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OB 2 > Chapter 25: Fetal Echocardiography > Flashcards

Chapter 25: Fetal Echocardiography Flashcards

1
Q

without motion

A

akinetic

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2
Q

abnormal heart rate

A

arrythmia

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3
Q

abnormal opening between the right and left atrium

A

atrial septal defect (ASD)

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4
Q

aka endocardial cushion defect

A

atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)

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5
Q

primum-type ASD in the lower portion of the atrial septum without a ventricular defect component

A

partial atrioventricular septal defect

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6
Q

a heart with both primum type ASD and inlet-type VSD and a single common atrioventricular valve

A

complete atrioventricular septal defect

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7
Q

valves located between the atrium and the ventricles (tricuspid and mitral valves)

A

atrioventricular valves

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8
Q

slow heart rate

A

bradyarrhythmia

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9
Q

narrowing of the aorta, either discrete or long segment

A

coarctation of the aorta

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10
Q

apex of the heart points to the right chest

A

dextracardia

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11
Q

both great arteries arise from the morphologic right ventricle, with a VSD. There may be pulmonary stenosis and/or other lesions present

A

double-outlet right ventricle (DORV)

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12
Q

venous connection from the umbilical vein inserting into the inferior vena cava

A

ductus venosus

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13
Q

impaired of abnormal movement

A

dyskinetic

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14
Q

right heart abnormality with apical displacement of the tricuspid valve resulting in varying degrees of right atrial enlargement or diminished RV size and function, tricuspid regurgitation, and, possibly, pulmonary stenosis or atresia

A

ebstein anomaly

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15
Q

subset of cells found in the developing heart tube that will give rise to the heart’s atrioventricular valves and septae; critical to the proper formation of a four-chambered heart

A

endocardial cushion

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16
Q

normal opening in the atrial septum allowing for blood flow from the right to left atrium during fetal life

A

Foramen Ovale

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17
Q

accumulation of fluid in the chest and abdomen because of heart failure

A

hydrops, nonimmune

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18
Q

underdevelopment of the left heart, in particular, the mitral valve, the left ventricle, and aorta; stenosis or atresia of the aortic and/or mitral valves

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

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19
Q

muscular projections into the ventricles that anchor the chordae tendinae of the AV valves

A

papillary muscles

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20
Q

irregular extra contractions of the atria; may be conducted or blocked in relation to the ventricles

A

premature atrial contractions (PACs)

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21
Q

benign tumor of the heart. Most common fetal cardiac tumor. Associated with the genetic disorder tuberous sclerosis complex

A

Rhabdomyoma

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22
Q

underdevelopment of the right ventricle and the tricuspid valve

A

right ventricular hypoplasia

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23
Q

first section/side of the interatrial septum to form in the embryo

A

septum primum

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24
Q

fast sustained heart beat / arrythmia. Not ventricular in origin; may originate from the atria, AV node, sinoatrial node, or as a result of an additional electrical bypass tract

A

supraventricular tachycardia

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25
Q

cardiac malformation with a VSD anterior malaligned conal septum, varying degrees of pulmonary stenosis, and overriding aorta

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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26
Q

cardiac malformation where the aorta rises from the morphologic right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the morphologic left ventricle

A

transposition of the great arteries

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27
Q

congenital/absence/closure of the tricuspid valve

A

tricuspid atresia

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28
Q

single semilunar valve providing both pulmonary artery and aortic arch flow

A

truncus arteriosus

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29
Q

A deficiency in the ventricular septum creating a communication and blood flow between the ventricles

A

ventricular septal defect

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30
Q

The ____, _____, and _____ all make up the cardiocascular system.

A

heart
blood vessels
blood cells

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31
Q

The cardiovascular system originates from:

A

mesodermal germ layer

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32
Q

Blood starts to circulate in the fetus within ____ weeks gestational age

A

5

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33
Q

The heart begins as a set of paired tubular structures known as ____

A

cardiogenic cords

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34
Q

The cardiogenic cords begin to fuse on the ___ day of development to form single heart tube

A

22

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35
Q

The single heart tube is a slightly bent structure consisting of an ______ and _____.

A

endocardial tube
myoepicardial mantle

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36
Q

The ____ portion of the heart tube bends right and ventrally.

A

cephalic

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37
Q

The _____ portion of the heart tube bends leftward in dorsocranial manner

A

caudal

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38
Q

The cephalic and caudal portions of the heart tube result in the formation of:

A

arterioventricular loop (AV)

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39
Q

At ___ days the endocardial cushion begins to develop, separating atria and ventricles.

A

27

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40
Q

At ___ days the mitral and tricuspid valves are formed.

A

33

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41
Q

The _____ begins to form as primitive ventricles begin to dilate, causing fusion of the medial walls.

A

ventricular septum

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42
Q

The ______ forms between the 25th and 28th day and created an initial division between right and left portions of the atrium

A

septum primum

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43
Q

The great vessels

A

aorta
pulmonary arteries

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44
Q

The great vessels arise from the common vessel of ______

A

truncus arteriosus

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45
Q

Arise from a series of primitive aortic arches

A

aortic and pulmonary arches

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46
Q

The aortic and pulmonary arches occur between __ and __ days postconception

A

19
30

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47
Q

The third pair of arches become the ______

A

internal carotid arteries

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48
Q

The fourth pair of arches become the _____

A

definitive aorta
right subclavian artery

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49
Q

The sixth pair of arches become the ____

A

right and left pulmonary arteries

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50
Q

At the beginning of the ___ week, the heart is fully developed

A

8th

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51
Q

Oxygenated blood enters the fetus’s circulation from placenta through the _____ and travels to hepatic circulation and ____ portal vein.

A

umbilical vein
left

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52
Q

The majority of blood from the umbilical vein is shunted into ______, which bypasses hepatic circulation and enter IVC

A

ductus venosus

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53
Q

From the IVC, the blood enters the _____

A

right atrium

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54
Q

Oxygenated blood is preferentially streamed by the eustachian valve through the foramen ovale into the ____

A

left atrium

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55
Q

Blood in the LA flows through the _____ into the _____

A

mitral valve
left ventricle

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56
Q

The LV ejection propels the blood through the ____ and into the _____

A

aortic valve
aorta

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57
Q

_________ occurs, providing oxygen rich blood to the developing myocardium

A

coronary perfusion

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58
Q

The more highly oxygenated portion of the blood is shunted mainly to the _____ portion of the fetus via the ______ arteries arising from the aortic arch

A

cranial
brachiocephalic

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59
Q

Indications for fetal echocardiography are based on documented ____ and ____ conditions associated with an increased fisk of CHD.

A

fetal
parental

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60
Q

Fetal risk factors

A

presence of a major fetal extracardiac anomaly
abnormal fetal cardiac screening
increased nuchal translucency thickness
chromosomal abnormality
fetal arrhythmia

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61
Q

Parental risk factors

A

pregestation or gestational diabetes
first degree relative with CHD
maternal autoimmune disease
teratogen exposure
assisted reproductive techniques
single umbilical artery

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62
Q

The fetal cardiac examination should be done between ___-___ weeks

A

18
22

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63
Q

The heart should occupy the majority of the ____ side of the fetal chest

A

left

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64
Q

The apex in a normal heart should be pointing to the ____.

A

left

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65
Q

The normal angle of the heart should be ___ degrees to left of midline, plus or minus 20 degrees

A

45

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66
Q

LA located closest to the fetal spine, RV wall located closest to the anterior chest wall

A

levocardia

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67
Q

The normal heart position is called

A

levocardia

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68
Q

3 abnormal positions of fetal heart

A

dextrocardia
dextroposition
mesocardia

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69
Q

occurs when heart is located on the right side of the chest with apex pointing to the right

A

dextrocardia

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70
Q

heart being located on right side of chest, with apex pointing to the left

A

dextroposition

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71
Q

heart located in the middle portion of the chest, but with apex pointing along midline

A

mesocardia

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72
Q

apical four chamber view

A

transverse image of fetal chest

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73
Q

2 types of four chamber vie

A

apical
subcostal

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74
Q

The RV appears slightly ____ than the left.

A

larger

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75
Q

The ____ is located closest to the anterior chest wall and contains the thick muscular moderator band

A

RV

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76
Q

valves located between the atria and the ventricles

A

MV
TV

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77
Q

The IVS and interatrial septum are located:

A

between the atria and the ventricles

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78
Q

should contain normal opening for foramen ovale

A

atrial septum

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79
Q

obtained by angling the transducer slightly cephalad from apical view

A

subcostal four chamber view

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80
Q

Hockey stick appearance

A

ductal arch

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81
Q

The ductal arch consists of:

A

PA
ductus arteriosus
descending aorta

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82
Q

two transducer technologies to acquire data volume set

A

mechanical probe
electronic 4d probe

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83
Q

ultrasound beam directed through area of interest in which static or spatiotemporal image correlation

A

mechanical probe

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84
Q

obtains either a single 4D volume or STIC subvolumes that are “stitched” together to form a single volume

A

electronic 4D probe

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85
Q

fetal heart rates greater than 180 bpm

A

tachyarrthymias

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86
Q

fetal heart rates less than 100 bpm

A

bradyarrythmias

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87
Q

2 types of premature atrial contraction

A

conducted
nonconducted

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88
Q

ventricular contraction follows atrial contraction but with a subsequent pause in rhythm as sinus node resets

A

conducted premature atrial contraction

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89
Q

isolated deflection of atrial wall visualized without subsequent ventricular contraction as impulse was blocked by AV note

A

nonconducted premature atrial contraction

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90
Q

diagnosed when heart rate approximately between 180 and 300 bpm

A

supraventricular tachycardia

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91
Q

defined as an atrial rate between 300-400 beats; dropped ventricular beats at a set rate

A

atrial flutter

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92
Q

irregular atrial rate greater than 400 without a set conduction pattern to ventricles

A

atrial fibrillation

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93
Q

common drugs for SVT

A

digoxin
flecainide
sotalol

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94
Q

common drugs atrial flutter

A

digoxin
sotalol

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95
Q

Fetuses that do not respond to medication for SVT or atrial flutter are at risk for:

A

development of high-output heart failure
fetal nonimmune hydrops

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96
Q

heart rate below 100 bpms

A

bradyarrythmia

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97
Q

most severe form of bradyarrythmia

A

complete heart block (third-degree AV block)

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98
Q

complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular rates
atrial rate will be normal
complete lack of conduction
ventricles 70 bpm or less

A

complete heart block

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99
Q

normal atrial rate

A

120-180 bpm

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100
Q

most common cardiac malformations

A

isolated VSDs

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101
Q

Ventricular septal defects account for approximately ___% of cardiac abnormalities

A

30

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102
Q

separate RV and LV chambers

A

IVS

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103
Q

IVS consists of _____ and _____ portions

A

muscular
membranous

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104
Q

common in setting of malalignment disorders

A

perimembranous lesions

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105
Q

membranous defect allows both ventricles to eject into aorta

A

Tetraology of Fallot

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106
Q

Defects occurring in muscular portion of septum

A

inlet
outlet
trabecular
apical

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107
Q

affect portion of septum extending from TV leaflest

A

inlet

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108
Q

occur in most superior portion of septum, close to aortic and pulmonary valves

A

outlet, subarterial, or conal defects

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109
Q

found in midportion of septum; also referred to as midmuscular or central defects

A

trabecular defects

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110
Q

occur close to apex of the heart past insertion point of moderator band

A

apical defects

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111
Q

The ____ appears as a dark, hypolucent area in septum.

A

VSD

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112
Q

anechoic area bordered by a sharply defined hyperechoic portion of the septum

A

“T” sign

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113
Q

5th most common cardiac anomaly

A

atrial septal defect

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114
Q

musculomembranous structure that divides the RA and LA

A

atrial septum

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115
Q

most common type of ASD

A

ostium secundum defect

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116
Q

second most common type of ASD

A

ostium primum

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117
Q

defect adjacent to either SVC or IVC; allows blood from SVC or IVC to pass through defect, causing a right to left shunt; may be present at ostium of coronary sinus

A

sinus venous ASDs

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118
Q

unusually large anechoic area in septum secundum close to foramen ovale; may be noted that flap insufficiently covers foramen

A

sinus venous ASD

119
Q

lower portion of atrial septum immediately superior to AV valves is absent

A

ostium primum

120
Q

involve a combination of malformations of the IAS, IVS, and the AV valves

A

Atrioventricular septal defects

121
Q

also referred to as AV canal or endocardial cushion defects

A

atrioventricular septal defects

122
Q

occur when endocardial cushions of heart fail to fuse properly

A

atrioventricular septal defects

123
Q

consist of a large septal defect with both atrial and ventricular defects and a common AV valve that connects both atria to the ventricles

A

completes AVSDs

124
Q

In a complete AVSD, the common AV valve consists of five leaflets:

A

anteriosuperior and posteroinferior leaflets
bridge septal defects
three lateral defects

125
Q

mitral and tricuspid openings separate

A

partial AVSDs

126
Q

least common form of AVSDs

A

intermediate

127
Q

large, anechoic area encompassing the lower portion (primum) of atrial septum, upper portion of ventricular septum, normal location of MV and TV

A

complete AVSD

128
Q

The aortic root normally lies with ______

A

annulus of MV and TV

129
Q

most severe left-sided obstructive lesion

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

130
Q

Basic components of hypoplastic left heart syndrome

A

hypoplastic LV
aortic atresia
hypoplasia of ascending aorta
MV atresia and/or hypoplasia

131
Q

most common cause of death from CHD in neonatal period

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

132
Q

lesion arises from an intial mitral stenosis with subsequent decreased development of LVOT

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

133
Q

What forms the apex of the heart in hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

A

Right ventricle

134
Q

generally results from pulmonary atresia with an intact ventricular system

A

right ventricular hypoplasia/ pulmonary atresia

135
Q

Classification of right ventricular hypoplasia

A

inlet portion
apical trabecular portion
infundibulum/conus

136
Q

area of right ventricle that includes the tricuspid valve

A

inlet portion

137
Q

right ventricle area that includes the area past the insertion of the tricuspid papillary muscles

A

apical trabecular portion

138
Q

area of right ventricle that encompasses the area surrounding the pulmonary valve

A

infundibulum or conus

139
Q

Partite system characterizations

A

tripartite
bipartite
unipartite

140
Q

Tripartite

A

involving all regions (inlet, apical trabecular, infundibulum or conus)

141
Q

bipartite

A

with inlet and outlet componenets

142
Q

unipartite

A

inlet lesion only

143
Q

identification of an unusually small RV, regurgitation of TV, small, hyperechoic PA, no blood flow; results in ductal dependent lesion

A

RV hypoplasia with pulmonary atresia

144
Q

result in RV hypoplasia; lack of inflow from RA; progressive lesion that tends to worsen as pregnancy progresses; hyperechoic thickened valve; Doppler- no flow on either side of the valve

A

Tricuspid atresia

145
Q

narrowing of aorta along aortic arch resulting in outflow obstruction

A

coarctation of the aorta

146
Q

classifications of coarctation of aorta

A

preductal
ductal
postductal

147
Q

Majority of coarctations are classified as

A

ductal or postductal

148
Q

Complete interruption of aorta Type A lesions are located:

A

just distal to left subclavian

149
Q

Complete interruption of aorta Type B lesions are located:

A

between left carotid and left subclavian

150
Q

Complete interruption of aorta Type C lesions are located:

A

between innominate and left carotid

151
Q

Normal ratio RV to LV size

A

1.25

152
Q

Abnormal ratio RV to LV size affected wtih coarctation of the aorta

A

2.25

153
Q

Normal ratio of PA diameter

A

1.25

154
Q

Abnormal ratio of PA diameter size affected with coarctation of the aorta

A

approaching 2

155
Q

Diagnosis of interrupted aortic arch

A

hypoplastic ascending aorta
disproportionately small aortic root
VSD generally present

156
Q

most common form of cyanotic heart disease

A

Tetraology of Fallot

157
Q

Four classic features of Tetraology of Fallot

A

perimembranous (conal) VSD
overriding aorta
pulmonary stenosis or atresia
RV hypertrophy

158
Q

If more than 50% of aorta overrides the RV _____ is more likely.

A

DORV

159
Q

3 types of PA abnormalities

A

pulmonary stenosis
pulmonary atresia with a patent ductus
pulmonary atresia with major aortopulmonary collaterals

160
Q

retrograde flow, with a lack of flow seen across the valve itself, usually associated with increased turbulence, RV hypertrophy may or may not be apparent

A

pulmonary atresia

161
Q

Cardiac anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot

A

right-sided aortic arch
aberrant left subclavian artery
atrial septal or AVSD

162
Q

Extracardiac anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot

A

tracheoesophageal fistula
renal anomalies
clefts
single umbilical artery

163
Q

Most common chromosomal anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot

A

DiGeorge syndrome
trisomy 21

164
Q

posterior and septal TV leaflets are apically displaced from their normal location at the AV junction into the RV; results in abnormally large RA and pathologically small RV; aberrant leaflets of TV may be variable adherent to ventricular wall

A

Ebstein anomaly

165
Q

Ebstein anomaly frequently causes severe dysfunction in utero:

A

cardiomegaly
hydrops
arrythmias

166
Q

Maternal ingestion of _____ gives a 28 fold increase for developing the Ebstein anomaly.

A

lithium carbonate

167
Q

Ebstein anomaly is associated with trisomies:

A

13
18
21

168
Q

Prenatal diagnosis of Ebstein anomaly

A

RA enlargement with apical displacement of TV
unusal tethering of TV leaflets
severe levortation of heart
Measurement of offset between septal leaflets of MV and TV (greater than 8 mm)

169
Q

Two categories of Transposition of the Great Arteries

A

complete transposition or d-transposition
congenitally corrected transposition (CCTGA) or l-transposition

170
Q

In Transposition of the Great arteries the PA arises from the ____ and the aorta from the ____

A

LV
RV

171
Q

Connection between atria and ventricles is concordant; RA connects with RV; LA connects with LV; aorta comes off RV; PA comes off LV

A

complete transposition

172
Q

Normal relationship of PA encircling central aorta lost; two vessels appear as either side-by-side circular structures or parallel vessels; in the three vessel view, only two vessels are viewed (aorta and SVC)

A

complete transposition of the great arteries

173
Q

Both AV connections and ventriculoarterial connections discordant; RA connects to morphologic LV which connects to PA; LA connects to morphologic RV which connects to aorta

A

CCGTA

174
Q

one of a group of rare conotruncal defects that account for approx 1% fetal cardiac lesions; truncoconal ridges that normally divide truncus arteriosus into aorta and pulmonary trunks fail to fuse, resulting in a single great vessel arising just above IVS; VSD uniformly present within upper portion of septum just below location of truncus;

A

truncus arteriosus

175
Q

associated cardiac anomalies truncus arteriosus

A

valvular insufficiency or stenosis
absent ductus arteriosus
right-sided aortic arch

176
Q

encompasses a group of disorders in which more than 50% of both aortic root and PA arise from morphologic RV, usually directly above a perimembranous VSD; discontinuity of normal fibrous connection of MV and aortic valves

A

Double-Outlet Right ventricle

177
Q

Four main types of DORV

A

VSD
Fallot
TGA
Noncommittal VSD

178
Q

VSD type DORV

A

DORV with a subaortic VSD

179
Q

Fallot type DORV

A

subaortic or double committed VSD and pulmonary stenosis

180
Q

TGA type DORV

A

DORV with a subpulmonary VSD

181
Q

Noncommittal VSD DORV

A

VSD is remote from either great vessel

182
Q

DORV is strongly associated with _____

A

poorly controlled diabetes

183
Q

Chromosomal abnormalities associated with DORV

A

DiGeorge syndrome
trisomies 13 and 18

184
Q

most common prenatally diagnosed cardiac tumor

A

rhabdomyoma

185
Q

echogenic mass within RV or LV or within IVS; 60-80% of patients are diagnosed with tuberous sclerosis

A

rhabdomyoma

186
Q

Most common arrythmia associated with rhabdomyoma

A

supraventricular

187
Q

The heart begins beating a __ weeks postconception

A

3

188
Q

_______, tubular structures are the first sign of heart development.

A

cardiogenic cords

189
Q

The _____ forms as the tube bends.

A

AV loop

190
Q

Endocardial cushions develop separating the atria and ventricles at approx ___ days

A

27

191
Q

In the ___ week, the truncus arteriosus forms, twisting into their proper location

A

7

192
Q

Fetal circulation has three bypasses:

A

ductus arteriosus
foramen ovale
ductus venosus

193
Q

____ is the most common malformation

A

CHD

194
Q

The best time to examine the fetal heart with ultrasound is between __ and __ weeks

A

18
22

195
Q

The normal heart is at a ___ degree angle to the ____ of midline

A

45
left

196
Q

_____, ______, and _____ describe abnormal positions of the fetal heart.

A

dextrocardia
dextroposition
mesocardia

197
Q

You should obtain a minimum a ___ 2D views of the heart to determine normalcy./

A

5

198
Q

________ imaging allows evaluating an unlimited number of views of the cardiovascular system

A

3-/4D

199
Q

An ____ helps detect heart rhythm anomalies when the M-line is through the atria and the ventricle

A

M-mode

200
Q

Fetal arrythmias may lead to:

A

nonimmune fetal hydrops

201
Q

Septal defects occur in the ____, ____, or a combo of both (___)

A

IAS
IVS
AVSD

202
Q

Either the RV or the LV may fail to develop, resulting in _____

A

HLHS
RV hypoplasia

203
Q

There are several types of aortic coarctation

A

preductual, ductal, postductal

204
Q

_____ is the most common form of cyanotic heart disease

A

TOF

205
Q

TOF is the result of five defects:

A

perimembranous VSD
outlet of conal ventricular defect
pulmonic stenosis
PA hypoplasia
RV hypertrophy

206
Q

Main findings in Ebstein anomaly

A

apically placed TV
large atrialized RV

207
Q

There are two types of TGA:

A

complete
congenitally correted

208
Q

the failure of the embryonic truncus to separate into aorta and pa

A

truncus arteriousus

209
Q

has more than 50% of the aortic root and PA arising from the RV

A

DORV

210
Q

most common solid, benign, cardiac mass seen in the fetus and may be because of tuberous sclerosis and nonimmune fetal hydrops

A

rhabdomyoma

211
Q

The embryonic heart is completely formed at the:

A

beginning of the eighth week

212
Q

Fetal blood circulates within the embryo at:

A

3 weeks postconception

213
Q

Fetal oxygenated blood circulation from the placenta enters the fetus through the:

A

umbilical vein to the hepatic circulation and left portal vein

214
Q

Fetal blood from the IVC enters the heart:

A

right atrium

215
Q

In the fetus, left atrial blood passes through the ______ into the left ventricle

A

mitral valve

216
Q

The greatest concentration of oxygenated fetal blood travels to the:

A

cranium

217
Q

A normal heart orientation is:

A

levocardia

218
Q

In the normal fetal heart, which chamber is located closest to the fetal spine?

A

left atrium

219
Q

Fetal tachyarrythmias are heart rates:

A

more than 180 beats per minute

220
Q

Digoxin, solatol, and flecainide are most often selected for fetal treatment of:

A

SVT

221
Q

A defect of the inlet, outlet, trabecular, or apical portion of the fetal septum involves the:

A

muscular septum

222
Q

A syndrome that includes aortic atresia, a small left ventricle, and mitral valve atresia is:

A

HLHS

223
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot includes all except:
a. perimembranous VSD
b. right atrial hypertrophy
c. pulmonic stenosis
d. pulmonary artery hypoplasia

A

d

224
Q

An abnormally large right atrium and abnormally small right ventricle with tricuspid regurgitation is an indication of:

A

Ebstein anomaly

225
Q

What anomaly describes a single vessel overriding a VSD and regurgitant flow, and thickened stenotic valve indicate?

A

Truncus arteriosus

226
Q

The most common cardiac tumor is:

A

rhabdomyoma

227
Q

DORV involves:
a. severe ASD
b. a conotruncal defect with the aorta and pulmonary artery failing to divide
c. more than 50% of both the aortic root and PA arise from the morphologic RV
d. premature closure of the foramen ovale

A

c

228
Q

Ostium primum and ostium secundum defects involve the:

A

atrial septum

229
Q

The pulmonary valve receives blood from the:

A

right ventricle

230
Q

Current ultrasound resolution limits of ____ mm may prevent the identification of small VSDs

A

1 to 2

231
Q

Blood begins to circulate in the embryo at ___ weeks postconception, which is ___ weeks gestational age.

A

3
5

232
Q

The fetal heart should consume most of the ____ side of the chest and lays with a normal angle of ____ degrees to the ____ of midline, plus or minus 20 degrees. The normal position of the heart is termed _____.

A

left
45
left
levocardia

233
Q

A right-sided heart with the apex pointing left is ______.

A

dextroposition

234
Q

A heart positioned in the right chest with the apex pointing right is labeled _____.

A

dextrocardia

235
Q

A midline heart is labeled _____

A

mesocardia

236
Q

The standard first view in an echocardiogram is the ______ view.

A

apical four chamber

237
Q

The subcostal fetal heart view is used for the _______ view, ______ view of the ventricles, and Doppler interrogation of the ______.

A

TV and MV
M-mode
AV valves

238
Q

A long axis view of the ____ artery demonstrates the RVOT. A long axis view of the ____ demonstrates the LVOT.

A

PA
aorta

239
Q

The brachiocephalic, left common carotid, and left subclavian artery arise from the _____ arch, which has a ______ shape or appearance.

A

ductal
candy cane

240
Q

A fetal sustained heart rate of 100 bpm or less is called ______

A

bradyarrythmia

241
Q

The most frequent cardiac malformation is ________, occurring in about 30% of live births.

A

ventricular septal defect

242
Q

The three bypasses of the fetal heart that close at parturition are _______, _______, and _______.

A

ductus arteriosus
ductus venosus
foramen ovale

243
Q

The 3D imaging mode used specifically for fetal cardiac imaging is _____

A

STIC

244
Q

Tricuspid atresia results in ____ hypoplasia. It appears as a _______, ______ valve.

A

RV
hyperechoic
thickened

245
Q

Narrowing of the aorta along the arch is _______ and results in possible _______ descending aortic flow distal to ductus arteriosus entrance.

A

coarctation
high velocity

246
Q

Complete TGA is ____ and _____ concordant connection; aorta originating from the ____; pulmonary artery originating from the ____.

A

atria
ventricle
RV
LV

247
Q

Endocardial cushion defect is also known as _______

A

AV canal/ atrioventricular septal defects

248
Q

The ______ view of the fetal heart is often used for the diagnosis of VSD.

A

subcostal four chamber

249
Q

Tubular structures called _______ are the first development of the fetal heart.

A

cardiogenic cords

250
Q

Chamber dilation proximal to an atretic valve is known as ______

A

aortic root dilatation

251
Q

The ______ is the most common solid, benign cardiac mass seen in the fetus.

A

rhabdomyoma

252
Q

The correct flow direction through the foramen ovale is _____ to _____.

A

right atrium
left atrium

253
Q

A structure in the right ventricle, the ________, should differentiate the right ventricle from the left ventricle.

A

tricuspid valve

254
Q

The structure that separates the right and left ventricular chambers is the ______

A

muscular moderator band

255
Q

The foraminal flap should be seen opening into the _____ atrium.

A

left

256
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot is the result of five defects: a _______, _______, _______, _______, ________.

A

perimembranous VSD
outlet of conal ventricular defect
pulmonic stenosis
PA hypoplasia
RV hypertrophy

257
Q

______ is a condition in which the aortic root and pulmonary artery arise from the right ventricle.

A

Double outlet right ventricle

258
Q

Failure of the embryonic truncus to separate into the aorta and pulmonary artery is known as:

A

truncus arteriosus

259
Q

The fetal heart begins beating ___________________ weeks post conception

A

3

260
Q

A coexisting pericardial effusion and a pleural effusion is consistent with the diagnosis of:

A

nonimmune fetal hydrops

261
Q

What is transposition of the great arteries?

A

connection between the atria and ventricles is concordant, meaning that the RA connects to the RV, and the LA connects with the LV. The aorta, however, comes off the RV and the PA comes off the LV.

262
Q

When hypoplastic left heart syndrome is found in girls, what syndrome should be suspected?

A

Turner syndrome

263
Q

A heart rate using M-mode should be sonographically obtainable with EV when the CRL measures?

A

4-5 mm

264
Q

Blood returning from the IVC enters the:

A

right atrium

265
Q

What is the opening located right anteromedially within the diaphram?

A

foramen of Morgagni

266
Q

A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent left ventricle is:

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

267
Q

A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent right ventricle is:

A

right ventricular hypoplasia

268
Q

What is an opening within the septum that separates the right and left ventricles?

A

ventricular septal defect

269
Q

The narrowing of the aortic arch is indicative of:

A

coarctation of the aorta

270
Q

An EIF is most often seen within the:

A

left ventricle

271
Q

An EIF would most likely be associated with:

A

trisomy 13 and 21

272
Q

The most common fetal cardiac tumor is the :

A

rhabdomyoma

273
Q

sonographic features of pentology of cantrell

A

condition that involves five anomalies: anterior abdominal wall defect, anterior diaphragmatic hernia, sternal cleft, ectopia cordis and intracardiac abnormalities

274
Q

The normal heart will fill approximately _____________ of the fetal chest.

A

1/3

275
Q

The condition in which the heart is located outside the chest wall is termed:

A

ectopic cordis

276
Q

The moderator band is located within the:

A

right ventricle

277
Q

The most common cause of cardiac malposition is:

A

diaphragmatic hernia

278
Q

The tricuspid valve is located:

A

between the right atrium and right ventricle

279
Q

The embryonic heart begins as;

A

two tubes called the cordiogenic cords

280
Q

The mitral valve is located:

A

between the left atrium and left ventricle

281
Q

What is the most common cardiac defect?

A

VSD

282
Q

What is the normal opening in the lower middle third of the atriual septum?

A

Foramen Ovale

283
Q

What structure shunts blood into the IVC from the umbilical vein?

A

ductus venosus

284
Q

The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the:

A

left atrium

285
Q

The greatest concentration of fetal blood travels to the:

A

cranium

286
Q

An abnormally large right atrium and abnormally small right ventricle with tricuspid regurgitation is an indication of:

A

Ebstein Anomaly

287
Q

________________________ is a normal heart orientation

A

Levocardia

288
Q

Blood begins to circulate in the embryo at _____________________ post conception, which is ______________________ weeks gestational age.

A

3
5

289
Q

The fetal heart should consume most of the left side of the chest and lays with a normal angle of _________________ degrees to ________________ of midline.

A

45
left

290
Q

A right sided heart with the apex pointing left is called_________________________

A

dextroposition

291
Q

A heart positioned in the right chest with the apex pointing right is labeled __________________________

A

dextrocardia

292
Q

A midline heart is termed _______________________.

A

mesocardia

293
Q
A

OB 2 (17 decks)

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