Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A320/1 > Recall (Limitations) > Flashcards

Recall (Limitations) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the “Airbus Golden Rules”?

A
  1. Fly, navigate, communicate in that order with appropriate task sharing.
  2. Use the appropriate level of automation at all times.
  3. Understand the FMA at all times.
  4. Take action if things do not go as expected.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This airplane is certified in the public transport category (passengers and freight) for day and night operations, in the following conditions when the appropriate equipment and instruments required by the airworthiness an operating regulation are approved, installed, and in an operable conditions:

A
  • VFR and IFR
  • Extended overwater flight
  • Flight in icing conditions
  • Maximum 180 passenger seats (A321: 220)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the parameters included in the stabilised approach criteria?

A
  1. Aircraft is on the correct flight path with small changes to maintain this correct flight path.
  2. The aircraft speed is with +10 to -5 speed target.
  3. Correct landing configuration.
  4. Sink rate is no greater than 1000fpm below 1000’HAA.
  5. Appropriate thrust setting for the configuration.
  6. All briefings + checklist are completed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Minimum flight crew

A

2 pilots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Flight maneuvering load acceleration limits

A

Clean configuration:
-1G to +2.5G

Other configurations:
0G to +2.0G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Maximum taxi weight

A

77,400kg (A321: 93,400kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maximum takeoff weight

A

77,000kg (A321: 93,000kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Maximum landing weight

A

66,000kg (A321: 77,800kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight

A

62,500kg (A321: 73,800kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Minimum weight

A

37,230kg (A321: 47500kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mean runway slope

A

-/+ 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Runway altitude

A

9,200 feet (VH-VWT: 12,000 feet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nominal runway width

A

45m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Jetstar narrow runway width limit

A

30m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Crosswind limits for takeoff & landing on narrow (30m) runways?

A

Takeoff:
Dry 38 knots, wet 33 knots

Landing:
Dry 30 knots, wet 20 knots

(All figures include gust)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind

A

38 knots (including gust)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Maximum tailwind

A

T/O: 10 knots (VH-VWT & VH-VWY & VH-VWZ: 15 knots)

LDG: 10 knots (VH-VFT & VH-VFY & VH-VWT: 15 knots)
(Autoland & rollout remains 10 knots, landing with 15 knots tailwind, only FLAPS FULL is permitted)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum wind for passenger door operation

A

65 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum wind speed for cargo door operation

A

40 knots (or 50 knots, if the aircraft nose is oriented into the wind, or the cargo door is on the leeward side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Maximum speed for config 1 (slats 18, flaps 0) in the air

A

230 knots (A321: 235 knots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maximum speed for config 1+F (slats 18, flaps 10) on the ground

A

215 knots (A321: 225 knots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maximum speed for config 2 (slats 22, flaps 15)

A

200 knots (A321: 215 knots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maximum speed for config 3 (slats 22, flaps 20)

A

185 knots (A321: 195 knots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Maxim speed for config FULL (slats 27, flaps 40) when landing

A

177 knots (A321: 190 knots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Maximum operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended is

A

20,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Maximum speed with landing gear extended (VLE)

A

280 knots / M0.67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Maximum speed at which the LG may be extended (VLO extension)

A

250 knots / M0.60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Maximum speed at which the LG may be retracted (VLO retraction)

A

220 knots / M0.54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended

A

25,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Maximum tire speed

A

Ground speed of 195 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Maximum speed to use the windshield wipers

A

230 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Maximum speed when the cockpit window is opened

A

200 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Minimum height for use of the autopilot in a circling approach

A

Applicable MDA -100 feet or MDH -100 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Maximum negative cabin differential pressure

A

-1psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Maximum taxi speed when taxi weight is heavier than 76,000kg

A

Do not exceed 20 knots during a turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Minimum height for use of the autopilot in a straight in non precision approach

A

Applicable MDA or MDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Maximum positive cabin differential pressure

A

+9.0psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

During ground operations, with avionics ventilation system in normal configuration, what are the time limitations of the aircraft’s electric power supply in the following OAT conditions, 49, 55, 60 and 64 degrees

A

49: no limitations
55: 2 hours
60: 1 hour
64: 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Minimum height for use of the autopilot in a PAR or a RNP approach

A

250 feet AGL

Use of the AP and/or FD is authorized in PAR approach, with HDG V/S or TRK FPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Minimum height to use autopilot on takeoff with SRS mode

A

100 feet AGL

An internal FMGS logic prevents the autopilot from engaging during the 5 seconds after liftoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Minimum height for use of the autopilot other than an approach

A

A320: 500 feet AGL
A321: 900 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Minimum height for use of the autopilot in a straight in LNAV/VNAV approach

A

Applicable DA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If the flight crew performs an CAT2 automatic approach without auto land, the autopilot must be disengaged no later than___?

A

80 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Minimum height for use of the autopilot in an ILS approach when CAT2 or CAT3 is not displayed on the FMA.

A

160 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CAT 3 fail passive (single) MDH

A

50 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Minimum height for use of the autopilot in a go around (AP or FD engagement)

A

100 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

CAT 3 fail operational (dual) with DH, MDH is

A

25 feet (A321: 22 feet)

2 autopilots must be engaged in APPR mode and CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

CAT 2 MDH

A

100 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CAT 2 single and CAT 3 single auto land are only approved in configuration _____, and if engine out procedures are completed before reaching ______ in approach.

A

FULL

1,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Maximum wind conditions for CAT 2 automatic approach without autoland (A321)

A

Headwind: 40 knots

Tailwind: 10 knots

Crosswind: 25 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Max continuous load per generator

A

100% (90KVA)

Note:
It is forbidden to use the electrical outlets during takeoff and landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

CAT 3 fail operational (dual) alert height

A

100 feet

53
Q

CAT 3 fail operational (dual) without DH minimum RVR is

A

75m

2 autopilots must be engaged in APPR mode and CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA

54
Q

Maximum wind conditions for CAT 2 or CAT 3 automatic approach landing and roll out

A

Headwind: 30 knots

Tailwind: 10 knots

Crosswind: 20 knots

Note:
Wind limitation is based on the surface wind reported by ATC. If the wind displayed on ND exceeds the limitations above, but the tower reports a surface wind within the limitations, then the autopilot can remain engaged.

If the tower reports a surface wind beyond limitations, only CAT 1 automatic approach without auto land can be performed

55
Q

Maximum allowed wing OUTER fuel tanks imbalance

A

690kg (VFN/O/P/Q/T/U/V/X: 370kg)

56
Q

Maximum continuous load per TR

A

200 amps

Note:
It is forbidden to use the electrical outlets during takeoff and landing.

57
Q

Maximum JET-A1 fuel temperature

A

+54 degrees Celsius

58
Q

Minimum JET-A1 fuel temperature

A

-43 degrees Celsius

59
Q

Maximum allowed wing INNER fuel tanks imbalance with the heavier tank is Full, 4300kg and 2250kg

A

Full: 1,500kg

4,300kg: 1,600kg

2,250kg: 2,250kg

The variation is linear between these values, there is no limitation below 2,250kg.

60
Q

Tanks must be emptied in the following order:

A

Center tank then wing tank

Note:
Takeoff on center tank is prohibited

61
Q

Maximum brake temperature for takeoff (brake fans OFF) is

A

300 degrees Celsius

62
Q

Minimum fuel quantity for takeoff

A

1,500kg and WING TK LO LVL warning must not be displayed on ECAM for takeoff

63
Q

Maximum taxi speed if 2 tires are deflated on the same main gear (with the other main gear not being deflated)

A

3 knots and the NWS angle limited to 30 degrees

64
Q

Normal hydraulic operating pressure

A

3000 PSI +/- 200

65
Q

Towbarless towing and pushback, the NWS angle is limited to

A

85 degrees

Note:
The device must be approved for the “accepted towbarless towing vehicles” that are listed in the airbus SIL 09-002

66
Q

Maximum taxi speed when 1 tire is deflated on 1 or more gears (maximum of 3 tires)

A

7 knots when turning

67
Q

IRS ground alignment has been demonstrated to be satisfactory up to _____ latitude

A

73 degrees

68
Q

For towing and pushback, the NWS angle is limited to

A

95 degrees

69
Q

When using the handwheels, the NWS angle is limited to

A

75 degrees

70
Q

In NAV mode, the IRS will not provide a valid magnetic heading for latitude greater than

A

73 degrees North

60 degrees South

Note:
Flight outside the above noted limits is prohibited

71
Q

When both PFDs are lost, can the flight crew use the ISIS bugs function?

A

No

72
Q

Minimum flight crew oxygen pressure for 2 crew members at 10, 20 and 30 degrees Celsius.

A

10 degrees: 706psi (+1 OBS: 926psi)
20 degrees: 731psi (+1 OBS: 959psi)
30 degrees: 756psi (+1 OBS: 992psi)

73
Q

Protection after loss of cabin pressure, with mask regulator on NORMAL (diluted oxygen) during cruise at FL100 for 2 crew members for

A

107 minutes

74
Q

Protection after loss of cabin pressure, with mask regulator on NORMAL (diluted oxygen) during an emergency descent for all cockpit members for

A

13 minutes

75
Q

The APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed. Maintenance action is required within the next ____________.

A

Next 10 hours of APU operation

76
Q

Protection in case of smoke, with 100% oxygen: for all cockpit members for ____ minutes at a cabin altitude if 8,000 feet

A

15 minutes

77
Q

Maximum APU N rotor speed (ECAM display)

A

107%

Note:
The APU automatically shuts down at 107% N speed, that appears on the ECAM. This corresponds to an actual N speed of 106%.

78
Q

APU starter limitation

A

After 3 starter motor duty cycles, wait 60 minutes before attempting 3 more cycles.

79
Q

Maximum APU EGT start below 35,000 feet

A

1,090 degrees Celsius

80
Q

Maximum APU EGT

A

675 degrees Celsius

81
Q

APU electric power extraction at or below 25,000 feet ISA +35 degrees Celsius and below

A

90KVA

82
Q

Maximum APU EGT start above 35,000 feet

A

1,120 degrees Celsius

83
Q

Maximum altitude to use APU’s electrical power

A

41,000 feet

84
Q

Altitude limit for using APU bleed to run 2 packs

A

15,000 feet

85
Q

APU battery start limit altitude (ELEC EMER CONFIG)

A

25,000 feet

86
Q

APU ground starting and operating limit altitude

A

14,500 feet

87
Q

Altitude limit for using APU bleed to run only 1 pack

A

22,500 feet

88
Q

Maximum refueling pressure

A

50psi

89
Q

Maximum defueling pressure

A

11psi

90
Q

Minimum oil temperature prior to takeoff

A

50 degrees Celsius

91
Q

Minimum starting oil temperature

A

-40 degrees Celsius

92
Q

Maximum engine EGT during start

A

635 degrees Celsius

93
Q

Maximum engine EGT during MCT

A

610 degrees Celsius with no time limits

94
Q

Maximum engine EGT during TOGA and time allowances

A

635 degrees Celsius for 5 minutes (OEI: 10 minutes)

A321: 650 degrees Celsius

95
Q

Minimum oil temperature prior to exceeding idle

A

-10 degrees Celsius

96
Q

Maximum oil transient temperature and how long?

A

165 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes

97
Q

Maximum continuous oil (MCT) temperature

A

155 degrees Celsius

98
Q

Minimum oil pressure

A

60psi

99
Q

Minimum oil quantity

A

11 US quart + 0.3 quart per flying hour

100
Q

Maximum N1 & N2 RPM

A

100%

101
Q

High vibration indication pulses when

A

During engine start on the ground: N2 exceeds 6.5 units

In operation: N1 or N2 exceeds 5 units

102
Q

IAE engine starter limitations

A

3 consecutive cycles with 2 cycles of 2 minutes each followed by a 3rd cycle of 1 minute

Pause 15 seconds between start attempts

30 minutes of cooling period following 3 start attempts or 4 minutes of continuous cranking

No running engagement of the starting, when N2 is above 10% on the ground, and 18% in flight

103
Q

Reverse thrust is not permitted

A

In flight, to back up the aircraft and maximum reverse thrust can not be used below 70 knots, idle reverse is permitted down to aircraft stop.

104
Q

Thrust reduction must not exceed 25% of the full rated takeoff thrust. To meet this requirement, the flexible temperature must not be higher than

A

A320: ISA +55 degrees Celsius (T MAX FLEX)

A321: ISA +42 degrees Celsius (T MAX FLEX)

105
Q

The engine is capable of staring in crosswinds up to

A

35 knots

106
Q

When using high pressure cart we can not use

A

APU bleed to avoid bleed system damage.

107
Q

Ram air valves only open if delta (change in) pressure is lower than

A

1psi

108
Q

Airflow supplied from the ground cart shall not exceed

A

1.2kg/seconds

109
Q

Air condition temperature control knobs have a range of

A

18 - 30 degrees Celsius with normal setting of 24 degrees Celsius

110
Q

When using low pressure cart, we can not use

A

Neither packs to avoid chattering of the non-return valves.

111
Q

Maximum delta (change in) pressure is

A

8.6psi, that’s when the safety relief valve opens

112
Q

Maximum bleed normal pressure

A

8.06psi

113
Q

Maximum bleed overload pressure

A

9psi

114
Q

When the accumulator pressure gauge (showing only the yellow system) is in the green range, how long can it hold the parking brake for?

A

Minimum of 12 hours

115
Q

List the 4 conditions that requires a brake maintenance and replacements

A

1: one brake temperature exceeds 900 degrees Celsius
2: 2 brakes on the same gear exceeds 150 degrees, or if 1 of the brakes exceeds 600 degrees Celsius or less than 60 degrees Celsius (indicating not operating)
3: average temperature difference between left and right gear is greater than 200 degrees Celsius
4: a fuse plug has melted

116
Q

Fuel tank weights capacities

A

Outer: 0.691T x2

Inner: 5.435T x2

Center: 6.476T

Total: 18.728T

117
Q

Minimum battery voltage before staring APU

A

25.5V

118
Q

Wingspan dimensions

A

A320 & A321: 34.1m

A320-S: 35.8m

119
Q

Wheel base span between main gears

A

7.59m

120
Q

Front gear and main gear distance

A

A320: 12.64m
A321: 12.91m

121
Q

Aircraft length

A

A320: 37.57m
A321: 44.51m

122
Q

What is the turbulence penetration speed speeds?

A

Below FL200: 250kts

Above FL200: 275kts

Above FL320 (cruise): M0.76

123
Q

Maximum operating speed VMO/MMO

A

350 knots / M0.82

124
Q

What is the minimum runway width for a 180 degree turn?

A

22.9m

125
Q

(A321) Maximum allowed wing fuel tanks imbalance when the heavy tank content is FULL, 4000kg and 2350kg (empty on the other side)

A

FULL: 1320kg

4000kg: 1450kg
2350kg: 2350kg

126
Q

Operating envelope

Maximum recommended ceiling and maximum service ceiling

A

39,800 feet (with a 3G buffer)

41,000 feet

127
Q

At what speed does the landing gear safety valve operates

A

260 knots

128
Q

Aircraft height

A

A320/1: 11.755m

A320/1 (31 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions