Exam 3 - Lec 48-49 Seizures Ott Flashcards

1
Q

risk factors for seizure recurrence (9 of them; slide 8)

A

< 2 years seizure free
-onset of seizure after age 12
-history of atypical febrile seizures
-2-6 yrs before good seizure control in tx
> 30 episodes before control achieved
-partial seizures
-abnormal EEG throughout tx
-organic neuro disorder (brain injury, dementia)
-withdrawal of phenytoin or valproate

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2
Q

what medications/drug classes lower the seizure threshold at normal doses? (6 of them)

A

-bupropion
-clozapine
-theophylline
-varenicline
-phenothiazine antipsychotics
-CNS stimulants (amphetamines)

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3
Q

what medications/drug classes lower the seizure threshold at high doses and impaired renal function? (6 of them)

A

-carbapenems (**imipenem)
-lithium
-meperidine
-penicillin
-quinolones
-tramadol

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4
Q

possible reasons for tx failure for drug-resistant epilepsy (3 of them)

A

-failure to reach CNS target
-alteration of drug targets in CNS
-drugs missing the real target

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5
Q

management of drug-resistant epilepsy (3 things bolded)

A

-rule out pseudo-resistance (wrong drug/diagnosis)
-combination therapy
-electrical/surgical intervention

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6
Q

status epilepticus definition

A

continuous seizure activity lasting 5 min or more, or two or more discrete seizure with incomplete recovery between

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7
Q

possible drug therapy for status epilepticus (bolded)

A

benzodiazepines, most commonly lorazepam or midazolam

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8
Q

for status epilepticus tx, what is given if seizure continues 5-20 minutes after (initial tx phase)? (2 options)

A

IV lorazepam or IV midazolam

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9
Q

why does phenytoin have a limited infusion rate?

A

it can cause hypotension due to propylene glycol diluent

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10
Q

fosphenytoin dosing

A

20 mg PE (phenytoin equivs)/kg IV, may give additional dose 10 min after load

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11
Q

why does fosphenytoin have better IV tolerance of dosing than phenytoin?

A

bc fosphenytoin is a prodrug of phenytoin

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12
Q

phenytoin/fosphenytoin administration requires cardiac monitoring, and may also cause what local reaction?

A

purple glove syndrome

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13
Q

for oral phenytoin dosing, we must obtain what two things in the same blood draw?

A

-phenytoin serum conc
-serum albumin

(these are used in the equation to calculate dose)

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14
Q

therapeutic serum conc range for phenytoin

a. 5-10 mcg/mL
b. 10-20 mcg/mL
c. 20-40 mcg/mL
d. 50-100 mcg/mL

A

b. 10-20 mcg/mL

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15
Q

IV to PO conversion for valproate

A

1:1 conversion

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16
Q

desired serum conc range for valproate

A

50-125 mcg/mL (~80 mcg/mL)

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17
Q

carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and phenytoin are inducers of which 3 CYPS?

A

1A2, 2C9, 3A4

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18
Q

lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine, and topiramate induce which CYP?

a. 1A2
b. 2C9
c. 3A4

A

c. 3A4

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19
Q

which drug is a UGT inhibitor?

a. carbamazepine
b. phenobarbital
c. phenytoin
d. lamotrigine
e. oxcarbazepine
f. valproate
g. topiramate

A

f. valproate

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20
Q

boxed warning for lamotrigine

A

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

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21
Q

lamotrigine dosing without concomitant UGT drug interactions (4 doses to know)

A

-25 mg once daily x 14 days
-50 mg once daily x 14 days
-100 mg once daily x 7 days
-200 mg once daily

(if given with UGT inhibitor, dec doses by half; if given with UGT inducer, double the doses)

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22
Q

what must be screened prior to starting carbamazepine or like derivatives?

A

screen for HLA-B*1502 allele

(it is assoc with SJ syndrome and anticonvulsant hypersensitivity syndrome; if positive, pt should not be treated with these drugs unless benefits outweigh risk)

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23
Q

true or false: there is strong correlation for positive HLA-B*1502 allele and AHS in Asian pts

A

true

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24
Q

which allele in pts of Northern European and Asian descent may confer similar risk for AHS to HLA-B*1502?

a. HLA-B1330
b. HLA-A
3101
c. HLA-B1503
d. HLA-A
3151

A

b. HLA-A*3101

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25
Q

mortality rate of DRESS syndrome

A

10%

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26
Q

true or false: DRESS syndrome is less likely in pts positive for HLA-A*1301

A

false (more likely)

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27
Q

DRESS syndrome usually occurs ___-___ weeks after start of drug therapy

A

2-6 weeks

28
Q

DRESS syndrome is associated with which drugs? (7 of them in bold)

A

-carbamazepine
-phenobarbital
-phenytoin
-cenobamate
-lamotrigine
-valproate
-zonisamide

29
Q

antiseizure drug withdrawal syndrome (2 things in bold)

A

-associated with abrupt discontinuation of antiseizure med
-may cause recurrence of seizures, always taper

30
Q

drug serum conc for antiseizure drugs may be altered in pregnancy due to changes in ?

A

volume of distribution

31
Q

why is valproate not recommended in pregnancy?

A

causes neural tube defects and is assoc with dec IQ of the offspring (consider supplemental folic acid 5 mg daily)

32
Q

which antiseizure drugs are teratogenic risks? (7 of them)

A

-carbamazepine
-phenobarbital
-phenytoin
-fosphenytoin
-clonazepam
-primidone
-topiramate

33
Q

infants should receive what dose of vitamin K at birth to dec risk of hemorrhagic disease?

a. 1 mg
b. 2 mg
c. 3 mg
d. 5 mg

A

a. 1 mg

34
Q

why do antiseizure drugs dec efficacy of estrogen-containing contraceptives?

A

estrogen compounds are major 3A4 substrates; need to use higher dose estrogen contraceptives, or can use progestin-only - depot formulation, or IUDs are also recommended

35
Q

_________ can dec lamotrigine serum conc (50%) and vice versa

A

estrogen

36
Q

which medications have an AE of arrhythmias? (2 of them)

a. lamotrigine
b. lacosamide
c. pregabalin
d. phenytoin/fosphenytoin
e. fenfluramine

A

a. lamotrigine
d. phenytoin/fosphenytoin

37
Q

which medications have an AE of PR interval changes? (2 of them)

a. lamotrigine
b. lacosamide
c. pregabalin
d. phenytoin/fosphenytoin
e. fenfluramine

A

b. lacosamide
c. pregabalin

38
Q

which medication has an AE of heart block?

a. lamotrigine
b. lacosamide
c. pregabalin
d. phenytoin/fosphenytoin
e. fenfluramine

A

b. lacosamide

39
Q

which medication has an AE of valvular heart disease?

a. lamotrigine
b. lacosamide
c. pregabalin
d. phenytoin/fosphenytoin
e. fenfluramine

A

e. fenfluramine

40
Q

which drug(s) are assoc with hyponatremia and SIADH?

a. carbamazepine
b. zonisamide
c. phenytoin
d. topiramate

A

a. carbamazepine

(also eslicarbazepine/oxcarbazepine)

41
Q

which drug(s) alters vitamin D metab and can lead to osteoporosis?

a. carbamazepine
b. zonisamide
c. phenytoin
d. topiramate

A

c. phenytoin

42
Q

which drug(s) are assoc with dec serum bicarb leading to metabolic acidosis, as well as decreased sweating, heat intolerance, oligohydrosis, and nephrolithiasis?

a. carbamazepine
b. zonisamide
c. phenytoin
d. topiramate

A

d. topiramate

43
Q

psychiatric SE: psychosis, suicidal thoughts/behaviors, unusual mood changes, worsening depression (usually seen in children and adolescents)

a. levetiracetam
b. perampanel
c. valproate
d. topiramate

A

a. levetiracetam

44
Q

psychiatric SE: acute mental status changes related to hyperammonemia (differentiate from sedation)

a. levetiracetam
b. perampanel
c. valproate
d. topiramate

A

c. valproate

45
Q

psychiatric SE: associated with cognitive dysfunction if dose is inc too rapidly, use a slow titration

a. levetiracetam
b. perampanel
c. valproate
d. topiramate

A

d. topiramate

46
Q

boxed warning for perampanel

A

dose-related serious/life-threatening neuropsychiatric events; use caution with pre-existing psychosis

47
Q

post-marketing warning for topiramate

A

vision loss, myopia, retinal detachment

48
Q

vigabatrin is CI in which pts?

A

pts who have other risk factors for irreversible vision loss

49
Q

gabapentin/pregabalin should be evaluated before use in pts with risk for __________ _________ in pt who is taking other CNS depressants, has pulmonary disease, or is elderly

A

respiratory depression

50
Q

_________ can cause thrombocytopenia, as well as PCOS, weight gain, and sedation

a. carbamazepine
b. oxcarbazepine
c. valproate
d. zonisamide
e. felbamate

A

c. valproate

51
Q

carbamazepine induces p-glycoprotein, as well as which 4 cyps?

A

1A2
2C9
2C19
3A4

(oxcarbazepine induces 3A4)

52
Q

which is CI if there is a sulfa allergy?

a. topiramate
b. zonisamide
c. phenobarbital
d. phenytoin

A

b. zonisamide

53
Q

topiramate and zonisamide clinical pearls (3 of them)

A

-weight loss
-oligohydrosis (decreased sweating)
-nephrolithiasis

54
Q

_________ absorption is dec when given with enteral feedings, hold feedings 1-2 hours before and after administration. It can also cause gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism

a. topiramate
b. zonisamide
c. phenobarbital
d. phenytoin

A

d. phenytoin

55
Q

which drug can cause gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism?

A

phenytoin

56
Q

How is gabapentin/pregabalin eliminated? How should we adjust the dose?

A

renally elim; dec dose in renal impairment

57
Q

what drug is indicated for Dravet Syndrome and Lennox Gastaut Syndrome?

A

Epidiolex (oral CBD)

58
Q

multiple seizure types that develop in childhood, usually accompanied by intellectual disability, sometimes responsive to combination of some AEDs

a. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
b. Dravet Syndrome

A

a. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome

59
Q

rare genetic epileptic encephalopathy with normal childhood development until seizures begin in 1st year of life leading to multiple seizure types and developmental disability

a. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
b. Dravet Syndrome

A

b. Dravet Syndrome

60
Q

what is the fats:carbs/protein ratio in the “keto diet”?

A

3:1 or 4:1

61
Q

true or false: children respond only while on the keto diet, the effects in adults may continue after the diet is discontinued

A

false (adults only respond while on the keto diet, effects in children may continue after diet is discontinued)

62
Q

all antiseizure drugs carry what warning?

A

inc risk of suicidal thinking/behaviors

63
Q

antidepressants carry a warning for inc risk of suicidal thinking during tx in pts < ____ years of age

A

< 24

64
Q

use of _________ should be avoided in pts with uncontrolled seizure disorders, as it can inc risk of seizures and frequency

A

bupropion

65
Q

what condition is a common co-morbidity for epilepsy/seizure disorders?

A

depression

66
Q

which drug is indicated only for absence seizures?

a. clonazepam
b. carbamazepine
c. lamotrigine
d. ethosuximide

A

d. ethosuximide