Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OB 2 > Chapter 26: Sonographic Assessment of the Fetal Chest > Flashcards

Chapter 26: Sonographic Assessment of the Fetal Chest Flashcards

1
Q

From a volume dataset, static 3D images can display height, width, and depth of anatomy (three dimensions) from any orthogonal plane

A

3D imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Generalized edema in the subcuteaneous tissue

A

Anasarca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

complete absence of a body part

A

aplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

solitary cyst within the lung

A

bronchogenic cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

an enlarged heart

A

cardiomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

an inflammation of the fetal membranes (amnion/chorion) caused by infection

A

chorioamnionitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Birth defect of the diaphragm that allows the abdominal contents to enter the chest

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

replacement of normal lung by nonfunctioning cystic lung tissue

A

congenital multicystic adenomatoid malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Half-fourier acquisition single-shot turbo spine-echo; a fast spin method to obtain the MRI dataset.

A

HASTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

benign mass made up of blood vessels

A

hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

accumulation of fluid in the fetal tissues, peritoneum, and pleural cavities caused by either immune or nonimmune factors

A

hydrops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

areas of high intensity or increased brightness on the MRI image; equivalent to hyperechogenic

A

hyperintense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Areas of low intensity or increased brightness on the MRI image; equivalent to hypoechogenic

A

hypointense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

underdevelopment or incomplete development of a body part

A

hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

fetal weight below the 10th percentile for gestational age

A

IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

area lying between the lungs, which contains the heart, aorta, esophagus, trachea, and thymus

A

mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

genetic disorder causing extremely fragile bones

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This group of findings, also called Potter syndrome, or oligohydramnios sequence, includes renal agenesis, obstructive processes, and acquired or inherited cystic disease

A

Potter sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

incomplete development of the lung tissue

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

noncommunicating lung tissue that lacks pulmonary blood supply

A

pulmonary sequestration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

semiautomated process to calculate volume using a 3D dataset

A

VOCAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

single large cyst, usually 3-7 cm but at least 2 cm; trabeculated wall with smaller cystic outpouchings; usually unilateral; may involve a lung lobe or part of a lung lobe; single large cyst with smaller cystic outpouchings visualized superior to the diaphragm in the fetal lung; can have echogenic areas within the cyst

A

Type 1 Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

mass made up of multiple similar sized cysts, 1.5 cm in diameter; usually unilateral; may involve a lung lobe or part of a lung lobe; multiple similar sized cysts seen in the fetal lung replacing normal lung parenchyma

A

Type II Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Multiple small cysts (0.5-5mm); cysts too small to be resolved sonographically appear a single solid echogenic mass in the fetal lung

A

Type III Cystic Adenomatoid malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

sonographic appearance of pulmonary sequestration

A

spherical mass; homogenous; echogenic; midline shift; vascular supply from aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Intrathoracic masses that compress the developing lung that can cause pulmonary hypoplasia

A

pleural effusion
pulmonary cyst
teratoma
meningocele
hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Abdominal masses that prevents downward displacement of the diaphragm or compresses developing lung that can cause pulmonary hypoplasia

A

ascites
renal mass
diaphragmatic hernia and its contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Oligohydramnios with a lack of transmitted fluid pulsation on the chest wall that can cause pulmonary hypoplasia

A

bilateral renal agenesis or obstruction
bilateral ureteral obstruction
bladder outlet obstruction, usually urethral atresia
prolonged rupture of the membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

small thorax as part of a skeletal dysplasia that can cause pulmonary hypoplasia

A

thanatophoric dwarfism
jeune syndrome
ellis-van creveld syndrome
hypophosphatasia
celidocranial dysotosis
metatropic dwarfism
campomelic dwarfism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

causes of fetal immune hydrops

A

fetal anemia
Rh incompatability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Sonographic features of immune hydrops

A

hydrops fetalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

causes of nonimmune fetal hydrops

A

heart arrythmias/malformations
intrauterine infection
chromsomal abnormalities
masses causing venous obstruction
blood disorders
renal anomalies
maternal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

sonographic features of nonimmune fetal hydrops

A

anasarca
pleural effusion
ascites
splenomegaly
thick placenta
polycystic kidneys
hydraps fetalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

sonographic findings of congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

stomach, bowel, or other abdominal organs within the chest
peristalsis of structures within the chest
small abdominal biometry
descension and ascension of organs with fetal breathing
pleural effusion
polyhydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The thorax is surrounded by the ____ and ____

A

spine
ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The thorax is separated from the abdominal cavity by the _____

A

diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The bony thorax consists of:

A

clavicles
ribs
scapulae
vertebral bodies
sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The thorax surrounds:

A

lungs
heart
mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ossification of the clavicles occurs as early as:

A

8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ossification of the scapulae begins at:

A

10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ossificiation of the sternum occurs between:

A

21 and 27 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

bright echoes at junction of fetal neck and thorax

A

clavicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

echogenic bands projecting in a fanlike pattern from the spine

A

ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

echogenic, external to ribs, surrounded by hypoechoic musculature, sonographic appearance of Y or V shape

A

scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The muscles of the chest wall are:

A

hypoechoic and thin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

TC measurements should be measured from ____ edge to ____ edge

A

outer
outer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

TC measurements should be taken in a true transverse view:

A

just above the diaphragm at level of fetal heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Significant decrease in lung volume is indicative of:

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pulmonary hypoplasia should considered if the heart appears to occupy more than ___ of the thorax

A

1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

stages of development of the lungs

A

embryonic
pseudoglandular
canalicular
terminal saccular
alveolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

start development as diverticulum extending from tracheal bud; develop into two outpouchings, primary bronchial buds grow laterally into what will be the pleural cavity; buds join with primitive trachea to form the bronchi

A

embryonic phase of lung development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

bronchi divide into secondary bronchi forming the lobar, segmental and intersegmental branches

A

pseudoglandular phase of lung development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

All the segmental branches form between the ___ and ____ week

A

8
9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

16th to 28th week; vascularization and teminal bronchioles increase in size; respiration becomes possible during 24th week because of development of terminal saccules

A

canalicular period of lung development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Respiration becomes possible during the:

A

24th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

26 weeks to birth; continued development of saccules; increase in ability of lung to perform gas exchange

A

terminal saccular period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

overlaps terminal saccular period; 32 weeks to birth; surfactant production increases; branching of airways continues; blood-gas barrier thins

A

alveolar period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The lungs are separated by abdominal organs by the _____

A

diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Lung normal sonographic appearance

A

symmetrically, homogenous echotexture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Early in gestation, lung echogenicity is equal to or slightly less than the _____, as gestation progresses, echogenicity increases.

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

gold standard to assess lung maturity

A

amniocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

use of a 3D dataset to obtain lung volumes

A

VOCAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Low lung volume increases fetal risk of:

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The diaphragm completes at end of week 8 with fusion of:

A

septum transversum
pleuroperitoneal membranes
dorsal mesentary of esophagus
muscular ingrowth from lateral body walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

At ___ days, the septum transversum close to caudal end of the embryo

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

At ___ days, the diaphragm is located mid embryo

A

52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

thin, hypoechoic, dome shaped muscular band separating abdominal from thoracic cavity

A

diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The ________ contributes to formation of the thymus.

A

third pharyngeal pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The ____ descends from the superior mediastinum to its final located posterior to sternum.

A

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The thymus is located posterior to _____ at the level of the great vessels of heart, and anterior to _____ and _____

A

sternum
aorta
pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

located in the fetal neck anterior to trachea at level of third to sixth cervical vertebrae

A

the larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The larynx is best appreciated in the _______ view.

A

longitudinal coronal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

accumulation of pleural fluid in the fetal lungs

A

pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Pleural effusion may be associted with:

A

hydrops
congenital cardiac anomalies
chromsomal anomalies
polydactyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Pleural effusion comprises ___% of all intrathoracic abnormalities

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Intrathoracic masses

A

predominant cystic masses
multicystic adenomatoid malformation
aortic aneurysm
pulmonary sequestration
congenital lobar emphysema
neurenteric cyst
bronchial atresia
teratoma

77
Q

Bronchogenic cysts may be ______ or _____

A

unilocular
multilocular

78
Q

Result from abnormal budding of the ventral diverticulum of the primitive foregut

A

bronchogenic cyst

79
Q

Lined by epithelium, and may contain cartilage, muscle, or mucus glands

A

bronchogenic cysts

80
Q

Bronchogenic cysts may be found within ______ or ______

A

lung parenchyma
mediastinum

81
Q

Bronchogenic cysts often communicate directly with the ______ or _____

A

trachea
main stem bronchi

82
Q

excluding diaphragmatic hernias, most frequently identified mass in fetal chest

A

congenital cystic adenomatoid malformations

83
Q

CCAM accounts for __% of lung malformations

A

25

84
Q

CCAM is usually found in the _____ lobe of the lung

A

upper

85
Q

adenomatoid increase in terminal respiratory elements leading to development of a pathologic mass consisting of multiple cysts of different sizes

A

CCAM

86
Q

There are __ forms of CCAM

A

3

87
Q

CCAM type ___ consists of a single cyst or multiple large cysts measuring 2-10 cm in diameter; trabeculated wall and smaller cystic outpouchings; broad, fibrous septa and mucin-producing cells may be responsible for areas of echogenicity

A

I

88
Q

CCAM type ___ consists of a mass effect, made up of multiple, uniform-sized cysts 0.5 to 2 cm in diameter; cysts resemble bronchioles

A

II

89
Q

CCAM type ___ consists of multiple microscopic cysts measuring between 0.5 and 5mm; present numerous reflecting surfaces; cannot be resolved individually, appear as a single, solid homogenously echogenic mass

A

III

90
Q

CCAM is associated with _____ and _____ anomalies.

A

cardiac
gastrointestinal

91
Q

Anomalies occur more often with type __ CCAM

A

II

92
Q

Because of compression on lungs, fetuses with CCAM may also present witH:

A

fetal hydrops
ascites
polyhydramnios

93
Q

Fetuses with greater than normal thoracic diameter and an inversion of the diaphragm have indications of ____

A

CCAM

94
Q

Type ____ CCAM has a poor prognosis

A

III

95
Q

____% of fetuses with CCAM will be born with respiratory distress

A

80

96
Q

unilateral pulmonary mass with one or more large cysts

A

Type I CCAM

97
Q

an echogenic mass containing small cysts

A

Type II CCAM

98
Q

homogenous echogenic mass

A

Type III CCAM

99
Q

Color Doppler arterial supply is via the _______ vessels for CCAM

A

pulmonary

100
Q

____ has a higher accuracy for classification of CCAM

A

MRI

101
Q

Differential diagnosis for type I and II CCAM

A

cystic lung and mediastinal masses
pleural and pericardial effusions

102
Q

Differential diagnosis for type III CCAM

A

pulmonary sequestration
rhabdomyoma
mediastinal teratoma
herniated abdominal contents

103
Q

also known as bronchopulmonary sequestration

A

pulmonary sequestration

104
Q

solid, nonfunctioning mass of lung tisse contained within the pleural sac that lacks communication with the tracheobronchial tree and has a systemic arterial blood supply

A

pulmonary sequestration

105
Q

Pulmonary sequestration accounts for ___% of lung lesions

A

pulmonary sequestration

106
Q

The ______ type pulmonary sequestration can be above or below the diaphragm and has its own pleural sac and systemic venous drainage

A

extralobar

107
Q

spherical, homogenous, highly echogenic, often found at lung base or just inferior to diaphragm, abnormal vascular supplies arising from thoracic or abdominal aorta

A

intralobar pulmonary sequestration

108
Q

herniation of meninges and brain through a defect in the calvarium

A

cephalocele

109
Q

predominantly cystic masses; may or may not contain echogenic brain or spinal cord

A

myelomeningoceles

110
Q

often associated with fetal hydrops; increased soft tissue thickness; forms halo pattern around neck, thorax, abdomen

A

fetal edema

111
Q

presence of excessive abnormal skin or soft tissue in nuchal area is associated with:

A

trisomy 21

112
Q

If the nuchal area thickness is __ mm or greater between 14 and 18 weeks it can be associated with trisomy 21

A

5

113
Q

If the nuchal area thickness is __ mm or greater between 19 and 24 weeks it can be associated with trisomy 21

A

6

114
Q

benign abnormalities of lymphatic organ; result of failure of development of normal lymphatic venous communication; most common abnormality seen in the first trimester

A

cystic hygromas

115
Q

___% of cystic hygromas develop in the posterolateral neck

A

80

116
Q

may be associated with cardiac dilatation because of presence of arteriovenous shunting and increased blood return to the heart

A

Large hemangiomas

117
Q

webbed neck; most common abnormal fetal karyotype with cystic hygroma

A

Turner syndrome

118
Q

mixed with cystic and solid components; may increase in size during pregnancy and become more echogenic or solid in appearance

A

teratoma

119
Q

benign neoplastic overgrowth of normal cellular elements of an affected area; usually arise within a rib; may have disproportionately large intrathoracic component capable of displacing the fetal heart and causing respiratory insufficiency

A

hamartomas

120
Q

abnormal or lack of development of lung; associated with oligohydramnios

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

121
Q

______ syndrome includes renal conditions: agenesis, obstructive processes, acquired or inherited cystic disease

A

Potter

122
Q

small chest cavity in relation to larger abdominal cavity; heart that occupies more than 1/3 of the fetal chest; TC/AC ratio below 0.77

A

lung hypoplasia

123
Q

Normal TC/AC ratio

A

0.89

124
Q

extrapericardial and intrapericardial teratoma; lymphangioma; thymic cyst; mediastinal meningocele

A

mediastinal masses

125
Q

can be caused by compression on esophagus by a mass

A

polyhydramnios

126
Q

also known as hydrothorax

A

pleural effusion

127
Q

milky fluid consisting of lymph and fat; anechoic, seroous

A

chylous

128
Q

accumulation of lymph within chest

A

chylothorax

129
Q

Chylothorax is more common in _____ and most often located on the ____ side

A

male
right

130
Q

known as eryhtroblastosis

A

immune fetal hydrops

131
Q

occurs in a fetus whose mother has been sensitized

A

immune fetal hydrops

132
Q

Immune fetal hydrops is usually determined through ______ or _______

A

amniocentesis
cordocentesis

133
Q

condition resulting from a variety of severe fetal diseases; not associated with incompatability of fetal maternal blood; usually fatal; occurs in over half of fetuses with chromosomal abnormalities

A

nonimmune fetal hydrops

134
Q

polyhydramnios is a warning sign of:

A

fetal distress

135
Q

defect of the diaphragm that allows contents of abdomen to migrate into the thorax

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

136
Q

The origin of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is:

A

flawed formation or fusion of diaphragm

137
Q

posterolateral herniation through foramen of Bockdalek; accounts for over 90% of herniations; usually on the left side

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

138
Q

restrosternal, anteromedial herniation through foramen of Morgagni

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

139
Q

Protrusion of bowel through diaphragm

A

eventration

140
Q

smaller than normal AC measurement; breathing-abdominal organs may descend on normal side and paradoxically ascend on affected side; polyhydramnios, pleural effusions

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

141
Q

different diagnoses congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

CCAM
pulmonary sequestration
bronchogenic cyst
teratomas
neurenteric cysts
bronchial atresia

142
Q

Overall mortality of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is __-__%

A

50
80

143
Q

Surgical intervention of congenital diaphragmatic hernia by ___ weeks improves prognosis

A

24

144
Q

Obtain thoracic measurements from a true transverse view just above the diaphragm at the level of the:

A

fetal heart

145
Q

Sonography is not reliable to indicate fetal lung maturity; _____ remains the gold standard for this assessment

A

amniocentesis

146
Q

The _____ is located at the level of the great vessel of the heart, anterior to the aorta and pulmonary artery

A

thymus

147
Q

_____ is the most frequently found mass within the fetal chest

A

CCAM

148
Q

To differentiate pulmonary sequestration from CCAM, use:

A

color Doppler to trace the origin of the feeder vessel

149
Q

______ is usually a secondary condition related to oligohydramnios found within renal anomalies

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

150
Q

_______ has the same sonographic appearance regardless of whether it is caused by an immune or nonimmune condition

A

fetal hydrops

151
Q

The ____ enlarges with immune fetal hydrops and infections

A

spleen

152
Q

The fetal chest should be evaluated for all except:
a. L 1-5
b. heart
c. diaphragm
d. bony symmetry

A

a

153
Q

Routine observation of fetal breathing movements in the ____ trimester(s) should be included in the fetal examination.

A

second and third

154
Q

The thoracic inlet is at the:

A

base of the neck, level of the clavicles

155
Q

The fetal heart lies with the apex oriented toward the:

A

spleen

156
Q

A break in the skin surface directly over the spine is associated with:

A

myelomeningocele

157
Q

Thoracic chest measurements (outer edge to outer edge) are obtained from a true transverse view at the level of the:

A

fetal heart

158
Q

If the fetal heart (in transverse view) occupies more than 1/3 of the thorax, ______ should be considered:

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

159
Q

Fetal lung development begins in what week?

A

fourth

160
Q

Respiration becomes possible during the _____ week because of the development of terminal saccules.

A

24th

161
Q

Fetal lung volume can be estimated by all except:
a. MRI
b. VOCAL
c. 3D data set
d. 2D coronal

A

d

162
Q

Successfully locating the oropharnyx and laryngeal pharynx is accomplished with a:

A

longitudinal view through the upper neck and fluid-filled pharynx

163
Q

Lung masses include all except:
a. CCAM
b. aortic aneurysm
c. teratoma
d. pulmonary atresia

A

d

164
Q

CCAM typically appears as all except:
a. a bilateral large predominantly cystic mass of the lower lobes
b. a unilateral pulmonary mass with one or more large cysts
c. an echogenic mass containing small cysts
d. a homogeneous echogenic mass

A

a

165
Q

The presence of abnormal and excessive skin or soft tissue in the nuchal area is well known and common clinical finding in many newborns with Trisomy 21 and is suspect if the nuchal fold measures:

A

6 mm or greater 19-24 weeks

166
Q

Fetal posterolateral neck thickening may be caused by all except:
a. absent clavicles
b. failure of the lymphatic channels to communicate
c. nuchal skin thickening
d. Turner syndrome

A

a

167
Q

The most accurate term for a collection of lymph within the chest is termed:

A

chylothorax

168
Q

Nonimmune fetal hydrops is related to:

A

severe anemia

169
Q

The AC measurement in a fetus with CDH is _____ than normal.

A

smaller

170
Q

The correct area to obtain a thoracic measurement is from a true transverse view just above the ______ at the level of the _____

A

diaphragm
fetal heart

171
Q

_______ is the gold standard for indication of fetal lung maturity

A

amniocentesis

172
Q

The ______ is located at the level of the great vessel of the heart, anterior to the aorta and pulmonary artery.

A

thymus

173
Q

The typical scapula has a sonographic appearance of a ____ or _____ shape, depending on the angle of insonation.

A

Y
V

174
Q

The muscles of the chest wall are ______ and thin

A

hypoechoic

175
Q

The lungs are separated from these abdominal organs by the ______

A

diaphragm

176
Q

______ remains the gold standard in assessing lung maturity.

A

Amniocentesis

177
Q

The fetal diaphragm is seen as a thin, hypoechoic, dome-shaped muscular band separating the _____ cavities from echogenic _____ tissue.

A

abdominal
lung

178
Q

Pleural effusions are an accumulation of ______ fluid in the fetal lungs.

A

pleural

179
Q

To differentiate pulmonary sequestration from CCAM, use color Doppler to trace the origin of the _______

A

pulmonary artery

180
Q

Both fetal edema and cystic hygroma have an increased connection with ______ abnormalities

A

karyotype

181
Q

Cystic hygromas are thought to be a result of a failure in the development of normal ______ venous communication.

A

lymphatic

182
Q

Compression on the esophagus by a mass could lead to ________ because of GI tract obstruction.

A

polyhydramnios

183
Q

Mass compression on the vena cava may compromise blood return to the fetal heart and lead to the development of _____

A

fetal hydrops

184
Q

The thymus is located at the level of the great vessel of the heart, ______ to the aorta and pulmonary artery.

A

anterior

185
Q

The ______ enlarges with immune fetal hydrops and infections.

A

abdomen

186
Q

______ is the most frequently found mass within the fetal chest.

A

CCAM

187
Q

Imaging the diaphragm can help differentiate cystic intrathoracic masses of pulmonary origin from those that are of ______ origin.

A

extrathoracic

188
Q
A

OB 2 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions