless acted on by a force

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6
Q

What is the formula stated in the Second Law of Motion?
A) Force = Velocity × Time
B) Force = Mass × Acceleration
C) Force = Mass ÷ Distance

A

B) Force = Mass × Acceleration

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7
Q

How is thrust in a gas turbine engine (GTE) calculated according to the Second Law?
A) Weight × Speed
B) Mass flow rate × acceleration of air
C) Distance ÷ Time

A

B) Mass flow rate × acceleration of air

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8
Q

What does the Third Law of Motion (Action–Reaction) describe?
A) The relationship between pressure and volume
B) The conservation of mass
C) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

A

C) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

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9
Q

What is an example of the Third Law of Motion?
A) A body falling due to gravity
B) Jet exhaust (action) producing thrust (reaction)
C) An object gaining speed over time

A

B) Jet exhaust (action) producing thrust (reaction)

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10
Q

What happens during the Intake (Suck) stage of the Brayton Cycle?
A) Fuel burns, heating the air
B) Air enters at constant volume, exits with higher pressure
C) Gases exit at high velocity

A

B) Air enters at constant volume, exits with higher pressure

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11
Q

What occurs during the Compression (Squeeze) stage of the Brayton Cycle?
A) Air is compressed mechanically, pressure increases
B) Air enters at low pressure
C) Gases are released to produce thrust

A

A) Air is compressed mechanically, pressure increases

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12
Q

What is the main event in the Expansion (Bang) stage of the Brayton Cycle?
A) Air exits the engine
B) Air is compressed
C) Fuel burns, heating air and increasing volume

A

C) Fuel burns, heating air and increasing volume

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13
Q

What happens during the Exhaust (Blow) stage of the Brayton Cycle?
A) Air enters the engine
B) Gases exit at high velocity, producing thrust
C) Air is cooled and recycled

A

B) Gases exit at high velocity, producing thrust

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14
Q

What is an isobaric process in a thermal engine?
A) A process with constant entropy
B) A process with increasing volume
C) A process with constant pressure

A

C) A process with constant pressure

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15
Q

What is an example of an isobaric process in a thermal engine?
A) Expansion in the turbine
B) Combustion chamber heating
C) Air intake into the engine

A

B) Combustion chamber heating

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16
Q

What is an isentropic process in a thermal engine?
A) A process with constant temperature
B) A process with constant pressure
C) A process with constant entropy

A

C) A process with constant entropy

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17
Q

What are examples of isentropic processes in a thermal engine?
A) Combustion and exhaust
B) Intake and combustion
C) Compression and expansion in compressor and turbine

A

C) Compression and expansion in compressor and turbine

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18
Q

What is force defined as?
A) The resistance to motion
B) The intensity of a thrust or input that causes an object to move
C) The speed of a moving object

A

B) The intensity of a thrust or input that causes an object to move

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19
Q

What is the unit of force in the English system?
A) Newtons (N)
B) Kilograms (kg)
C) Pounds (lbs)

A

C) Pounds (lbs)

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20
Q

What is the unit of force in the metric system (SI)?
A) Pounds (lbs)
B) Newtons (N)
C) Meters per second (m/s)

A

B) Newtons (N)

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21
Q

What is the conversion factor from pounds to newtons?
A) 1 lb = 2.2 N
B) 1 lb = 9.81 N
C) 1 lb = 4.448 N

A

C) 1 lb = 4.448 N

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22
Q

How is thrust in turbine engines typically calculated?
A) Using a pressure formula expressed in pascals
B) Using a force formula expressed in pounds
C) Using a velocity formula expressed in meters per second

A

B) Using a force formula expressed in pounds

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23
Q

When is work considered to be done?
A) When force is applied, regardless of movement
B) When an object moves in the direction of the applied force
C) When energy is stored in an object

A

B) When an object moves in the direction of the applied force

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24
Q

What are the requirements for work to be done?
A) Only force must be applied
B) The object must be heavy
C) Force must be applied and the object must move in the direction of the force

A

C) Force must be applied and the object must move in the direction of the force

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25
What is the formula for calculating work? A) Work = Mass × Velocity B) Work = Force × Distance C) Work = Pressure × Area
B) Work = Force × Distance
26
What is the unit of work? A) Newton B) Watt C) Joule (J)
C) Joule (J)
27
What does 1 joule equal? A) 1 N/m B) 1 Nm C) 1 N/s
B) 1 Nm
28
What happens if you push an aircraft and it doesn’t move? A) Work is still done because force was applied B) No work is done C) Work is negative
B) No work is done
29
What is the definition of power? A) The total amount of work done B) The force applied to an object C) The rate of doing work over time
C) The rate of doing work over time
30
What is the formula for calculating power? A) Power = Force × Distance B) Power = Work ÷ Time C) Power = Mass × Acceleration
B) Power = Work ÷ Time
31
What is the SI unit of power? A) Newton (N) B) Joule (J) C) Watt (W)
C) Watt (W)
32
What does 1 watt equal? A) 1 Nm/s B) 1 N/s² C) 1 J/s²
A) 1 Nm/s
33
What unit has largely replaced horsepower in the SI system? A) Newton B) Kilogram C) Watts/kilowatts
C) Watts/kilowatts
34
What is the definition of motion? A) A temporary shift in an object's weight B) A continuous change in position or displacement of an object C) A random change in an object's temperature
B) A continuous change in position or displacement of an object
35
What describes uniform motion? A) Changing speed and direction B) Constant speed in a straight line C) Movement in a circular path
B) Constant speed in a straight line
36
In uniform motion, how does the object move? A) The distance covered varies with time B) The object accelerates constantly C) The distance covered remains the same per unit of time
C) The distance covered remains the same per unit of time
37
What type of quantity is speed? A) Vector quantity B) Scalar quantity C) Directional quantity
B) Scalar quantity
38
What does speed indicate? A) Only the direction of motion B) How fast and in what direction an object moves C) How fast an object moves
C) How fast an object moves
39
What type of quantity is velocity? A) Scalar quantity B) Vector quantity C) Rotational quantity
B) Vector quantity
40
What does velocity indicate? A) Only the magnitude of motion B) The temperature change over time C) Both speed and direction of motion
C) Both speed and direction of motion
41
How is velocity often represented? A) A number without direction B) A diagram of energy flow C) A vector arrow showing magnitude and direction
C) A vector arrow showing magnitude and direction
42
What is the definition of acceleration? A) Rate of change of speed B) Rate of change of direction C) Rate of change of velocity
C) Rate of change of velocity
43
What is the formula for acceleration? A) Acceleration = Velocity × Time B) Acceleration = Force ÷ Mass C) Acceleration = Change in Velocity ÷ Time Taken
C) Acceleration = Change in Velocity ÷ Time Taken
44
What is a primary disadvantage of piston engines in aviation? A) High fuel consumption B) Poor performance at low speeds C) Poor performance at high altitudes
C) Poor performance at high altitudes
45
Which type of aircraft engine is known for performing well at high altitudes and high speeds? A) Piston engine B) Gas turbine engine C) Radial engine
B) Gas turbine engine
46
What percentage of thrust is produced by the fan in a turbofan engine? A) 50% B) 80% C) 100%
B) 80%
47
Which engine type is typically used in helicopters and as an auxiliary power unit (APU)? A) Turboprop B) Turbojet C) Turboshaft
C) Turboshaft
48
Which engine type drives a propeller via a gearbox and is fuel efficient at mid speeds and altitudes? A) Turbojet B) Turbofan C) Turboprop
C) Turboprop
49
What is a characteristic of a turbojet engine? A) Quiet and highly efficient B) High speed, small frontal area, but loud C) Produces shaft power
B) High speed, small frontal area, but loud
50
Why are piston engines used only in small aircraft? A) They are too powerful for large aircraft B) They have a poor weight-to-power ratio C) They require high altitudes to operate
B) They have a poor weight-to-power ratio
51
What is an advantage of a turbojet engine? A) Quiet operation B) Small frontal area C) Excellent fuel efficiency
B) Small frontal area
52
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a turbojet engine? A) Complex design B) Slow speed performance C) Large frontal area
B) Slow speed performance
53
Turbojet engines are known to be: A) Noisy with high fuel use B) Fuel efficient and quiet C) Best at slow speeds and short ranges
A) Noisy with high fuel use
54
What type of performance is poor in a turbojet engine? A) High-speed performance B) Slow-speed performance C) High-altitude performance
B) Slow-speed performance
55
How does a turboprop engine drive the propeller? A) Using a hydraulic system B) Using a gearbox C) Using an electric motor
B) Using a gearbox
56
At what speed range is the turboprop engine most efficient? A) 100–200 knots B) 250–400 knots C) 450–600 knots
B) 250–400 knots
57
What is the typical altitude range for optimal turboprop performance? A) 10,000–15,000 ft B) 18,000–30,000 ft C) 35,000–45,000 ft
B) 18,000–30,000 ft
58
What is one major advantage of a turboprop engine? A) High speed B) Very fuel efficient C) Lightweight design
B) Very fuel efficient
59
What is a disadvantage of a turboprop engine? A) Poor fuel economy B) Noisy operation C) Heavy gear system
C) Heavy gear system
60
What is the primary use of a turboshaft engine? A) Producing thrust B) Producing shaft power C) Driving a propeller directly
B) Producing shaft power
61
Where are turboshaft engines commonly used? A) Commercial jets B) Helicopters and APUs C) Propeller aircraft
B) Helicopters and APUs
62
What is an advantage of turboshaft engines? A) Simple design B) High power-to-weight ratio C) Quiet operation
B) High power-to-weight ratio
63
What is a disadvantage of turboshaft engines? A) Low power output B) Loud and complex gear systems C) Large frontal area
B) Loud and complex gear systems
64
Which section of a gas turbine engine is responsible for air intake? A) Compressor B) Air inlet C) Turbine
B) Air inlet
65
What are the two parts of the compressor in a gas turbine engine? A) LPC and HPC B) LPT and HPT C) TEC and gearbox
A) LPC and HPC
66
Which components make up the combustion section of a gas turbine engine? A) Diffuser and combustor B) LPC and HPC C) LPT and HPT
A) Diffuser and combustor
67
What are the two parts of the turbine in a gas turbine engine? A) LPC and HPC B) Diffuser and combustor C) LPT and HPT
C) LPT and HPT
68
What does the exhaust section of a gas turbine engine include? A) TEC B) Gearbox C) LPC and HPC
A) TEC
69
Where is the accessory section located in a gas turbine engine? A) Combustion section B) Gearbox C) Exhaust section
B) Gearbox
70
What does the cold section of a gas turbine engine include? A) Combustion to exhaust B) Inlet to compressors/diffuser C) Turbine to exhaust
B) Inlet to compressors/diffuser
71
What part of the engine does the hot section cover? A) Inlet to compressors B) Combustion to exhaust C) Accessory section to inlet
B) Combustion to exhaust
72
One benefit of modular construction for manufacturers is: A) More stock needed B) Pre-balanced modules C) Complex re-balancing
B) Pre-balanced modules
73
How does modular construction benefit operators? A) Easy to replace modules B) Increased re-balancing required C) More spares needed
A) Easy to replace modules
74
What is reduced for operators due to modular construction? A) Repair time B) Minor repair classification C) Number of spares needed
C) Number of spares needed
75
What does modular construction eliminate for operators during module replacement? A) Need for spare parts B) Re-balancing C) Repair classification
B) Re-balancing
76
Engine materials must be: A) Heavy, strong, and expensive B) Strong, lightweight, and economical C) Lightweight, weak, and costly
B) Strong, lightweight, and economical
77
Which of the following is a typical engine material? A) Plastic B) Aluminium C) Glass
B) Aluminium
78
Which alloys are commonly used in engine materials? A) Copper and zinc B) Cobalt, nickel, titanium C) Iron and lead
B) Cobalt, nickel, titanium
79
What type of steel is used in engine materials? A) Corrosion-resistant steel B) Carbon steel C) Stainless steel
A) Corrosion-resistant steel
80
What is Newton’s first law of motion called? A. Law of inertia B. Law of acceleration C. Law of gravity
A. Law of inertia
81
Which base alloys are used at the hot end of the engine? A. Nickel base alloy and Cobalt base alloy B. Aluminum base alloy and Titanium base alloy C. Steel and Copper base alloys
A. Nickel base alloy and Cobalt base alloy