15.14 Engine Indication Systems (Level 1, 3 Questions) Flashcards

(118 cards)

1
Q

Why is an exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indication required on all gas turbine engines?
A) To increase engine thrust
B) To monitor turbine speeds
C) To prevent thermal damage by monitoring high temperatures

A

C) To prevent thermal damage by monitoring high temperatures

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2
Q

What does the EGT indication help identify in a turbine engine?
A) Fuel consumption rate
B) When a temperature limit has been exceeded
C) The airspeed of the aircraft

A

B) When a temperature limit has been exceeded

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3
Q

What condition does the EGT indication help prevent?
A) Compressor stall
B) Electrical overload
C) Thermal damage to the engine

A

C) Thermal damage to the engine

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4
Q

Why is it difficult to measure the Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT) directly?
A) The temperature fluctuates too rapidly
B) The TIT is higher than 1400 °C, making it hard to measure accurately
C) Sensors cannot operate at low temperatures

A

B) The TIT is higher than 1400 °C, making it hard to measure accurately

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5
Q

Where is the highest temperature in a gas turbine engine typically found?
A) In the exhaust nozzle
B) At the fan inlet
C) Directly behind the combustion chamber, hitting the high-pressure turbine

A

C) Directly behind the combustion chamber, hitting the high-pressure turbine

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6
Q

What does TIT stand for in a turbine engine context?
A) Turbine Internal Thrust
B) Thrust Inlet Temperature
C) Turbine Inlet Temperature

A

C) Turbine Inlet Temperature

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7
Q

Why can exhaust gas temperature (EGT) be measured at a colder location in the engine?
A) EGT sensors are only designed for low-pressure areas
B) EGT has a direct relationship to the Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT)
C) TIT is not affected by exhaust gas flow

A

B) EGT has a direct relationship to the Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT)

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8
Q

Where is the EGT typically measured in a gas turbine engine?
A) In front of the combustion chamber
B) Between the high- and low-pressure turbine or behind the low-pressure turbine
C) At the engine intake

A

B) Between the high- and low-pressure turbine or behind the low-pressure turbine

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9
Q

Why do maximum EGT readings vary between 600 °C and 900 °C?
A) Because of varying fuel qualities
B) Due to differences in airflow rates
C) Because of different measuring points in the engine

A

C) Because of different measuring points in the engine

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10
Q

Which temperature is measured directly at the entry point of hot gases into the high-pressure turbine?
A) Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT)
B) Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT)
C) Turbine Outlet Temperature (TOT)

A

B) Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT)

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11
Q

What does Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) typically monitor?
A) The temperature of fuel entering the combustion chamber
B) The temperature of gases after passing through the turbine
C) The temperature of air entering the compressor

A

B) The temperature of gases after passing through the turbine

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12
Q

Which temperature is measured between stages of a multi-stage turbine?
A) Interstage Turbine Temperature (ITT)
B) Turbine Gas Temperature (TGT)
C) Turbine Outlet Temperature (TOT)

A

A) Interstage Turbine Temperature (ITT)

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13
Q

Which term refers to the temperature of gases as they leave the turbine section?
A) TIT
B) TGT
C) TOT

A

C) TOT

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14
Q

What does Turbine Gas Temperature (TGT) generally represent?
A) The lowest recorded engine temperature
B) A general term used for turbine section gas temperatures
C) The fuel temperature in the turbine

A

B) A general term used for turbine section gas temperatures

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15
Q

Where are thermocouples typically placed to provide a relative indication of turbine inlet temperature?
A) At the engine intake
B) At the turbine discharge
C) Inside the combustion chamber

A

B) At the turbine discharge

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16
Q

Why is the turbine discharge temperature used to estimate turbine inlet temperature?
A) Because it is the hottest point in the engine
B) Because it is easier to measure and still provides a reliable relative indication
C) Because thermocouples cannot withstand high inlet temperatures

A

B) Because it is easier to measure and still provides a reliable relative indication

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17
Q

Compared to the turbine inlet temperature, the turbine discharge temperature is:
A) Much higher
B) About the same
C) Much lower

A

C) Much lower

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18
Q

What does the EGT indicator in the flight deck display?
A) The temperature of the engine oil
B) The highest temperature measured by a single thermocouple
C) The average temperature measured by the individual thermocouples

A

C) The average temperature measured by the individual thermocouples

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19
Q

Why are multiple thermocouples used in turbine engines?
A) To detect vibration levels
B) To calculate average temperature more accurately
C) To control the speed of the turbine

A

B) To calculate average temperature more accurately

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20
Q

Why are several thermocouples used to measure EGT, TIT, or similar parameters in a gas turbine engine?
A) To reduce engine noise
B) To improve temperature accuracy through multiple data points
C) To increase fuel efficiency

A

B) To improve temperature accuracy through multiple data points

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21
Q

Which of the following parameters can be measured using thermocouples in a gas turbine engine?
A) Oil pressure
B) Turbine blade angle
C) Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT)

A

C) Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT)

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22
Q

What is the purpose of the power off warning flag on the EGT indicator?
A) To show when engine temperature exceeds limits
B) To indicate the unit is not receiving power
C) To display temperature in Fahrenheit

A

B) To indicate the unit is not receiving power

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23
Q

What is the temperature range displayed on the EGT indicator?
A) 0 °C to 900 °C
B) 0 °F to 1650 °F
C) 0 °C to 1200 °C

A

C) 0 °C to 1200 °C

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24
Q

What does a TIT indicating system display?
A) The temperature of gases leaving the turbine
B) The temperature of gases entering the turbine
C) The average engine exhaust temperature

A

B) The temperature of gases entering the turbine

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25
What is the purpose of using dual thermocouples in a TIT system? A) To measure oil temperature and pressure B) To provide redundancy and signal separation C) To cool the turbine blades
B) To provide redundancy and signal separation
26
How is the signal from one set of dual thermocouples used? A) To activate the ignition system B) To transmit signals to the fuel control unit C) To transmit signals to the flight deck indicator
C) To transmit signals to the flight deck indicator
27
What is the purpose of the feedback potentiometer in the motor system? A) To measure fuel flow to the engine B) To generate a humming signal that stops the drive motor at the correct pointer position C) To regulate the exhaust gas temperature automatically
B) To generate a humming signal that stops the drive motor at the correct pointer position
28
When does the over temperature warning light in the TIT indicator illuminate? A) When the turbine inlet temperature falls below a safe limit B) When the turbine inlet temperature reaches a predetermined high limit C) When the exhaust gas temperature drops suddenly
B) When the turbine inlet temperature reaches a predetermined high limit
29
Engine indications are generally divided into which three groups? A) Pressure readings, temperature readings, and vibration analysis B) Performance indications, system indications, and engine trend monitoring C) Fuel flow, oil pressure, and exhaust gas temperature
B) Performance indications, system indications, and engine trend monitoring
30
What types of displays are commonly used for engine indications on an Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) system? A) Only digital readouts B) Only gauge-type analogue displays C) A combination of gauge-type analogue displays and digital readouts
C) A combination of gauge-type analogue displays and digital readouts
31
Why can’t the thrust of a turbojet engine be measured directly? A) Because thrust is produced at the propelling nozzle, which is difficult to measure directly B) Because thrust is measured in horsepower instead of thrust units C) Because thrust is not related to engine power
A) Because thrust is produced at the propelling nozzle, which is difficult to measure directly
32
What are the two common indications used to give an equivalent value of turbojet engine thrust? A) The rotational speed of the fan (N1) and Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) B) Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) and Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT) C) Fuel flow rate and oil pressure
A) The rotational speed of the fan (N1) and Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR)
33
What is the primary purpose of secondary engine indications? A) To monitor engine thrust directly B) To monitor the correct operation of engine systems C) To measure fuel consumption
B) To monitor the correct operation of engine systems
34
Which of the following conditions will cause a warning or caution to be displayed on the ECAM/EICAS page? A) Normal engine temperature B) A clogged filter C) Engine running at idle speed
B) A clogged filter
35
What is the purpose of engine trend monitoring? A) To control the engine thrust during flight B) To alert the operator early about potential engine problems C) To display fuel consumption rates
B) To alert the operator early about potential engine problems
36
Which of the following is NOT one of the three usual analyses performed in engine trend monitoring? A) Thermodynamic analysis B) Hydraulic pressure analysis C) Oil consumption analysis
B) Hydraulic pressure analysis
37
What does the thermodynamic analysis in engine trend monitoring primarily check? A) Oil consumption levels B) Pressures and temperatures along the gas flow path C) Failures in the rotor system
B) Pressures and temperatures along the gas flow path
38
The mechanic-dynamic analysis in engine trend monitoring is mainly used to check for: A) Oil consumption levels B) Failures in the rotor system C) Temperatures in the combustion chamber
B) Failures in the rotor system
39
What does the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) indicator measure? A) The rotational speed of the turbine blades B) The ratio of turbine discharge pressure to ram air pressure at the engine inlet C) The temperature of gases entering the turbine
B) The ratio of turbine discharge pressure to ram air pressure at the engine inlet
40
The EPR gauge is primarily used to indicate: A) Engine oil pressure B) Engine thrust being developed C) Engine fuel flow rate
B) Engine thrust being developed
41
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) compares: A) Compressor inlet and outlet temperatures B) Turbine discharge pressure and ram air pressure at the inlet C) Exhaust gas temperature and turbine inlet temperature
B) Turbine discharge pressure and ram air pressure at the inlet
42
How is the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) determined? A) By measuring temperatures at the compressor and turbine exhaust B) By measuring pressures at the engine inlet and turbine exhaust using probes C) By measuring the rotational speed of the turbine blades
B) By measuring pressures at the engine inlet and turbine exhaust using probes
43
What is the alternate method to limit engine thrust besides using EPR? A) Monitoring exhaust gas temperature B) Measuring compressor/fan speed known as N1 C) Monitoring fuel flow rate
B) Measuring compressor/fan speed known as N1
44
Probes used to determine EPR are located at: A) The engine inlet and the turbine exhaust B) The combustion chamber and turbine inlet C) The fan blade tips and compressor outlet
A) The engine inlet and the turbine exhaust
45
On the EPR display, what does the AMBER or RED line indicate? A) The current engine temperature B) The EPR for the maximum available thrust C) The fuel flow rate
B) The EPR for the maximum available thrust
46
What does the BLUE circle on the EPR display represent? A) The EPR corresponding to the actual throttle position B) The engine oil pressure C) The average turbine temperature
A) The EPR corresponding to the actual throttle position
47
Which color on the EPR display shows the maximum available thrust limit? A) Blue B) Green C) Amber or Red
C) Amber or Red
48
What is the standard take-off thrust setting used on Airbus aircraft under normal conditions? A) TOGA (full thrust) B) FLEX (assumed temperature thrust reduction) C) Idle thrust
B) FLEX (assumed temperature thrust reduction)
49
When is TOGA (full thrust) used instead of FLEX on Airbus aircraft? A) During routine flights on dry runways B) When departing from contaminated runways or with performance constraints C) For taxiing on the ground
B) When departing from contaminated runways or with performance constraints
50
What term does Boeing use for the FLEX take-off thrust reduction? A) Thrust reserve B) Assumed temperature derate C) Power tapering
B) Assumed temperature derate
51
What does the oil pressure indicator in a turbine engine usually show? A) Oil temperature B) Engine oil pump discharge pressure C) Oil consumption rate
B) Engine oil pump discharge pressure
52
What happens if the oil temperature exceeds safe operating limits in a turbine engine? A) The engine automatically shuts down B) An over-temperature warning is triggered C) The oil pressure increases
B) An over-temperature warning is triggered
53
Which types of warnings can be triggered by an oil over-temperature condition? A) Visual only B) Audible only C) Both visual and audible
C) Both visual and audible
54
How does a strain gauge measure mechanical strain? A) By detecting changes in temperature B) By measuring proportional changes in electrical resistance C) By recording sound vibrations
B) By measuring proportional changes in electrical resistance
55
What does a strain gauge detect on an object? A) Electrical current B) Mechanical strain or deformation C) Pressure changes
B) Mechanical strain or deformation
56
What is the purpose of the additional pressure switch in the engine oil system? A) To increase oil flow B) To initiate a low oil pressure warning C) To regulate oil temperature
B) To initiate a low oil pressure warning
57
What happens when the oil pressure decreases below the limit? A) The low oil pressure switch opens B) The low oil pressure switch closes and sends a signal to the flight warning computer C) The engine shuts down automatically
B) The low oil pressure switch closes and sends a signal to the flight warning computer
58
Which system receives the signal from the low oil pressure switch when oil pressure is low? A) The fuel control system B) The flight warning computer C) The autopilot system
B) The flight warning computer
59
What does the engine oil's ability to lubricate and cool depend on? A) The color of the oil only B) The temperature of the oil and the amount supplied to main components C) The speed of the engine only
B) The temperature of the oil and the amount supplied to main components
60
Where is the oil inlet temperature measured? A) At the engine exhaust B) As the oil enters the oil pressure pump C) In the oil reservoir tank
B) As the oil enters the oil pressure pump
61
What does the oil inlet temperature indicator show? A) The pressure of the oil B) The temperature of the oil entering the oil pressure pump C) The amount of oil remaining in the system
B) The temperature of the oil entering the oil pressure pump
62
What is the most common type of oil temperature sensor used in aircraft engines? A) Pressure switch B) Resistance Temperature Detector (RTD) or Thermocouple C) Strain gauge
B) Resistance Temperature Detector (RTD) or Thermocouple
63
The Resistance Temperature Detector (RTD) is used to detect what parameter in aircraft engines? A) Oil flow rate B) Oil temperature C) Oil pressure
B) Oil temperature
64
Where is the low-pressure sensor usually positioned in most engines? A) Before the fuel pump B) After the outlet from the low-pressure filter C) Inside the fuel tank
B) After the outlet from the low-pressure filter
65
What can cause low fuel pressure in an engine fuel system? A) Excessive fuel flow B) Cavitation caused by high fuel pump demand C) Fuel filter clogging only
B) Cavitation caused by high fuel pump demand
66
What type of sensor is fitted across the fuel filter to monitor pressure differences? A) Temperature sensor B) Differential pressure sensor C) Flow sensor
B) Differential pressure sensor
67
What are the two indications provided by the fuel flow indicating system? A) Engine oil pressure and temperature B) Actual fuel flow to the engines and fuel used since engine start C) Fuel pressure and fuel temperature
B) Actual fuel flow to the engines and fuel used since engine start
68
What does the fuel flow indication allow the flight crew and maintenance to monitor? A) Engine oil consumption B) Performance and economic operation of the engines C) Exhaust gas temperature
B) Performance and economic operation of the engines
69
Who typically performs the fuel flow calculations in modern systems? A) The flight engineer B) The FADEC system computer C) The cockpit crew
B) The FADEC system computer
70
Where does the fuel flow transmitter measure the mass flow of fuel? A) Between the fuel pump and fuel tank B) Between the fuel control unit and the fuel nozzles C) After the fuel has exited the combustion chamber
B) Between the fuel control unit and the fuel nozzles
71
Which types of fuel flow meters are commonly used today? A) Hydraulic and pneumatic B) Digital and analog C) Synchronous mass flow and motorless mass flow
C) Synchronous mass flow and motorless mass flow
72
In a synchronous mass flow transmitter, what causes the turbine to turn? A) Electrical current B) Air pressure C) Fuel mass
C) Fuel mass
73
What opposes the movement of the turbine in a synchronous mass flow transmitter? A) Gravity B) A spring C) Magnetic resistance
B) A spring
74
What must happen to the fuel in order to measure force in a synchronous mass flow transmitter? A) It must be cooled B) It must be filtered C) It must be accelerated
C) It must be accelerated
75
What is a key characteristic of modern motorless mass flow fuel transmitters? A) They require an external motor B) They do not need an electric motor or power supply C) They are powered by the aircraft's battery system
B) They do not need an electric motor or power supply
76
Which component is not required in a motorless mass flow fuel transmitter? A) Fuel nozzle B) Electric motor C) Flow channel
B) Electric motor
77
How are engine rotor speed indications expressed? A) In revolutions per minute (RPM) B) As a percentage of a 100% design speed C) In pounds per square inch (PSI)
B) As a percentage of a 100% design speed
78
What are the three main parts of a rotor speed indication system? A) Sensor, filter, igniter B) Sensor, data transmission, indication C) Sensor, power supply, cooling fan
B) Sensor, data transmission, indication
79
What are the two types of sensors used to measure rotor speed on engines? A) Thermocouple and strain gauge B) Tachometer generator and variable reluctance sensor C) Pressure sensor and RTD
B) Tachometer generator and variable reluctance sensor
80
What principle does a variable reluctance sensor operate on? A) Electrical resistance B) Magnetic reluctance C) Thermal conductivity
B) Magnetic reluctance
81
What component in the tachometer generator produces a signal proportional to N2 rotor speed? A) Variable reluctance sensor B) Permanent magnet C) Strain gauge
B) Permanent magnet
82
What type of electrical signal does the tachometer generator produce? A) Direct current B) Single-phase AC voltage C) 3-phase AC voltage
C) 3-phase AC voltage
83
What is the frequency of the voltage generated by the tachometer generator proportional to? A) Oil pressure B) Input speed C) Exhaust gas temperature
B) Input speed
84
What type of voltage does the tachometer generator send to the FADEC computer? A) DC voltage B) Single-phase AC voltage C) 3-phase AC voltage
C) 3-phase AC voltage
85
What is another name for the tachometer generator due to its additional function? A) Signal amplifier B) Control alternator C) Voltage regulator
B) Control alternator
86
Which aircraft computer uses the speed signal from the tachometer generator? A) EICAS B) FADEC C) ECAM
B) FADEC
87
Which of the following is not one of the three types of rotor speed indication? A) Digital-only numeric display B) Clock-type scale display C) Moving vertical bar display
A) Digital-only numeric display
88
What type of rotor speed indication uses a traditional needle over a circular scale? A) Electromechanical indicator B) Clock-type scale display C) Moving vertical bar display
B) Clock-type scale display
89
Which rotor speed indicator combines mechanical components with electrical signals? A) Moving vertical bar B) Digital LED display C) Electromechanical indicator
C) Electromechanical indicator
90
What color is typically used to indicate the maximum permitted rotor speed on a speed indicator? A) Green B) Yellow C) Red
C) Red
91
What is the purpose of the speed limit indication on the rotor speed display? A) To show the average rotor speed B) To protect the engine from overspeed C) To indicate the minimum rotor speed
B) To protect the engine from overspeed
92
The red line on the rotor speed indicator represents: A) The idle speed B) The cruise speed C) The maximum permitted rotor speed
C) The maximum permitted rotor speed
93
What happens if the engine speed exceeds the N1 redline limit on modern engines? A) The engine shuts down immediately B) The N1 speed and duration of the overspeed are recorded and reported by engine trend monitoring C) The engine speed is automatically reduced to idle
B) The N1 speed and duration of the overspeed are recorded and reported by engine trend monitoring
94
What does the engine vibration indication help to identify? A) Fuel flow problems B) Rotor imbalance C) Oil temperature variations
B) Rotor imbalance
95
What do the vibration sensors in an engine vibration monitoring system do? A) Measure fuel flow rate B) Deliver electrical signals to a computer C) Control engine speed
B) Deliver electrical signals to a computer
96
What is the computer that collects and filters engine vibration data sometimes called? A) Electronic Control Unit (ECU) B) Engine Vibration Monitoring Unit (EVMU) C) Flight Control Computer (FCC)
B) Engine Vibration Monitoring Unit (EVMU)
97
What type of sensors are used to measure engine vibration? A) Gyroscopes B) Accelerometers C) Thermocouples
B) Accelerometers
98
How many vibration sensors are usually installed on each engine? A) One B) Two C) Three
B) Two
99
Where is one of the vibration sensors typically located on a turbine engine? A) Near the fuel pump B) Near the N1 rotor shaft in the compressor area C) Inside the cockpit
B) Near the N1 rotor shaft in the compressor area
100
What are the two common types of accelerometers used to measure engine vibration? A) Electromagnetic and piezoelectric-crystal types B) Magnetic and optical sensors C) Thermocouples and strain gauges
A) Electromagnetic and piezoelectric-crystal types
101
What component does the electromagnetic vibration sensor have held in the center by two springs? A) A permanent magnet B) A rotating shaft C) A piezoelectric crystal
A) A permanent magnet
102
What surrounds the permanent magnet in an electromagnetic vibration sensor? A) A fixed coil B) A spring mechanism C) A temperature sensor
A) A fixed coil
103
What does a piezoelectric crystal generate when a force is applied to it? A) Current B) Voltage C) Resistance
B) Voltage
104
What controls the vibration indication on modern aircraft? A) Pilot manual input B) Engine vibration monitoring unit C) Hydraulic system
B) Engine vibration monitoring unit
105
What system on most modern aircraft helps to reduce engine vibration? A) Engine Cooling System B) Engine Balancing System C) Fuel Control System
B) Engine Balancing System
106
What can the Engine Balancing System perform to correct high engine vibration? A) Fuel mixture adjustment B) Balance calculation C) Temperature regulation
B) Balance calculation
107
What are systems that measure engine torque called? A) Speed Sensors B) Torque Meters C) Pressure Gauges
B) Torque Meters
108
What components typically make up an electrical torque meter system? A) Torque meter assembly, phase detector, and indicator B) Speed sensor, pressure gauge, and display C) Thermocouple, amplifier, and warning light
A) Torque meter assembly, phase detector, and indicator
109
What does the torque meter assembly consist of? A) Two concentric shafts, with twist in the inner shaft proportional to torque B) A single shaft with variable diameter C) Multiple gears measuring speed only
A) Two concentric shafts, with twist in the inner shaft proportional to torque
110
What happens to the output shaft as torque is applied and increased? A) It shortens along its length B) It twists along its length C) It remains stationary
B) It twists along its length
111
How is the torque meter operated? A) By engine oil pressure metered through a valve controlled by a helical ring gear B) By electrical signals from the rotor speed sensor C) By fuel flow rate adjustments
A) By engine oil pressure metered through a valve controlled by a helical ring gear
112
What is the purpose of the power assurance test? A) To check that the engine can accelerate from idle to a given EPR value within a specific time and de-accelerate back to idle within a specific time period B) To measure the engine oil temperature during operation C) To verify the fuel flow rate at cruising altitude
A) To check that the engine can accelerate from idle to a given EPR value within a specific time and de-accelerate back to idle within a specific time period
113
Before carrying out the power assurance test, where must the aircraft be positioned? A) In an engine run-up enclosure or dedicated engine run-up area, pointing into the wind with wheel chocks in place B) Anywhere on the apron, with the aircraft facing away from the wind C) At the gate with engines running at full power
A) In an engine run-up enclosure or dedicated engine run-up area, pointing into the wind with wheel chocks in place
114
How long should the engine be operated at idle before starting the power assurance test? A) 2 minutes B) 5 minutes C) 10 minutes
B) 5 minutes
115
What should the engine anti-ice and engine-bleed air switches be set to during the power assurance test? A) On B) Off C) No setting needed
B) Off
116
How long should it take to increase engine speed from idle to maximum EPR during the test? A) 10 seconds B) 30 seconds C) 60 seconds
B) 30 seconds
117
What is the maximum time allowed for the engine to accelerate to the required speed during the power assurance test? A) 5 seconds B) 7 seconds C) 10 seconds
B) 7 seconds
118
After operating above 70% N1, how long should the engine be run at minimum idle before shutdown? A) 5 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes
B) 10 minutes