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Clever Orca VTNE Prep > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

A six-month-old collie comes into your clinic for a technician exam and deworming. What antiparasitic drug should be used with caution in this breed?
A Ivermectin
B Pyrantel pamoate
C Fenbendazole
D Sulfadimethoxine

A

A Ivermectin

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2
Q

Which of the following classes of antimicrobials is bacteriostatic?
A Penicillin
B Cephalosporins
C Polymyxins
D Sulfanoamides

A

D Sulfanoamides
Disrupts the folic acid pathway that produces precursors for DNA synthesis

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3
Q

Which of these is an effective drug to induce emesis in the dog?
A Magnesium hydroxide
B Apomorphine
C Azathioprine
D Cefpodoxime

A

B Apomorphine

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4
Q

What does it mean for a drug to be classified?
A The drug has abuse potential as determined by determined by the US Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
B The drug has been compounded outside of the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved drug label
C The drug has been used extra-label
D The drug had a brand name and is not available in generic form

A

A The drug has abuse potential as determined by the determined by the US Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

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5
Q

Which drug treats hypothyroidism?
A Levofloxacin
B Methimazole
C Theophylline
D Levothyroxine

A

D Levothyroxine

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6
Q

Which animals should never receive acetaminophen?
A Dogs
B Cattle
C Cats
D Chinchillas

A

C Cats

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7
Q

Antivenin is typically given in case of which of the following?
A Toxin ingestion
B Congestive heart failure
C Vomiting
D Snake bite

A

D Snake bite

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7
Q

Proparacaine is used for
A Ocular anesthesia
B Increasing tear production
C Causing pupillary constriction
D Causing pupillary dilation

A

A Ocular anesthesia
Numbs the eye, “Caine” like lidocaine

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8
Q

Which of the following drugs is used as a euthanizing agent?
A Pentobarbital sodium
B Phenobarbital
C Oxymorphone
D Fentanyl

A

A Pentobarbital sodium

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9
Q

Which of the following is an expected side effect of atropine?
A Sedation
B Inhibition of excessive salivation
C Pupillary constriction
D Bradycardia

A

B Inhibition of excessive salivation
Cause pupillary dilation, stimulant, a competitive antagonist of muscarinic cholinergic receptors

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10
Q

An adrenergic drug mimics the
A Parasympathetic nervous system
B Sympathetic nervous system
C Cardiovascular system
D Skeletal system activity

A

B Sympathetic nervous system
Sympathetic = fight or flight = adrenaline = adrenergic

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11
Q

Which of the following routes of administration would give a drug the highest bioavailability?
A Subcutaneous
B Topical
C Sublingual
D Intravenous

A

D Intravenous

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12
Q

Insulin is available in which of the following concentrations?
A U-40
B U-20
C U-50
D U-120

A

A U-40

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13
Q

A 55 lb dog is to receive furosemide at 1mg/kg. Furosemide has a concentration of 40mg/ml. How much should be drawn up for one dose?
A 6 ml
B 1.6 ml
C 0.63 ml
D 1.33 ml

A

C 0.63 ml

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14
Q

Which of the following drugs can help stimulate appetite?
A Benzodiazepine
B Morphine
C Sedative
D Spasmolytic

A

A Benzodiazepine
Diazepam and oxazepam may suppress the satiety center in the hypothalamus by increased GABA activity. Can be used primarily in cats for short term stimulation of appetite, effect is contriversial

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14
Q

Which drug could be used to decrease intracranial pressure?
A Mannitol
B Ivermectin
C Phenobarbital
D Propofol

A

A Mannitol
Osmotic diuretic, reduces intraocular and intracerebral pressures

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15
Q

Which of the following medication’s effects cannot be reversed by another drug?
A Diazepam
B Phenobarbital
C Hydromorphine
D Medetomidine

A

B Phenobarbital
No reversal agent (antagonist) for barbiturates

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15
Q

Which of these drugs should not be used in dogs?
A Phenylephrine
B Morphine
C Ivermectin
D Propofol

A

A Phenylephrine
Found in human cold and cough medicines and is toxic to dogs

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16
Q

Valium is often given with ketamine to provide which effect?
A Increased cardiac contractility
B Increased muscle tone
C Increased heart rate
D Muscle relaxation

A

D Muscle relaxation

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17
Q

The veterinarian has a note that says “PO t.i.d”. What does the veterinarian’s note mean?
A By mouth three times per day
B By mouth four times a day
C Intravenously three times per day
D Intravenously twice daily

A

A By mouth three times per day

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18
Q

Of the following, which drug is considered an aminoglycoside?
A Cephalexin
B Doxycycline
C Enrofloxacin
D Amoxicillin
E Gentamicin

A

E Gentamicin
Aminoglycoside’s have a -micin or a -mycin suffix in the chemical name

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19
Q

A drug with a high therapeutic index
A A high toxicity level
B A low toxicity level
C Numerous side effects
D Numerous benefits

A

B A low toxicity level
Therapeutic index compares therapeutically effective dose to the toxic dose of a drug

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20
Q

A drug is used for it gastrointestinal antiprotozoal and antibiotic effects in dogs is
A Metronidazole (Flagyl)
B Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid (Clavamox)
C Cefpodoxime (Simplicef)
D Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

A

A Metronidazole (Flagyl)

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21
Q

Which of the following drugs is the most commonly used as both a tranquillizer and sedative in veterinary medicine for large and small animals?
A Acepromazine
B Methadone
C Dormosedan
D Hydromorphone

A

A Acepromazine

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22
Q

All of the following drugs can be reversed EXCEPT
A Dexmedetomidine
B Diazepam
C Hydromorphone
D Carprofen

A

D Carprofen
Is an NSAID and has no reversal agent

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23
Q

Which of the following is linked to the use of diuretic drugs?
A Slow respiration rate
B Increased heart rate
C Retain water
D Increase urine production

A

D Increased urine production

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23
Q

A dog presents to the emergency hospital for status epilepticus. Which of the following drugs may be given for this condition?
A Propofol
B Atropine
C Ketamine
D Diphenhydramine

A

A Propofol
Continuous seizing, propofol causes CNS depression so can act as an anticonvulsive

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24
Q

Which of the following is an emetic?
A Apomorphine
B Metoclopramide
C Diphenoxylate
D Loperamide

A

A Apomorphine

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25
Q

Common side effects of NSAIDs include
A Polydipsia and polyurea
B Gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration
C Mydriasis, antiemetics, and diarrhea
D Suppression of mast cell degranulation

A

B Gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration

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25
Q

Which of these antibiotic choices is bacteriostatic?
A Enrofloxacin
B Cephalexin
C Penicillin
D Doxycycline

A

D Doxycycline
Tetracycline bacteriostatic agent that prevents bacteria from producing

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26
Q

How does a systemic antacid such as cimetidine act on the stomach?
A Treats defects in the stomach lining
B Protect the stomach lining
C Neutralizes stomach acid
D Prevents the production of hydrochloric acid

A

D Prevents the production of hydrochloric acid

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27
Q

An example of a drug used for its antiprotozoal effect is
A Albendazole in sheep with Haemonchus sp.
B Epsiprantel in dogs with Echinococcus sp.
C Ponazuril in horses with Sarcocystis sp.
D Fipronil in dogs with Ixodes sp.

A

C Ponazuril in horses with Sarcocystis sp.
Known as equine protozoal myelitis, ponazuril = antiprotozoal

28
Q

What adverse reaction can occur in cats given metaclopramide?
A Cyanosis
B Dilated and fixed pupils
C Aggressive behaviour
D Heart failure

A

C Aggressive behaviour
Antiemetic, can cause nervous, jittery, or aggressive behaviours are rare side effects

28
Q

Which chemotherapy drug is contraindicated for use in cats?
A L-Asparaginase
B Cisplatin
C Vincristine
D Doxorubicin

A

B Cisplatin
platin = neoplastic; causes pulmonary toxicity in cats. Remember “Cisplatin splats cats”

29
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to synchronize estrus in cows?
A Norgestomet
B Oxytocin
C Diethylstilbestrol
D Amprolium

A

A Norgestomet
Estrogen steroid hormone (estradiol) for estrus and ovulation synchronization in cattle

30
Q

Ketaconazole can cause toxicity to which of the organs or tissues listed?
A Liver
B Retinas
C Pancreas
D Kidney

A

A Liver

31
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a drug with a narrow therapeutic index?
A It only takes a small amount of the drug to become toxic
B The minimal effective dose is close to the toxic dose
C It will become toxic to the kidneys only at high doses
D The toxic dose will kill 50% of animals treated

A

B The minimal effective dose is close to the toxic dose

32
Q

All of the following are treatment options for hyperthyroidism EXCEPT
A Thyroidectomy
B Methimazole
C Radioactive iodine treatment
D Synthetic T3

A

D Synthetic T3
Hyperthyroidism = increased T3 and T4 production, no synthetic T3 is needed

33
Q

Propranolol is a cardiovascular drug of which category?
A Calcium channel blocker
B Beta-blocker
C ACE inhibitor
D Venous dilator

A

B Beta blocker
-olol = beta blocker

34
Q

Fluids routinely used to correct metabolic acidosis include
A 0.9% saline
B Hypertonic saline
C LRS
D 50% dextrose

A

C LRS
Contains lactate, converted onto bicarbonate by the liver, increasing blood pH

34
Q

Which of the following over-the-counter medications treats diarrhea?
A Loperamide
B Famotidine
C Simethicone
D Diphenhydramine

A

A Loperamide
Active ingredient in Imodium

35
Q

Which of the following medications can lead to toxicity administered to a Border Collie?
A Pyrantel
B Ivermectin
C Fenbendazole
D Cephalexin

A

B Ivermectin

36
Q

Antihistamines are used for respiratory conditions and work due to the
Reduction of bronchial spasms
Decrease in the viscosity of secretions
Suppression of coughing
Prevention of mast cell degranulation

A

Prevention of mast cell degranulation
Reduce histamine release from degranulating mast cells associated with allergic asthma

37
Q

Which of the following nervous system drugs can cause paradoxical excitability and/or disinhibition of aggression?
Diazepam
Selegiline
Sertraline
Phenobarbital

A

Diazepam
Benzodiazepines can cause paradoxical excitability and/or aggression

38
Q

Guaifenesin is a smooth muscle relaxant used for
Nebulization to increase respiratory mucous secretion viscosity
Large animal anesthesia and expectoration of respiratory secretions
Control of arrhythmias caused by anticholingerics
Positive inotropic effects on the heart

A

Large animal anesthesia and expectoration of respiratory secretions

39
Q

Which of the following cardiac drugs can be used transdermally by topical application to exposed skin on dogs?
Pimobendane
Enalapril
Nitroglycerine
Digitalis

A

Nitroglycerine
Must be applied topically onto exposed, non-haired portions of the dog’s skin. Vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscle and is used in emergency treatment of congestive heart failure in dogs

40
Q

Which of the following medications is gven prior to anesthesia to control the nervous system simulation?
Atropine
Diazepam
Itraconazole
Erythromycin

A

Atropine
Administered to block the effect of the nervous system impulses (acetylcholine) receptors throughout the body. Blocks the undesirable effects of nervous system stimulation

40
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of anticholinergic drugs?
Slowing the heart rate
Drying secretions
Dilating the pupil
Slowing gastrointestinal motility

A

Slowing the heart rate
Anticholinergic drugs increase the heart rate

41
Q

Which of the following medications is commonly found over the counter (OTC)?
Doxycycline
Pimobendan
Hydrocodone
Meclizine

A

Meclizine
also Dramamine which is an OTC antihistamine

42
Q

Ketoconazole works by which of the following mechanisms?
Inhibition of nucleic acid production
Disruption of the development of the microbial cell walls
Damaging the cell membrane in static/adult populations
Interference with microbial protein synthesis

A

Inhibition of nucleic production
Antimicrobial, kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms. It inhibits the nucleic acid synthesis in fungi.

43
Q

Pilocarpine is a cholingeric drug. Which of the following effects will it have on patients?
Dilate the pupil
Decrease salivation
Promote tear production
Decrease intestinal motility

A

Promote tear production
Cholinergic agonist –> mimics acetylcholine within ANS –> Stimulate PNS (rest and digest) –> promotes saliva, tear, urine, and defecation production, constricts pupils and slows heart rates

43
Q

A 5 week old kitten was treated for a severe laceration. Which antibiotic should NOT be used in this patient?
Clindamycin
Amoxicillin
Cefazolin
Enrofloxacin

A

Enrofloxacin
Should not give Baytril to young animals due to risk of cartilage defects and impaired development of the skeletal system

44
Q

Which statement about antimicrobial drugs is true?
Each antimicrobial is only effective against one family of bacteria
Almost all antimicrobials have zero withdrawal times
All penicillin antimicrobials must be given parenterally
Improper dosing may lead to bacterial resistance

A

Improper dosing may lead to bacterial resistance

45
Q

What is the most frequently observed side effect associated with acepromazine use in geldings?
Seizures
Arrhythmias
Hypotension
Respiratory difficulty

A

Hypotension
Will reliably cause hypotension

46
Q

Which of the following drugs is a bronchodilator used in horses for the treatment of heaves?
Hydrocodone
Dopram
Diphenhydramine
Clenbuterol

A

Clenbuterol
Heaves is a common allergic respiratory disease that causes chronic cough, nasal discharge, and difficulty breathing, this is a common bronchodilator used in horses

47
Q

Drugs used to correct hyperthyroidism in cats include
Levothyroxine
Liothyronine
Estradiol
Methimazole

A

Methimazole
This and carbimazole are the only two approved drugs for the treatment of cats with hyperthyroidism

48
Q

List, in order, the corresponding acronyms for: once daily, twice daily, three times daily, and four times daily
q. 24 hr, BID, TID, QID
q. 24 hr, BID, QID, TID
BID, q. 24 hr, QID, TID
TID, BID, q. 24 hr, QID
QID, q. 24 hr, TID, BID

A

q. 24 hr, BOD, TID, QID

49
Q

What two organs are most involved in drug metabolism and excretion?
Kidneys and liver
Pancreas and kidneys
Small intestine and spleen
Stomach and kidneys

A

Kidneys and liver

50
Q

When two antimicrobials are mixed to create a greater bactericidal effect, the term used to describe the improved efficacy is
Biotransformation
Pharmacodynamics
Inotropism
Potentiation

A

Potentiation
Has the potential to create a better bactericidal effect

50
Q

Drugs that can cause abortions in farm animals include
Diuretics such as chlorothiazide
Corticosteroids such as dexmethasone
Progestins such as altrenogest
Antihistamines such as diphenhydramine and lortidine

A

Corticosteroids such as dexamethasone
Cause abortion at certain stages of the pregnancy

51
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating Tritrichomonas foetus in cats?
Sulfasalazine
Fenbendazole
Metronidazole
Ronidazole

A

Ronidazole
It is a nitroimidazole antimicrobial that has mutagenic properties and should be handled as if it were a chemotherapeutic agent (off label use)

52
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding drugs that anesthetize cows, pigs, and goats?
They need much higher doses than animals such as horses and dogs
They are more sensitive to anesthesia than other animals
Milk could be contaminated by the drugs
Sedation is always required

A

Milk could be contaminated by the drugs

53
Q

Which of the following SSRI drugs is sued to treat dogs with anxiety and depressive disorders?
Dapoxetine
Selegiline
Fluoxetine
Buspirone

A

Fluoxetine

54
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT useful in the treatment of seizures?
Propofol
Barbituates
Diazepam
Butorphanol

A

Butorphanol
Used as an antitussive, analgesic, or sedative

55
Q

Which of the following is a potential long-term side effect of chronic corticosteroids?
Hypothyroidism
Bleeding
Anorexia
Diabetes

A

Diabetes
Corticosteroids are naturally produced in adrenal glands. Potential to increase the overall blood sugar in a patient, could lead to diabetes mellitus.

56
Q

Which of the following antibiotics should NOT be administered with dairy products?
Doxycycline
Amoxicillin
Enrofloxacin
Cephalexin

A

Doxycycline
Calcium chelation, peak plasma concentration is diminished by 24%, leaving only 30% doxycycline to be absorbed

57
Q

If you are monitoring an animal for signs of toxicity, including anorexia, vomiting, and diarrhea, which of the following drug was most likely administered?
Furosemide
Fenbendazole
Metronidazole
Digitalis

A

Digitalis
Used to treat heart conditions. it has a very narrow therapeutic index and patients must be monitored for toxicity signs.

58
Q

Types of antineoplastic drugs include ALL of the following EXCEPT
Acidifying agents
Alkylating agents
Antimetabolites
Antibiotics

A

Acidifying agents
This is not a antineoplastic medication

58
Q

Which of the following does NOT cause an expansion in the diameter of blood vessels?
Furosemide
Nitroglycerin
Hydralazine
Enalapril

A

Furosemide
Loop diuretic that acts by blocking sodium reuptake in the loop of Henle portion of the nephrons. Does not cause expansion in the diameter of blood vessels

59
Q

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS), also known as “dry eye,” can result from the use of hich medication?
Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS)
Enalapril
Prednisone
Cyclosporine

A

Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS)
Sulfanoamides can cause dry eye in some patients by disrupting tear production

59
Q

The most toxic of the following ectoparasite drugs are
Pyrethroids such as allethrin
Ivermectins such as Ivormec
Insect growth regulators such as Methoprene
Organophosphates such as dichlorvos

A

Organophosphates such as chlorvos
Extremely toxic to small animals and possibly a carcinogen in humans

60
Q

What is the most common etiology of Clostridium botulinum, the toxin that causes botulism in cattle?
Inhalation
Trauma
Ingestion
Direct contact

A

Ingestion

61
Q

Glycosaminoglycans and chondroitin sulphates are commonly used for veterinary patients with
Congestive heart failure
Chronic renal failure
Chronic respiratory diseases
Degenerative joint disease

A

Degenerative joint disease

62
Q

In which of the following animals is enrofloxacin (Baytril) contraindicated?
A 6 year old dog with a secondary skin infection
A 12 week old dog with a dental abcess
A 14 week old puppy with diarrhea
An 11 year old horse with a bite wound

A

A 14-week-old puppy with diarrhea
Contraindicated in young animals with developing cartilage

63
Q

Select the options in which one of the drugs listed is used as a monthly heartworm preventative, and the other drug listed is an adulticide for the treatment of dogs with heartworm disease
Milbemycin and melarsomine
Ivermectin and milbemycin
Melarsomine and doxycycline
Pyrantel and ivermectin

A

Milbemycin and melarsomine

64
Q

Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
Indication: approved use(s) of a drug
Synergism: enhanced desired effects when two drugs are given in combination vs. each administered alone
Extra-label use: using a drug when medical or physical conditions or symptoms make the drug inadvisable
Tolerance: decreased effect of a drug over time

A

Extra-label use: using a drug when medical or physical conditions or symptoms make the drug inadvisable

64
Q

Which of the following drugs should be used with extreme caution in ruminants?
Xylazine
Lidocaine
Acepromazine
Flunixin meglumine

A

Xylazine
Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist is not approved for any species to be consumed for food purposes. Also very sensitive to xylazine and are also at risk of ileus in the GI tract.

65
Q

Sucralfate and omeprazole re used in treating gastric ulcers. Which statement is TRUE regarding the mode of action of these drugs?
Sucralfate works much like antacids by neutralizing stomach acid to increase gastric pH, while omeprazole adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective, bandage like barrier
Sucralfate adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective, bandage like barrier, while omeprazole works much like antacids by neutralizing stomach acid to increase gastric pH
Sucralfate acts on parietal cells to directly inhibit gastric acid secretion, while omeprazole adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective, bandage like barrier
Sucralfate adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective, bandage like barrier, while omeprazole actos on parietal cells to directly inhibit gastric acid secretion

A

Sucralfate adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective, bandage like barrier, while omeprazole actos on parietal cells to directly inhibit gastric acid secretion

65
Q
A

Clever Orca VTNE Prep (11 decks)

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