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2. EMI > example questions > Flashcards

example questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which demographic is most affected by leukoedema?

  • asymptomatic gray-white lesion on the buccal/labial mucosa *
A

Smokers and pts of African origin.

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2
Q

What is the haematocrit?

A

Ratio of RBCs to all blood cells (usually given as a %).

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3
Q

Define Mean Corpuscular Volume.

A

Measures the average size and volume of a RBC to help determine the aetiology of anaemia.

(think, the mean is the AVERAGE)

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4
Q

What are haematinics?

A

Nutrients required by the body for erythropoiesis (making RBCs).

e.g: iron needed for haemoglobin synthesis.

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5
Q

Folate deficiency is a deficiency in which vitamin?

A

B12 - because humans can’t make it.

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6
Q

What is ESR?

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate - rate at which RBCs in anticoagulated blood descend in a standardised tube over an hour.

  • NON-SPECIFIC MEASURE OF INFLAMMATION *
    >35mm/hour should raise suspicion.
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7
Q

In terms of plasma glucose level, diabetes is defined as…

A

A single random plasma glucose level of >11.1mmol/L or fasting sample of >7.0

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8
Q

What HbA1c level is indicative of diabetes?

A

> 40mmol/L

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9
Q

What is hairy tongue and how can it be caused?

A

Elongation of filiform papillae and accumulation of epithelial squames/extrinsic staining.

Can be caused by:
- xerostomic drugs (antibiotics)
- chlorhexidine
- corticosteroids

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10
Q

When diagnosing RAS, which 4 conditions must we consider and exclude?

A
  1. Hematinic Deficiency - deficiency of nutrients essential for RBC formation.
  2. Coeliac Disease - immune system attacks tissues when eating gluten.
  3. Bechet’s - disorder causing blood vessel inflammation.
  4. HIV
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11
Q

What sites are the 3 types of RAS most commonly found on?

A

Minor RAS - non-keratinised mucosa (labial/buccal mucosa, lateral border of tongue).

Major RAS - all mucosa.

Herpetiform - non-keratinised mucosa.

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12
Q

Which 2 types of oral lichen planus is considered to be potentially malignant?

A

Atrophic Oral Lichen Planus

Erosive Oral Lichen Planus

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13
Q

Which type of medication is Azathioprine?

A

Immunosuppressant

(used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, chron’s, systemic lupus erythematous)

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14
Q

What is the most common variant of oral lichen planus?

A

Reticular (erosive = second most common).

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15
Q

What is pyostomatitis vegetans?

A

Associated with inflammatory bowel disease so management of this condition may see symptoms improve.

(all pts presenting with this should be investigated for bowel disease).

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16
Q

What type of inheritance pattern is seen in Peutz-Jegher Syndrome?

A

Autosomal Dominant

(PJS - polyps form in the intestines).

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17
Q

What type of inheritance pattern is seen in Gardner’s Syndrome?

A

Autosomal Dominant

(development of hundreds of polyps in the small and large intestines).

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18
Q

Which demographics are most affected by pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Jewish, Asian or Mediterranean origin with a strong genetic background.

(rare group of autoimmune diseases causing skin/mucous membrane blisters)

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19
Q

What are the target antigens of pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Desmoglein 1 and 3

(just DSG3 = mucosal, both present = mucocutaneous)

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20
Q

What is MMP (matrix metalloproteinases) characterised by in terms of antibodies.

A

Liner deposition of IgG, IgA, IgM or C3 along the epithelial basement membrane zone.

  • play an important role in tissue remodelling during processes such as embryogenesis, morphogenesis, angiogenesis and wound repair *
21
Q

What is Angina Bullosa Haemorrhagica (ABH)?

A

Localised oral purpura - rapid formation of a blood-filled blister most commonly affecting the soft palate.

Bursts to leave a shallow ulcer.

22
Q

Which drug does Chlorhexidine Gluconate inactivate?

A

Nystatin (antifungal).

23
Q

Name 3 prescribed topical steroids.

A
  1. beclometasone diproprionate spray
  2. fluticasone proprionate spray/mouthwash
  3. betamethasone sodium phosphate mouthwash
24
Q

What is Median Rhomboid Glossitis (MRG) caused by and how is it treated?

A

CAUSE: associated with the presence of candida and chronic infection.

TREATMENT: systemic antifungals such as fluconazole.
- dose may need to be lowered for pts with impaired liver function.
- topicals don’t work (e.g: syststin)

25
Q

What is the difference between scintigraphy or sialography?

A

scintigraphy - radioactive tracer used to measure salivary function.

sialography - injects contrast material and x-rays to assess functional anatomy, indicated for a suspected blockage.

26
Q

What is the normal stimulated and unstimulated salivary flow?
When is a diagnosis of hyposalivation made?

A

normal - 1.5-2 ml/min
unstimulated - 0.3-0.4 ml/min

A diagnosis of hyposalivation is made when stimulated flow rate is ≤0.5-0.7 ml/min or 0.1 ml/min for unstimulated.

27
Q

What is an Akinosi block?

A

Closed Mouth Block

  • requires the pt’s mouth to be closed.
  • dentist aims to fill the pterygomandibular space with local anaesthetic.
28
Q

What is a Gow Gates Block?

A

Requires the pt’s mouth to be open wide.

  • dentist aims to administer LA anterior to the neck of the condyle in proximity to the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve after its exit from the foramen ovale.
29
Q

If a pregnant woman faints, what position should you put her in and why?

A

Position on their left side to avoid compressing the inferior vena cava.

30
Q

Which structures does the inferior dental nerve supply?

A

Mandibular teeth, anterior gingiva and the lip.

31
Q

What is Ludwig’s angina?

A

Cellulitis of the submandibular and sublingual spaces.

32
Q

What is Cervicofacial Actinomycosis?

A

A rare chronic infection of the head and neck following trauma.

Slow growing lesion at the angle of the jaw?

33
Q

Name 3 examples of antibiotics which target cell wall synthesis.

A
  1. penicillins
  2. cephalosporins
  3. b-lactamase inhibitors
34
Q

Name examples of antibiotics which inhibit protein synthesis.

A
  1. tetracyclines
  2. macrolides (e.g: erythromycin)
  3. lincomycins (e.g: clindamycin)
  4. metronidazole (indirectly as it messes with nucleic acids).
35
Q

Which type of virus causes shingles?

A

HSV-3 (secondary infection)

36
Q

What treatment would be given for shingles?

A

A high dose of systemic acyclovir to reduce the risk of post herpetic neuralgia.

37
Q

Cytomegalovirus (HHV-5) is common in which patients?

A

AIDS

38
Q

How many different types of Coxaskie Virus are there?

A

2 - type A and B

39
Q

Type A of Coxsackie Virus includes 4, 5, 9 and 16.

Which disease does this cause?

A

Hand, foot and mouth disease.

40
Q

Type B Coxsackie Virus includes 2, 4, 5 and 8.

Which disease does this cause?

A

Herpangina - sudden viral illness in children causing small ulcer in the mouth.

41
Q

Which Gracey curettes are used for anterior teeth?

A

1/2

42
Q

Which Gracey curette is used for the mesial surfaces of posterior teeth?

A

11/12

43
Q

Which Gracey curette is used for the distal surfaces of posterior teeth?

A

13/14

44
Q

Which Gracey curette is used for the buccal and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth?

A

7/8 and 9/10

45
Q

What is a dilaceration injury?

A

Injury at the junction between the crown and root.

46
Q

What is the aim of BLS?

A

To protect the brain from irreversible hypoxic damage.

47
Q

Once caries has caused the marginal ridge to collapse in the primary dentition, what would you be concerned about?

A

Pulpal involvement / compromised.

48
Q

If an immunocompromised patient comes in complaining of a poorly localised pain several weeks after a surgical XLA, what would you suspect?

A

Osyeomyelitis - inflammation of bone/bone marrow, usually due to infection

2. EMI (9 decks)

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