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2. EMI > structure and function > Flashcards

structure and function Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of healing occurs when a clean laceration or surgical incision is closed primarily with sutures, steri-strips or skin adhesive?

A

Primary Intention Healing

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2
Q

Which type of healing closely resembles endochondral ossification?

A

Secondary Intention Bone Healing

read the q - ossification is bone

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3
Q

Which type of healing refers to the healing of an open wound from the base upwards by laying down new tissue?

A

Secondary Intention Healing

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4
Q

Which type of healing is the reestablishment of the cortex without the formation of a callus?

Occurs when reduction, immobilisation and rehabilitation are appropriate.

A

Primary Intention Bone Healing

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5
Q

Which type of healing involves the classical stages of injury -
1. haemorrhage inflammation
2. primary soft callus formation
3. callus mineralisation
4. callus remodelling

A

Secondary Intention Bone Healing

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6
Q

Which type of blood cell is a granulocyte with tiny light staining and difficult to see granules?

The nucleus is frequently multi-lobed with lobes connected by thin strands of nuclear material. Capable of phagocytosis foreign cells, toxins and viruses. Can account for 50-70% of leukocytes or more in the face of an acute infection.

A

Neutrophils

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7
Q

Which type of blood cell is a granulocyte with large acidophilic granules that stain pink or red?

The nucleus usually has 2 lobes connected by a band of nuclear material, capable of phagocytosing antigen-antibody complexes and are particularly effective against the larval form of parasitic worms. Usually < 5% of the WBC count but may increase if infected with parasitic worms.

A

Eosinophils

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8
Q

Which blood cell is a granulocyte packed with large granules that stain deep blue to purple which may be so dense as to obscure the nucleus?

Granules constrain histamine and heparin. Key player in inflammatory reactions and allergies and generally <1% of the WBC but likely to increase if infected with chicken pox.

A

Mast Cell

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9
Q

Which blood cell is a relatively small agranular cell with very little cytoplasm and a big nucleus?

Key player in the adaptive immune response and will increase in response to chronic infection and decrease if HIV progresses to stage 3.

A

T lymphocyte

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10
Q

Which type of blood cell is a large agranular leukocyte with a kidney bean shaped nucleus?

Differentiates when they leave the circulation, capable of phagocytosis.

A

Monocyte

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11
Q

A frequently encountered patient complaint that can present with a number of associated factors including erosion and abrasion.

A

Dentine Hypersensitivity

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12
Q

Most likely carried by the lateral spinothalmic pathway:

  1. allodynia
  2. dentine sensitivity
  3. trigeminal neuralgia
  4. nociception
  5. lancinating pain
A

Lancinating Pain

(sharp pain)

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13
Q

Neuropathic pain involving non-nociceptive neurones:

  1. allodynia
  2. dentine sensitivity
  3. trigeminal neuralgia
  4. nociception
  5. lancinating pain
A

Allodynia

(non-nociceptive = non-painful)

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14
Q

Most commonly caused by nerve compression by, for example, a blood vessel:

  1. allodynia
  2. dentine sensitivity
  3. trigeminal neuralgia
  4. nociception
  5. lancinating pain
A

Trigeminal Neuralgia

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15
Q

The neural process of encoding and processing noxious stimuli:

  1. allodynia
  2. dentine sensitivity
  3. trigeminal neuralgia
  4. nociception
  5. lancinating pain
A

Nociception

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16
Q

The Pancreas

The control of secretion in these cells is multifactorial and involves direct effects of nutrients as well as paracrine regulation by insulin.

a. acinar cells
b. alpha cells
c. beta cells
d. duct cells

A

b. Alpha Cells

(secrete glucagon as a response to low blood glucose).

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17
Q

The Pancreas

The primary function of these cells is regulated by the ratio of ATP to ADP via changes in membrane potential mediated by the KATP potassium channel.

a. acinar cells
b. alpha cells
c. beta cells
d. duct cells

A

c. Beta Cells

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18
Q

The Pancreas

Premature activation of proteins exocytosed by these cells is the proximate cause of pancreatitis.

a. acinar cells
b. alpha cells
c. beta cells
d. duct cells

A

a. Acinar Cells

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19
Q

The Pancreas

Individuals with selected HLA class II haplotypes are at increased risk of a life altering chronic condition mediated by interaction between these cells and activated auto reactive T cells.

a. acinar cells
b. alpha cells
c. beta cells
d. duct cells

A

c. Beta Cells

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20
Q

The Pancreas

Aberrant epithelial bicarbonate secretion caused by mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene in these cells is associated with several disease including cystic fibrosis and pancreatitis.

a. acinar cells
b. alpha cells
c. beta cells
d. duct cells

A

d. Duct Cells

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21
Q

Diabetes Medication

Acts to lower the circulating glucose activity by reducing the Transfer Maximum for glucose via reversible inhibition of SGLT2.

a. acarbose
b. dapaglifozin
c. glibenclamide
d. metformin

A

b. dapaglifozin

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22
Q

Diabetes Medication

A first-line glucose lowering medication that has been available in the BNF since 1958 whose mechanism of action remains unclear. May be used prophylactically in those at high risk of type II diabetes.

a. acarbose
b. dapaglifozin
c. glibenclamide
d. metformin

A

d. metformin

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23
Q

Diabetes Medication

A second-line glucose lowering medication that acts by blocking starch metabolism and which is commonly used in China when lifestyle interventions can no longer achieve HbA1c targets.

a. acarbose
b. dapaglifozin
c. glibenclamide
d. metformin

A

a. acarbose

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24
Q

Diabetes Medication

A sulfonylurea first developed in the 60s that acts to increase insulin release by inhibiting ATP-sensitive potassium channels in beta cells of the endocrine pancreas.

a. acarbose
b. dapaglifozin
c. glibenclamide
d. metformin

A

c. glibenclamide

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25
Q

Diabetes Medication

An oral medication that may be used in conjunction with sulfonylureas that acts on nuclear (steroid) receptors in muscle adipose tissue to reduce insulin resistance.

a. acarbose
b. dapaglifozin
c. glibenclamide
d. metformin
e. pioglitazone

A

e. pioglitazone

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26
Q

Metabolism

The reduced form of a coenzyme that acts as a redox agent. An excess is associated with alcohol metabolism and fatty liver disease.

a. acetyl coA
b. citrate
c. fatty acid
d. NADH
e. pyruvate

A

d. NADH

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27
Q

Metabolism

A product of both glycolysis and Beta oxidation that carries C3CO into the Citric Acid Cycle where it is oxided to carbon dioxide and water.

a. acetyl coA
b. citrate
c. fatty acid
d. NADH
e. pyruvate

A

a. Acetyl CoA

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28
Q

Metabolism

At the branch point of the catabolic sequence of oxidative metabolism in the TCA cycle and the gluconeogenic pathway from C3 precursors.

a. acetyl coA
b. citrate
c. fatty acid
d. NADH
e. pyruvate

A

e. Pyruvate

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29
Q

Metabolism

Present in the blood as an ester in association with glycerol and a major component of adipose tissue.

a. acetyl coA
b. citrate
c. fatty acid
d. NADH
e. pyruvate

A

c. Fatty Acid

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30
Q

Metabolism

An inhibitor and activator of enzymes located at the entrance and/or exit of glycolysis, TCA cycle, gluconeogenesis and fatty acid synthesis.

a. acetyl coA
b. citrate
c. fatty acid
d. NADH
e. pyruvate

A

b. Citrate

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31
Q

Neurotransmitters in the Brain

Associated with a syndrome that may be triggered by methamphetamine, particularly in combination with other drugs such as SSRI and antidepressants. When severe, symptoms include high fever, seizures and irregular heart beats.

a. acetylcholine
b. enkaphalin
c. dopamine
d. serotonin

A

d. Serotonin

(think what SSRI stands for)

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32
Q

Neurotransmitters in the Brain

Active at a different subtype of the same family of receptors that mediate the response to morphine.

a. acetylcholine
b. enkaphalin
c. dopamine
d. serotonin

A

b. Enkephalin

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33
Q

Neurotransmitters in the Brain

Binds preferentially to delta rather than mu receptors and may have a role in resilience to chronic stress.

a. acetylcholine
b. enkaphalin
c. dopamine
d. serotonin

A

b. Enkephalin

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34
Q

Neurotransmitters in the Brain

Deficiency leads to a chronic neurological condition that may be treated using a blood-brain permeable precursor.

a. acetylcholine
b. enkaphalin
c. dopamine
d. serotonin

A

c. Dopamine

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35
Q

Neurotransmitters in the Brain

One of two neurotransmitters that play a central role in development and maintenance of addiction, particularly in substances that induce weak or no somatic dependence.

a. acetylcholine
b. enkaphalin
c. dopamine
d. serotonin

A

c. Dopamine

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36
Q

Substances of Abuse

Induces tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypertension, increased body temp, increased attention span, increased libido. Users experience nausea, dry mouth and bad breath, dilated pupils, tremors and muscle twitching.

a. alcohol
b. cocaine
c. marijuana
d. LSD
e. methamphetamine

A

e. methamphetamine

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37
Q

Substances of Abuse

Users experience dry mouth and nose, bad breath, frequent lip licking.
Excessive activity, difficulty staying still, lack of interest in food or sleep.
Personality-wise, they may be irritable, argumentative, nervous and talkative but conversation lacks continuity.

a. alcohol
b. cocaine
c. marijuana
d. LSD
e. methamphetamine

A

b. cocaine

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38
Q

Substances of Abuse

Odour on the breath and intoxication, difficulty focussing and a glazed appearance of the eyes. Users may have uncharacteristically passive behaviour or argumentative, flushed skin.

a. alcohol
b. cocaine
c. marijuana
d. LSD
e. methamphetamine

A

a. alcohol

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39
Q

Substances of Abuse

Users may experience rapid, loud talking and bursts of laughter in the early stages before feeling sleepy later on. Inflammation in white of eyes and pupils unlikely to be dilated.

a. alcohol
b. cocaine
c. marijuana
d. LSD
e. methamphetamine

A

c. marijuana

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40
Q

Substances of Abuse

Users have extremely dilated pupils, warm skin, excessive perspiration and distortion of senses.

a. alcohol
b. cocaine
c. marijuana
d. LSD
e. methamphetamine

A

d. LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide)

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41
Q

TNM Tumour Classification

The cancer is 2cm or smaller. It is not growing into nearby tissues and has not spread to nearby lymph nodes or to distant sites.

A

T1, N0, M0

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42
Q

TNM Tumour Classification

The cancer is any size and is growing into nearby structures such as the base of the skull, it has not spread to nearby lymph nodes or to distant sites.

A

T4b, N0, M0

(4b is growing into structures such as the skull)

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43
Q

TNM Tumour Classification

The cancer is larger than 4cm and has spread to 1 lymph node on the same side as the primary tumour. It has not grown outside of the lymph node which is no larger than 3cm and has not spread to distant structures.

A

T3, N1, M0

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44
Q

TNM Tumour Classification

The cancer is larger than 4cm and is growing into the jaw. Has spread to 1 or more lymph nodes on the opposite side of the primary cancer and none are larger than 6cm. No spread to distant structures.

A

T4, N2, M0

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45
Q

TNM Tumour Classification

The cancer is no larger than 4cm and has spread to 1 or more lymph nodes on the opposite side of the primary cancer or both sides of the neck, none larger than 6cm. No spread to distant structures.

A

T0-T2, N2, M0

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46
Q

Types of Cancer

A type of cancer with 2 main categories, one of which present with Reed Sternberg cells.

A

Lymphoma

(RS cells are abnormal lymphocytes = LYMPHoma)

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47
Q

Types of Cancer

The most prevalent type of cancer worldwide. Originates in secretory cells.

A

Adenocarcinoma

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48
Q

Types of Cancer

Accounts for around 85% of all malignancy and can be of organ, gland and epithelial origin.

A

Carcinoma

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49
Q

Types of Cancer

A type of cancer that is found in connective and supportive tissue such as bones, cartilage and muscle.

A

Sarcoma

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50
Q

Types of Cancer

A type of cancer responsible for most cancers of the breast, pancreas, lung and colon.

A

Adenocarcinoma

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51
Q

Medications for CVD

An antidiabetic, sodium glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor that improves the outcome of patients with CVD and heart failure irrespectively of diabetes status.

  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Empaglifozin
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate
  • Nifedipine
A

Empaglifozin

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52
Q

Medications for CVD

A member of the dihydropyridine family of L type voltage-gated calcium channel blockers which, by preventing calcium influx, lead to smooth muscle relaxation.

  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Empaglifozin
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate
  • Nifedipine
A

Nifedipine

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53
Q

Medications for CVD

Acts through Nitric Oxide to activate guanylyl cyclase and increase intracellular cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) activity, which in turn causes relaxation of smooth muscle.

  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Empaglifozin
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate
  • Nifedipine
A

Glyceryl Trinitrate

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54
Q

Medications for CVD

Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme of the cholesterol biosynthetic pathway.

  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Empaglifozin
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate
  • Nifedipine
A

Atorvastatin

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55
Q

Medications for CVD

Prevents the synthesis of the eicosanoid thromboxane and thus reduces platelet activation.

  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Empaglifozin
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate
  • Nifedipine
A

Aspirin

56
Q

Medications for CVD

A calcium channel blocker with little direct effect on the myocardium in therapeutic dosing, that instead is effective as a peripheral vasodilator.

  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Empaglifozin
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate
  • Nifedipine
A

Nifedipine

57
Q

Medications for CVD

An antithrombotic with additional analgesic and anti-inflammatory properties.

  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Empaglifozin
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate
  • Nifedipine
A

Aspirin

58
Q

Medications for CVD

An antidiabetic drug that improves the outcome of patients with CVD and heart failure irrespectively of diabetes status.

  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Empaglifozin
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate
  • Nifedipine
A

Empagliflozin

59
Q

Medications for CVD

Recommended as a possible population-wide primary and secondary preventative measure.

  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Empaglifozin
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate
  • Nifedipine
A

Atorvastatin

60
Q

Medications for CVD

Used in the manufacture of dynamite, which underpinned the fortune of Alfred Nobel and the prizes awarded in his name as well as in the treatment of heart failure, hypertension, painful periods and anal fissures.

  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Empaglifozin
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate
  • Nifedipine
A

Glyceryl Trinitrate

61
Q

Diagnosis

Weight gain of 11kg in 6 months, plethoric face, blood pressure 180/120, serum potassium of 2.9 mmol/l and fasting glucose of 11 in a 59 year old woman.

  • addison’s disease
  • cushing’s syndrome
  • postural hypotension
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • tuberculosis
A

Cushing’s Syndrome

62
Q

Diagnosis

A 46 year old woman with weight loss, fast atrial fibrillation and agitation.

  • addison’s disease
  • cushing’s syndrome
  • postural hypotension
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • tuberculosis
A

thyrotoxicosis

63
Q

Diagnosis

Loss of consciousness and falling in a 59 year old hypertensive man receiving nifedipine and frusemide, who has recently been started on an ACE inhibitor.

  • addison’s disease
  • cushing’s syndrome
  • postural hypotension
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • tuberculosis
A

postural hypotension

64
Q

Diagnosis

A 42 year old woman with fatigue, malaise, weight loss and a serum sodium of 124, potassium of 5.9 and pigmentation of her palmer skin creases.

  • addison’s disease
  • cushing’s syndrome
  • postural hypotension
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • tuberculosis
A

Addison’s Disease

65
Q

Diagnosis

An 80 year old woman has been getting progressively more short of breath for 6 months. Recently she has been coughing up blood and her Mantoux test is strongly positive.

  • addison’s disease
  • cushing’s syndrome
  • postural hypotension
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • tuberculosis
A

Tuberculosis

66
Q

Failure of Renal Functions

Identify the consequence of nephrotic syndrome:

  • anaemia
  • metabolic acidosis
  • oedema
  • postural hypotension
  • secondary hypertension
  • secondary hyperparathyroidism
A

Oedema

  • nephrotic syndrome - damage to the glomerulus (the filter) so proteins spill into the urine.
  • loss of proteins from the blood allows fluid to leak out of the vessels into the tissues causing swelling.
67
Q

Failure of Renal Functions

Identify the consequence of reduced erythropoietin synthesis.

  • anaemia
  • metabolic acidosis
  • oedema
  • postural hypotension
  • secondary hypertension
  • secondary hyperparathyroidism
A

Anaemia

think erythrocytes = RBC = anaemia

68
Q

Failure of Renal Functions

Identify the consequence of renal bicarbonate reabsorption failure:

  • anaemia
  • metabolic acidosis
  • oedema
  • postural hypotension
  • secondary hypertension
  • secondary hyperparathyroidism
A

Metabolic Acidosis

69
Q

Failure of Renal Functions

Identify the consequence of loss of volume regulation:

  • anaemia
  • metabolic acidosis
  • oedema
  • postural hypotension
  • secondary hypertension
  • secondary hyperparathyroidism
A

Secondary Hypertension

(greater volume leads to increased blood pressure)

70
Q

Failure of Renal Functions

Identify the consequence hypocalcaemia and phosphate retention:

  • anaemia
  • metabolic acidosis
  • oedema
  • postural hypotension
  • secondary hypertension
  • secondary hyperparathyroidism
A

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

71
Q

Which of the following drugs can interact with Omeprazole?

a. amoxicillin
b. clopidogrel
c. ibuprofen
d. metronidazole
e. paracetamol

A

B - clopidogrel

(both drugs metabolised by CYP2C19 - omeprazole inhibits which prevents clopidogrel from being activated to act as an antiplatelet)

72
Q

A CaCO3 based palliative treatment for acid reflux:

a. aspirin
b. natrum carbonicum 100C
c. prussic acid
d. rennie
e. zantac

A

D - rennie

73
Q

A histamine H2-receptor antagonist based treatment for acid reflux:

a. aspirin
b. natrum carbonicum 100C
c. prussic acid
d. rennie
e. zantac

A

E - zantac

74
Q

A histamine H2-receptor antagonist based treatment for peptic ulcer disease:

a. aspirin
b. natrum carbonicum 100C
c. prussic acid
d. rennie
e. zantac

A

E - zantac

75
Q

A homeopathic treatment for acid reflux:

a. aspirin
b. natrum carbonicum 100C
c. prussic acid
d. rennie
e. zantac

A

B - natrum carbonicum 100C

76
Q

Medication for relief of pain associated with indigestion:

a. aspirin
b. natrum carbonicum 100C
c. prussic acid
d. rennie
e. zantac

A

D - rennie

77
Q

The Nephron

The hydraulic conductivity of this structure varies depending on the need of the body to conserve or excrete.

a. bowman’s capsule
b. collecting duct
c. efferent arterioles
d. macula densa
e. proximal tubule
f. distal tubule

A

B - collecting duct

78
Q

The Nephron

A vessel which receives blood from the glomerular capillaries and helps maintain pressure in the glomerular capillaries.

a. bowman’s capsule
b. collecting duct
c. efferent arterioles
d. macula densa
e. proximal tubule
f. distal tubule

A

C - efferent arterioles

79
Q

The Nephron

The longest and widest part of the nephron, found only in the cortex, where 80% of filtrate is reabsorbed.

a. bowman’s capsule
b. collecting duct
c. efferent arterioles
d. macula densa
e. proximal tubule
f. distal tubule

A

E - proximal tubule

80
Q

The Nephron

Responsible for water reabsorption regulated by ADH.

a. bowman’s capsule
b. collecting duct
c. efferent arterioles
d. macula densa
e. proximal tubule
f. distal tubule

A

B - collecting duct

81
Q

The Nephron

A group of densely packed epithelial cells at the junction of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the distal tubule which sense changes in the tubular fluid composition.

a. bowman’s capsule
b. collecting duct
c. efferent arterioles
d. macula densa
e. proximal tubule
f. distal tubule

A

D - macula densa

(help control renal blood flow, glomerular filtration and renin release)

82
Q

Diabetic Diseases

A metabolic disorder characterised by the inability to produce a concentrated urine.

a. diabetic ketoacidosis
b. diabetes insipidus
c. type 1 diabetes
d. type 2 diabetes
e. gestational diabetes

A

D - diabetes insipidus

(not related to type 1 or 2)

83
Q

Diseases Associated with Obesity

Differential diagnosis may include a positive cyclic citrullinated peptide pro-inflammatory antibody test.

a. atherosclerosis
b. type 1 diabetes
c. type 2 diabetes
d. osteoarthritis
e. secondary hypertension
f. rheumatoid arthritis

A

F - rheumatoid arthritis

84
Q

Diseases Associated with Obesity

African-Caribbean or South Asian heritage may be a risk factor for this condition.

a. atherosclerosis
b. type 1 diabetes
c. type 2 diabetes
d. osteoarthritis
e. secondary hypertension
f. rheumatoid arthritis

A

C - type 2 diabetes

85
Q

Diseases Associated with Obesity

Differential diagnosis of this degenerative disorder may include aspiration of synovial fluid.

a. atherosclerosis
b. type 1 diabetes
c. type 2 diabetes
d. osteoarthritis
e. secondary hypertension
f. rheumatoid arthritis

A

D - osteoarthritis

OA - mechanical wear and tear.
RA - autoimmune

(degenerative means worse with age)

86
Q

Diseases Associated with Obesity

This condition may arise as a complication of diabetic nephropathy.

a. atherosclerosis
b. type 1 diabetes
c. type 2 diabetes
d. osteoarthritis
e. secondary hypertension
f. rheumatoid arthritis

A

E - secondary hypertension

87
Q

Diseases Associated with Obesity

An autoimmune disease that is commonly treated with methotrexate.

a. atherosclerosis
b. type 1 diabetes
c. type 2 diabetes
d. osteoarthritis
e. secondary hypertension
f. rheumatoid arthritis

A

F - rheumatoid arthritis

(used for type 2 diabetes AND autoimmune diseases such as RA, psoriasis and Chron’s)

88
Q

Antibiotics

Identify the antibiotic that is effective against anaerobic organisms - recommended for the treatment of oral abscess.

a. amoxicillin
b. erythromycin
c. metronidazole
d. streptomycin
e. tetracycline

A

C - metronidazole

89
Q

Antibiotics

Identify the antibiotic that binds to transpeptides to inhibit the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls.

a. amoxicillin
b. erythromycin
c. metronidazole
d. streptomycin
e. tetracycline

A

A - amoxicillin

90
Q

Antibiotics

Identify the antibiotic that may be used as an alternative in people who have an allergy to penicillin.

a. amoxicillin
b. erythromycin
c. metronidazole
d. streptomycin
e. tetracycline

A

B - erythromycin

91
Q

Antibiotics

Which antibiotic was the first to cure tuberculosis?

a. amoxicillin
b. erythromycin
c. metronidazole
d. streptomycin
e. tetracycline

A

D - streptomycin

92
Q

Antibiotics

Identify the antibiotic that was traditionally reserved as a drug of ‘last resort’.

a. amoxicillin
b. erythromycin
c. metronidazole
d. streptomycin
e. vancomycin

A

E - vancomycin

93
Q

Immune System & Immunisation

Which form of immunisation is mediated by the transfer of active humoral immunity from one individual to another?

a. passive
b. clonal
c. humoral
d. adaptive
e. innate

A

A - passive

94
Q

Immune System & Immunisation

Identify the aspect of the immune response that is mediated in part by single, membrane spanning, non catalytic receptors that are usually expressed in sentinel cells such as macrophages and dendritic cells and which recognise structurally conserved molecules derived from microbes.

a. passive
b. clonal
c. humoral
d. adaptive
e. innate

A

E - innate

(first line defence, nonspecific mechanism which acts before the longer adaptive response)

95
Q

Immune System & Immunisation

What aspect of immunity is mediated by macromolecules?

a. passive
b. clonal
c. humoral
d. adaptive
e. innate

A

C - humoral

  • HUMOR = EXTRACELLULAR FLUID

(macromolecules are antibodies etc found in extracellular fluids)

96
Q

Anatomy of the Lung

A pronounced indentation in the anterior inferior border of the superior lobe of the left lung.

a. cardiac notch
b. cricoid cartilage
c. mediastinum
d. trachea

A

A - cardiac notch

97
Q

Anatomy of the Lung

An area within the thoracic cavity whose superior portion is bounded anteriorly by the manubrium. The brachiocephalic artery is located within this portion.

a. cardiac notch
b. cricoid cartilage
c. mediastinum
d. trachea

A

C - mediastinum

98
Q

Anatomy of the Lung

At the bifurcation of this structure, an internal ridge is formed called the carina which is one of the most sensitive area of the respiratory tract for triggering a cough reflex.

a. cardiac notch
b. cricoid cartilage
c. mediastinum
d. trachea

A

D - trachea

99
Q

Anatomy of the Lung

The most inferior connective tissue that provides structure and support to other tissues in the larynx.

a. cardiac notch
b. cricoid cartilage
c. mediastinum
d. trachea

A

B - cricoid cartilage

100
Q

Anatomy of the Lung

Commences at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra and runs down the midline of the neck. In the case of laryngeal obstruction, it can be surgically opened to allow insertion of an airway tube.

a. cardiac notch
b. cricoid cartilage
c. mediastinum
d. trachea

A

D - trachea

101
Q

Asthma Medication

A beta-2 adrenergic agonist that is extremely potent with effects that can last up to 12 hours.

a. beclometasone
b. prednisolone
c. salbutamol
d. salmeterol

A

D - salmeterol

102
Q

Asthma Medication

A corticosteroid given orally that reduces inflammation and suppresses the immune response.

a. beclometasone
b. prednisolone
c. salbutamol
d. salmeterol

A

A - beclometasone

103
Q

Asthma Medication

A short-acting bronchodilator used in the ‘reliever’ inhaler.

a. beclometasone
b. prednisolone
c. salbutamol
d. salmeterol

A

C - salbutamol

104
Q

Asthma Medication

A corticosteroid in aerosol form which reduces swelling and irritation in the airways by preventing the release of substances in the body which cause inflammation. Builds up asthma protection with regular use to help prevent asthma attacks but will not stop an attack that has already started.

a. beclometasone
b. prednisolone
c. salbutamol
d. salmeterol

A

A - beclometasone

105
Q

Asthma Medication

Taken orally when a preventer inhaler is not effective. Adverse effects include an increased risk of developing shingles.

a. beclometasone
b. prednisolone
c. salbutamol
d. salmeterol

A

B - prednisolone

106
Q

Neurological Disorders

Characterised by hemiplegia and aphasia due to right middle cerebral artery infarction.

a. alzheimer’s
b. dementia
c. meningitis
d. multiple sclerosis
e. myasthenia gravis
f. stroke

A

F - stroke

107
Q

Neurological Disorders

Characterised by a decline in memory, language, problem-solving and other thinking skills that affect a person’s ability to perform everyday activities.

a. alzheimer’s
b. dementia
c. meningitis
d. multiple sclerosis
e. myasthenia gravis
f. stroke

A

B - dementia

(alzheimer’s is early dementia)

108
Q

Neurological Disorders

An infection of the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord.

a. alzheimer’s
b. dementia
c. meningitis
d. multiple sclerosis
e. myasthenia gravis
f. stroke

A

C - meningitis

109
Q

Neurological Disorders

An autoimmune disease characterised by recurrent episodes of demyelination and atonal lesion, mediated by Th1 cells, macrophages and soluble inflammatory mediators.

a. alzheimer’s
b. dementia
c. meningitis
d. multiple sclerosis
e. myasthenia gravis
f. stroke

A

D - multiple sclerosis

110
Q

Neurological Disorders

A neuro-inflammatory condition, marked by aggregates of hyperphosphorylated tau protein, resulting in memory loss and cognitive degeneration.

a. alzheimer’s
b. dementia
c. meningitis
d. multiple sclerosis
e. myasthenia gravis
f. stroke

A

A - alzheimer’s disease

111
Q

Treating Pain

The treatment which acts most effectively by inhibiting serotonergic nerves in a descending pain control pathway.

a. acupuncture
b. da huang
c. dihydrocodeine
d. ibuprofen
e. morphine
f. NO

A

E - morphine

112
Q

Treating Pain

Originally formulated as a tincture of rhubarb.

a. acupuncture
b. da huang
c. dihydrocodeine
d. ibuprofen
e. morphine
f. NO

A

B - da huang

113
Q

Treating Pain

Identify the treatment that prevents hyperalgesia and allodynia by inhibiting prostaglandin metabolism.

a. acupuncture
b. da huang
c. dihydrocodeine
d. ibuprofen
e. morphine
f. NO

A

D - ibuprofen

114
Q

Treating Pain

Treatment used as an anaesthetic/analgesic since 1844.

a. acupuncture
b. da huang
c. dihydrocodeine
d. ibuprofen
e. morphine
f. N2O

A

F - N2O

115
Q

Treating Pain

Forms the second step on the WHO pain ladder when in combination ro and NSAID.

a. acupuncture
b. da huang
c. dihydrocodeine
d. ibuprofen
e. morphine
f. NO

A

C - dihydrocodiene

116
Q

Blood Coagulation

The anticoagulant protein activated by heparin binding.

a. antithrombin III
b. factor V
c. protein kinase C
d. factor VII
e. prothrombin

A

A - antithrombin III

117
Q

Blood Coagulation

Identify a protein activated by thrombin as part of the coagulation cascade.

a. antithrombin III
b. factor V
c. protein kinase C
d. factor VII
e. prothrombin

A

B - factor 5

118
Q

Blood Coagulation

Identify the protein released from endothelial and platelets which leads to increased platelet adhesion.

a. antithrombin III
b. factor V
c. protein kinase C
d. factor VII
e. von Willebrand factor

A

E - VWF

(helps platelets stick together to form a clot)

119
Q

Blood Coagulation

The protein that binds to and increases the half life of factor VIII. This protein unbinds from factor VIII when factor VIII is activated by thrombin.

a. antithrombin III
b. factor V
c. protein kinase C
d. factor VII
e. von Willebrand factor

A

E - VWF

120
Q

Blood Coagulation

The calcium dependent protein that mediates an increase in the affinity of platelet membrane glycoproteins for fibrinogen.

a. antithrombin III
b. factor V
c. protein kinase C
d. factor VII
e. prothrombin

A

C - protein kinase C

121
Q

Nerves In and Around the Respiratory Tract

Which nerve innervates the mediastinal pleura?

a. glossopharyngeal
b. intercostal
c. phrenic
d. recurrent laryngeal
e. vagus

A

C - phrenic

122
Q

Nerves In and Around the Respiratory Tract

Which nerve innervates the costal pleura?

a. glossopharyngeal
b. intercostal
c. phrenic
d. recurrent laryngeal
e. vagus

A

B - intercostal

123
Q

Nerves In and Around the Respiratory Tract

Which nerve is responsible for bronchoconstriction?

a. glossopharyngeal
b. intercostal
c. phrenic
d. recurrent laryngeal
e. vagus

A

E - vagus

(controls involuntary unconscious functions such as breathing etc)

124
Q

Nerves In and Around the Respiratory Tract

Which nerve carries afferent signals from ‘cough receptors’ to the medulla?

a. glossopharyngeal
b. intercostal
c. phrenic
d. recurrent laryngeal
e. vagus

A

E - vagus

125
Q

Nerves In and Around the Respiratory Tract

Which nerve moves in a direction opposite to that of the nerve from which they branch?

a. glossopharyngeal
b. intercostal
c. phrenic
d. recurrent laryngeal
e. vagus

A

D - recurrent laryngeal

126
Q

Antibiotics

A class of antibiotic which acts by inhibiting cel wall synthesis.

a. beta lactams
b. nitromidazoles
c. macrolides
d. polymyxins
e. sulphonamides

A

A - beta lactams

127
Q

Antibiotics

A class of antibiotic which binds to 50s ribosome subunit and inhibits protein synthesis.

a. beta lactams
b. nitromidazoles
c. macrolides
d. polymyxins
e. sulphonamides

A

C - macrolides

128
Q

Antibiotics

An anti metabolite antibiotic which works by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis.

a. beta lactams
b. nitromidazoles
c. macrolides
d. polymyxins
e. sulphonamides

A

E - sulphonamides

129
Q

Antibiotics

Inhibitors of cytoplasmic membrane function.

a. beta lactams
b. nitromidazoles
c. macrolides
d. polymyxins
e. sulphonamides

A

D - polymyxins

130
Q

Antibiotics

Antibiotics which affect (damage) the structure of nucleic acid, an example for which is used to specifically treat anaerobic infections.

a. beta lactams
b. nitromidazoles
c. macrolides
d. polymyxins
e. sulphonamides

A

B - nitromidazoles

(metronidazole is an e.g - treats anaerobic infections)

131
Q

Diagnostic Tests

Done to exclude empyema.

a. sputum gram test
b. pleural fluid test
c. serology
d. induced sputum test
e. nasopharyngeal swab

A

B - pleural fluid test

(empyema - collection of pus in the pleural cavity)

132
Q

Diagnostic Tests

Used to diagnose viral infections in children.

a. sputum gram test
b. pleural fluid test
c. serology
d. induced sputum test
e. nasopharyngeal swab

A

E - nasopharyngeal swab

133
Q

Diagnostic Tests

Used to diagnose viral sialadenitis.

a. sputum gram test
b. pleural fluid test
c. serology
d. induced sputum test
e. nasopharyngeal swab

A

C - serology

(analysis of blood serum)

134
Q

Diagnostic Tests

Diagnoses the presence of pneumocystis jivroveci.

a. sputum gram test
b. pleural fluid test
c. serology
d. induced sputum test
e. nasopharyngeal swab

A

D - induced sputum test

(done when pt can’t produce sputum normally)

135
Q

Diagnostic Tests

Used for pts with community acquired pneumonia, requiring hospitalisation as it is rapid with high specificity (but low sensitivity) for pneumococcal and H. influenza infections. Provides a guide for early treatment.

a. sputum gram test
b. pleural fluid test
c. serology
d. induced sputum test
e. nasopharyngeal swab

A

A - sputum gram test

(identifies and classifies bacteria in a sputum sample)

2. EMI (9 decks)

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