AUBF PART 2 Flashcards

1
Q

CSF production in adults

A

20mL of fluid per hour

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2
Q

CSF is produced in?

A

Choroid plexus of the two lumbar ventricles and the third and fourth ventricles

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3
Q

CSF flows through the?

A

Subarachnoid space

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4
Q

Subarachnoid is located between

A

Arachnoid and pia mater

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5
Q

CSF volume in adults

A

90 to 150 mL

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6
Q

CSF volume in neonates

A

10-60 mL

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7
Q

The circulating fluid is reabsorbed back into the blood capillaries in
the?

A

Arachnoid granulations

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8
Q

Acts as a one way valve to prevent reflux of the csf

A

Cells of the arachnoid granulation

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9
Q

It is the capillary networks that form the
CSF from plasma by mechanisms of selective filtration under
hydrostatic pressure and active transport secretion

A

Choroid plexuses

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10
Q

Is CSF an ultrafiltrate of the plasma? Y/N?

A

No because of the mechanisms of selective filtration under hydrostatic pressure and active transport secretions

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11
Q

A very tight-fitting junctures that prevent the passage of many molecules.

A

Blood-brain barrier

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12
Q

CSF tubes
Tube 1 - ____
Tube 2 - ____
Tube 3 - ____

A

Tube 1 - Clinical Chemistry and Serology
Tube 2 - Microbiology
Tube 3 - Hematology
Fourth tube may be drawn for the microbiology laboratory to better exclude skin contamination or for additional serologic test
If only one tube is collected - Microbiology first

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13
Q

CSF tubes temperature
Hematology - ____
Chemistry and Serology - ____
Microbiology - ____

A

Hematology - Refrigerated
Microbiology - Room temp
Chem and sero - Frozen

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14
Q

Term used to describe CSF supernatant that is pink, orange, or yellow

A

Xanthochromia

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15
Q

Three visual examinations of the collected specimen to determine if it is a TRAUMATIC TAP

A
  1. Uneven blood distribution (More rbc and bloody in Tube 1)
  2. Clot formation (Because of the introduction of plasma fibrinogen into the specimen)
  3. Xanthochromic Supernatant (RBC hemolyze in approx. 2hrs. to become noticeable in the CSF)
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16
Q

Normal WBC csf

A

0-5 WBC/uL
Higher in children with as many as 30 mononuclear cells/uL

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17
Q

Neubauer calculation formula

A

Number of cells counted × dilution/ Number of cells counted × volume of 1 square = Cells/uL

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18
Q

Where cells are counted in Neubauer

A

Four corner squares

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19
Q

Used to lyse RBC

A

3% glacial acetic acid

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20
Q

Used to stain the WBC

A

Methylene blue

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21
Q

Cells found in normal CSF are composed of

A

Lymphocytes and Monocytes
70:30 - Lymphocytes: Monocytes (Adult)
70:30 - Monocytes: Lymphocytes (Children)

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22
Q

Presence of increased number of WBC in CSF is called?

A

Pleocytosis

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23
Q

High neutrophils in WBC count of CSF

A

Bacterial Meningitis

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24
Q

High lymphocytes and monocytes in WBC count of CSF

A

Viral, tubercular, fungal, or parasitic meningitis

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25
Q

Major Clinical Significance:
Normal
Viral, tubercular, and fungal meningitis
Multiple sclerosis

Microscopic Findings:
All stages of development may be found

A

Lymphocytes

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26
Q

Major Clinical Significance:
Bacterial Meningitis
Early case of viral, tubercular, and fungal meningitis
Cerebral hemorrhage

Microscopic Findings:
Granules may be less prominent than in blood
Cells disintegrate rapidly

A

Neutrophil

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27
Q

Major Clinical Significance:
Normal
Viral, tubercular, and fungal meningitis
Multiple sclerosis

Microscopic Findings:
Found mixed with lymphocytes

A

Monocytes

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28
Q

Major Clinical Significance:
RBCs in spinal fluid

Microscopic Findings:
May contain phagocytized RBCs appearing as empty
vacuoles or ghost cells, hemosiderin granules, and hematoidin crystals

A

Macrophages

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29
Q

Major Clinical Significance:
Acute leukemia

Microscopic Findings:
Lymphoblasts, myeloblasts, or monoblasts

A

Blast forms

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30
Q

Major Clinical Significance:
Disseminated lymphomas

Microscopic Findings:
Resemble lymphocytes with cleft nuclei

A

Lymphoma cells

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31
Q

Major Clinical Significance:
Multiple sclerosis
Lymphocyte reactions

Microscopic Findings:
Traditional and Classic forms seen
Reactive lymps

A

Plasma Cells

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32
Q

Major Clinical Significance:
Diagnostic procedures

Microscopic Findings:
Seen in clusters with distinct nuclei and distinct cell
walls

A

Ependymal, choroidal,
and spindle-shaped
cells

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33
Q

Major Clinical Significance:
Metastatic carcinomas
Primary central nervous system carcinoma

Microscopic Findings:
Seen in clusters with fusing of cell borders and nuclei

A

Malignant cells

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34
Q

Neutrophils associated with bacterial meningitis may contain?

A

Phagocytized bacteria

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35
Q

Neutrophils with ____ indicates degenerating cells

A

Pyknotic nuclei

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36
Q

Neutrophils can resemble NRBCs but Neutrophils have multiple nuclei. NRBCs are seen as a result of a?

A

Bone marrow contamination during spinal tap

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37
Q

Increased lymphocytes can be seen in cases of both asymptomatic ______?

A

HIV infection and AIDS

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38
Q

Moderately elevated WBC count (<50 WBC/uL) with increased normal and reactive lymphocytes and plasma cells may indicate what?

A

Multiple sclerosis or other degenerative neurologic disorders

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39
Q

Seen in the CSF in association with parasitic infections, fungal infections (Coccidioides immitis), and foreign material including medications and shunts

A

Eosinophil

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40
Q

The purpose of this in the CSF is to remove cellular debris and foreign objects such as RBCs

A

Macrophages

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41
Q

Macrophages appear within how many hours after RBCs enter the csf?

A

2-4 hours

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42
Q

Indicates a previous hemorrhage

A

Macrophages in CSF

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43
Q

Degradation of the phagocytized RBCs results in the appearance of

A

dark blue or black iron containing hemosiderin granules

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44
Q

Yellow hematoidin crystals represents what?

A

Further degradation of RBC

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45
Q

Nonpathologically significant cells are most frequently seen
after diagnostic procedures such as

A

Pneumoencephalography and in fluid obtained from ventricular taps or during neurosurgery

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46
Q

From the epithelial lining of the choroid plexus

A

Choroidal cells

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47
Q

From the lining of the ventricles and neural canal

A

Ependymal cells

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48
Q

From the lining cells of the arachnoid

A

Spindle-shaped cells

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49
Q

Frequently seen as a serious complication
of acute leukemias.

A

Lymphoblasts, myeloblasts, and monoblasts

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50
Q

Indicates dissemination from the lymphoid tissue

A

Lymphoma cells

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51
Q

Cells from CNS tumors includes

A

Astrocytomas, retinoblastomas, and medulloblastomas

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52
Q

Normal CSF protein

A

15 to 45 mg/dL

higher values are found in infants and people over age 40

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53
Q

Most of CSF protein

A

Albumin (Same as serum)

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54
Q

Prealbumin

A

The second most prevalent fraction in CSF

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55
Q

Major beta globulin present

A

Transferrin

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56
Q

Carbohydrate-deficient transferrin fraction that can only be SEEN in CSF

A

TAU

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57
Q

Primary CSF gamma globulin

A

IgG
Only small amount of IgA

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58
Q

___, _____, and _________are not found in the CSF

A

IgM, fibrinogen, and beta lipoprotein

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59
Q

Most common cause of elevated CSF protein

A

Meningitis and hemorrhage conditions that damage the Blood-brain barrier

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60
Q

Principles of measuring total CSF protein

A

Turbidity (Nephelometry) production or dye-binding ability

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61
Q
  • Myxedema
  • Cushing disease
  • Connective tissue
    disease
  • Polyneuritis
  • Diabetes
  • Uremia
  • Meningitis
  • Hemorrhage
  • Primary CNS tumors
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Guillain-Barré syndrome
  • Neurosyphilis
  • Polyneuritis
A

Elevated CSF protein

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62
Q
  • CSF leakage/trauma
  • Recent puncture
  • Rapid CSF production
  • Water intoxication
A

Decreased CSF protein

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63
Q

CSF/serum albumin index formula

A

From the name itself
CSF albumin (mg/dL) / Serum albumin (g/dL)

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64
Q

What index value level represent an intact blood-brain barrer

A

Index value less than 9

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65
Q

IgG index

A

(CSF IgG/Serum IgG)/
(CSF albumin/Serum Albumin)

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66
Q

Normal IgG index values

A

0.70

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67
Q

Represents inflammation within the CNS (electrophoresis)

A

Oligoclonal bands

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68
Q

What presence that are not present in serum can be a valuable tool in diagnosing multiple sclerosis

A

Two or more oligoclonal band

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69
Q

Indicates recent destruction of the myelin sheath

A

Myelin basic protein

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70
Q

Approximate value of CSF glucose to Plasma glucose

A

60-70%

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71
Q

Glutamine is produced from?

A

Ammonia and alpha-ketoglutarate

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72
Q

This removes the toxic metabolic waste product ammonia from the CNS

A

Glutamine

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73
Q

Normal glutamine concentration in the CSF

A

8 to 18 mg/dL

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74
Q

The concentration of ammonia in the CSF increase, the supply of _____ depletes

A

Alpha-ketoglutarate

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75
Q

Disturbance in consciousness is seen when glutamine levels are?

A

more than 35mg/dL

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76
Q

Lactate reference range

A

10 - 24 mg/dL

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77
Q

Lactate with >35mg/dL

A

Bacterial meningitis

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78
Q

Decreased CSF glucose is due to

A

Bacterial, tubercular, and fungal meningitis

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79
Q

Decreased CSF protein is due to

A

CSF leakage

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80
Q

Increased CSF protein is due to

A

Meningitis, hemorrhage, MS

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81
Q

Elevated WBC count
Neutrophils present

Marked protein elevation
Markedly decreased
glucose level

Lactate level >35 mg/dL
Positive Gram stain and
bacterial antigen tests

A

Bacterial Meningitis

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82
Q

Elevated WBC count
Lymphocytes present

Moderate protein
elevation

Normal glucose level

Normal lactate level

A

Viral Meningitis

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83
Q

Elevated WBC count
Lymphocytes and monocytes
present

Moderate to marked protein
elevation

Decreased glucose level

Lactate level >25 mg/dL

Pellicle formation

A

Tubercular Meningitis

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84
Q

Elevated WBC count

Lymphocytes and monocytes
present

Moderate to marked protein
elevation

Normal to decreased glucose level
Lactate level >25 mg/dL

Positive India ink with Cryptococcus
neoformans

Positive immunologic test for
C. neoformans

A

Fungal Meningitis

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85
Q

Organisms most frequently encountered in the CSF

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenza, E. coli, N. meningitidis

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86
Q

Organisms that can be encountered in the CSF of the newborn

A

L. monocytogenes, S. agalactiae

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87
Q

Most sensitive test for syphilis

A

FTA-ABS

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88
Q

Recommended by the CDC/ Routine

A

VDRL

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89
Q

Seminiferous tubules of testes

A

Spermatogenesis (Sperm Production)

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90
Q

Epididymis

A

Sperm Maturation

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91
Q

Ductus Deferens (vas deferens)

A

Propel sperm to ejaculation ducts

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92
Q

Seminal Vesicles

A

Provide nutrients for sperm and fluid

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93
Q

Prostate glands

A

Provide enzymes and proteins for coagulation and liquefaction

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94
Q

Bulbourethral glands

A

Add alkaline mucus to neutralize prostatic acid and vaginal acidity

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95
Q

Spermatozoa (Concentration)

A

5%

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96
Q

Seminal Fluid (Concentration)

A

60-70%

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97
Q

Prostate Fluid (Concentration)

A

20%-30%

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98
Q

Bulbourethral glands (Concentration)

A

5%

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99
Q

Responsible for the gray color of semen

A

Flavin

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100
Q

When a part of the first portion of the ejaculate is
missing,

A

The sperm count will be decreased, the pH falsely
increased, and the specimen will not liquefy

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101
Q

When part of the last portion of ejaculate is missing

A

the semen volume is decreased, the sperm count is falsely increased, the pH is falsely decreased, and the specimen will not clot

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102
Q

Volume (semen)

A

2-5 mL

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103
Q

Viscosity (semen)

A

Pours in droplets

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104
Q

pH (semen)

A

7.2 - 8.0

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105
Q

Sperm concentration (semen)

A

> 20 million/mL

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106
Q

Sperm count (semen)

A

> 40 million/ Ejaculate

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107
Q

Motility (semen)

A

> 50% within 1h

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108
Q

Quality (semen)

A

> 2.0 or a, b, c

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109
Q

Morphology (semen)

A

> 14% normal forms (strict criteria)
30% normal forms (routine criteria)

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110
Q

Round cells (semen)

A

<1 million/ mL

111
Q

Fresh semen should liquefy in

A

30 to 60 minutes

112
Q

Grading of 4.0
WHO criteria a

A

Rapid, straight-line motility

113
Q

Grading of 3.0
WHO criteria b

A

Slower speed, some lateral movement

114
Q

Grading of 2.0
WHO criteria b

A

Slow forward progression, noticeable lateral movement

115
Q

Grading of 1.0
WHO criteria c

A

No forward progression

116
Q

Grading of 0
WHO criteria d

A

No movement

117
Q

Normal quantity of fructose

A

> 13 umol/ejaculate

118
Q

Screening procedure used primarily to detect the presence of IgG antibodies in the sperm

A

Mixed agglutination reaction test (MAR)

119
Q

A more specific procedure that can be used to detect the presence of IgG, IgM, and IgA antibodies and demonstrates what area of the sperm the autoantibodies are affecting

A

Immunobead

120
Q

Specialized cells in synovial membrane

A

Synoviocytes

121
Q

Normal value of Synovial fluid

A

<3.5 mL

122
Q

Color of Synovial fluid

A

Colorless to pale yellow

123
Q

Clarity of Synovial fluid

A

Clear

124
Q

Viscosity of Synovial fluid

A

Able to form a string 4 to 6 cm long

125
Q

Leukocyte count in Synovial Fluid

A

<200 cells/uL

126
Q

Neutrophil in Synovial Fluid

A

<25% of the diff count

127
Q

Crystals in Synovial Fluid

A

None

128
Q

Glucose:plasma difference in Synovial Fluid

A

<10 mg/dL lower than the blood glucose level

129
Q

Total protein in Synovial Fluid

A

<3 g/dL

130
Q

Collection of Synovial fluid by needle aspiration is called?

A

Arthrocentesis

131
Q

Degenerative joint disorders,
osteoarthritis (Synovial Fluid)

A

Noninflammatory

132
Q

(Synovial Fluid)
Immunologic disorders, rheum -
atoid arthritis, systemic lupus
erythematosus, scleroderma,
polymyositis, ankylosing
spondylitis, rheumatic fever,
Lyme arthritis
Crystal-induced gout,
pseudo gout

A

Inflammatory

133
Q

Microbial Infection in Synovial Fluid

A

Septic

134
Q

Traumatic injury, tumors, hemophilia, other coag disorders, and anticoagulant overdose in Synovial fluid

A

Hemorrhagic

135
Q

Laboratory Findings in Synovial Fluid:
Clear, yellow fluid
Good viscosity
WBCs <1000 L
Neutrophils <30%
Similar to blood glucose

A

Noninflammatory

136
Q

Laboratory Findings in Synovial Fluid:
Cloudy, yellow fluid
Poor viscosity
WBCs 2,000 to 75,000 L
Neutrophils >50%
Decreased glucose level
Possible autoantibodies present

A

Inflammatory w/ immunologic origin

137
Q

Laboratory findings in Synovial Fluid:
Cloudy or milky fluid
Low viscosity
WBCs up to 100,000 L
Neutrophils <70%
Decreased glucose level
Crystals present

A

Inflammatory w/ Crystal-induced origin

138
Q

Laboratory Findings in Synovial Fluid:
Cloudy, yellow-green fluid
Variable viscosity
WBCs 50,000 to 100,000 L
Neutrophils >75%
Decreased glucose level
Positive culture and Gram stain

A

Septic

139
Q

Laboratory Findings in Synovial Fluid:
Cloudy, red fluid
Low viscosity
WBCs equal to blood
Neutrophils equal to blood
Normal glucose level

A

Hemorrhagic

140
Q

Normal viscous synovial fluid resembles what?

A

Egg white

141
Q

Synovial fluid when added to a solution of 2-5% acetic acid, normal synovial fluid will?

A

Clot

142
Q

Synovial Fluid clot grading
Good -
Fair -
Low -
Poor -

A

Good - Solid clot
Fair - Soft clot
Low - Friable clot
Poor - No clot

143
Q

Negative birefringence in synovial fluid crystals

A

Monosodium urate and Cholesterol

144
Q

Positive birefringence in synovial fluid crystals

A

Calcium pyrophosphate, Calcium oxalate

145
Q

Positive and Negative birefringence in synovial fluid crystals

A

Corticosteroid

146
Q

No birefringence in Synovial fluid crystals

A

Apatite

147
Q

Common organism in synovial fluid

A

Staph, Strep, Haemophilus, and N. gonorrhea

148
Q

Membrane that lines the cavity wall

A

parietal membrane

149
Q

Membrane that covers the organs within the cavity

A

Visceral membrane

150
Q

Fluid between membranes that provides lubrication between the parietal and visceral membranes is?

A

Serous Fluid

151
Q

Aspiration of fluid in the lungs (pleural)

A

Thoracentesis

152
Q

Aspiration of fluid in the heart (pericardial)

A

Pericardiocentesis

153
Q

Aspiration of the fluid in the peritoneal (tiyan)

A

Paracentesis

154
Q

Congestive heart failure
Salt and fluid retention

A

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

155
Q

Nephrotic syndrome
Hepatic cirrhosis
Malnutrition
Protein-losing enteropathy

A

Decreased oncotic pressure

156
Q

Microbial infections
Membrane inflammations
Malignancy

A

Increased capillary permeability

157
Q

Malignant tumors, lymphomas
Infection and inflammation
Thoracic duct injury

A

Lymphatic obstruction

158
Q

Disrupts the balance in the regulation of fluid filtration and reabsorption such as the changes in hydrostatic pressure created by congestive heart failure or the hypoproteinemia associated
with the nephrotic syndrome

A

Transudates

159
Q

Produced by conditions that directly involve the membranes
of the particular cavity, including infections and malignancies.

A

Exudates

160
Q

Appearance: Clear
Fluid:Serum protein ratio: <0.5
Fluid:serum LD ratio: <0.6
WBC count: <1000/uL
Spontaneous clotting: NO
Pleural fluid cholesterol: 45 to 60 mg/dL
Pleural fluid serum cholesterol ratio: <0.3
Pleural fluid bilirubin ratio: <0.6
Serum-ascites albumin gradient: >1.1

A

Transudate

161
Q

Appearance: Cloudy
Fluid:Serum protein ratio: >0.5
Fluid:serum LD ratio: >0.6
WBC count: >1000/uL
Spontaneous clotting: Possible
Pleural fluid cholesterol: >45 to 60 mg/dL
Pleural fluid serum cholesterol ratio: >0.3
Pleural fluid bilirubin ratio: >0.6
Serum-ascites albumin gradient: <1.1

A

Exudate

162
Q

Pleural fluid cholesterol of ____ or a pleural fluid:serum cholesterol ration of _____ provides reliable information that the fluid is an exudate

A

Pleural fluid cholesterol of >60mg/dL
Pleural fluid:serum cholesterol ratio of >0.3

163
Q

Normal and transudate pleural fluids appears as

A

Clear/Pale yellow

164
Q

Presence of blood in the pleural fluid can signify a

A

Hemothorax

165
Q

Pleural fluid appearance: Turbid, white

A

Microbial infection (Tuberculosis)

166
Q

Pleural fluid appearance: Bloody

A

Hemothorax, Hemorrhagic effusion, Pulmonary embolus, Tuberculosis, Malignancy

167
Q

Pleural fluid appearance: Milky

A

Chylous material from thoracic duct leakage
Pseudochylous material from chronic inflammation

168
Q

Pleural fluid appearance: Brown

A

Rupture of amoebic liver abscess

169
Q

Pleural fluid appearance: Black

A

Aspergillus

170
Q

Pleural fluid appearance: Viscous

A

Malignant mesothelioma (Increased hyaluronic acid

171
Q

Pleural fluid hematocrit is more than 50% of the whole blood hematocrit

A

Hemothorax

172
Q

Chylous materials contains high concentration of?

A

Triglycerides

173
Q

Pseudochylous material has a high concentration of?

A

Cholesterol

174
Q

What staining is strongly positive with chylous material?

A

Sudan III

175
Q

This effusion of the pleural fluid contains cholesterol crystals

A

Pseudochylous

176
Q

Pericardial Fluid Reference range

A

10 - 50 mL

177
Q

Pericardial Fluid Appearance:
Clear, pale yellow

A

Normal, transudase

178
Q

Pericardial Fluid Appearance:
Blood-streaked

A

Infection, malignancy

179
Q

Pericardial Fluid Appearance:
Grossly bloody

A

Cardiac puncture, anticoagulant medications

180
Q

Pericardial Fluid Appearance:
Milky

A

Chylous and pseudochylous

181
Q

Pericardial Fluid Additional test:
Increased neutrophils

A

Bacterial endocarditis

182
Q

Pericardial Fluid Additional test:
Malignant cells

A

Metastatic carcinoma

183
Q

Pericardial Fluid Additional test:
Carcinoembryonic antigen

A

Metastatic carcinoma

184
Q

Pericardial Fluid Additional test:
Gram staind and culture

A

Bacterial Endocarditis

185
Q

Pericardial Fluid Additional test:
Acid-fast stain

A

Tubercular effusion

186
Q

Pericardial Fluid Additional test:
Acid-fast stain

A

Tubercular effusion

187
Q

Pericardial Fluid Additional test:
Adenosine deaminase

A

Tubercular effusion

188
Q

Most common organisms found in pericardial effusions

A

Strep, Staph, adenovirus, coxsackie virus

189
Q

Accumulation of fluid between the peritoneal membranes is called?

A

Ascites

190
Q

Ascitic fluid is also known as

A

Peritoneal fluid

191
Q

A sensitive test to detect intra-abdominal bleeding in blunt trauma cases

A

Peritoneal lavage

192
Q

It is recommended
over the fluid:serum total protein and LD ratios to detect transudates of hepatic origin

A

Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG)

193
Q

A difference (gradient) of 1,1 or greater suggests a _____ of hepatic origin in peritoneal fluid

A

Transudate effusion

194
Q

What if the appearance of the peritoneal fluid is the diagnosis is normal?

A

Clear, pale yellow

195
Q

What is the appearance of the peritoneal fluid is the diagnosis is Microbial infection

A

Turbid

196
Q

What is the appearance of the peritoneal fluid is the diagnosis is Bile, gallbladder, pancreatic disorder

A

Green

197
Q

What is the appearance of the peritoneal fluid is the diagnosis is Trauma, infection, or malignancy

A

Blood-streaked

198
Q

What is the appearance of the peritoneal fluid is the diagnosis is Lymphatic trauma and blockage

A

Milky

199
Q

Results of testing of the patient’s peritoneal lavage that has been in blunt trauma

A

> 100,000 RBCs/uL indicates blunt trauma injury

200
Q

Peritoneal fluid has <500 cells/uL of WBC

A

Normal

201
Q

Peritoneal fluid has >500 cells/uL of WBC

A

Bacterial, peritonitis, Cirrhosis

202
Q

Presence of carcinoembryonic antigen in patient’s peritoneal fluid

A

Malignancy of gastrointestinal origin

203
Q

Positive in CA125 peritoneal fluid

A

Malignancy of ovarian origin

204
Q

Decreased in tubercular peritonitis, and in malignancy

A

Glucose

205
Q

Increased in pancreatitis, gastrointestinal perforation (Peritoneal fluid)

A

Amylase

206
Q

Increased in gastrointestinal perforation (Peritoneal fluid)

A

ALP

207
Q

Bun/Crea is testing for

A

Ruptured or puctured bladder

208
Q

GSCS in peritoneal fluid is test for

A

Bacterial peritonitis

209
Q

Acid-fast stain and Adenosine deaminase is a test for what in peritoneal fluid

A

Tubercular peritonitis

210
Q

What is the composition of the amniotic fluid

A

Fetal urine and lung fluid

211
Q

Volume of Amniotic fluid

A

800 to 1200 mL during the first trimester

212
Q

Amniotic fluid greater than 1200mL is called?

A

Polyhydramnios

213
Q

Amniotic fluid less than 800mL is called?

A

Oligohydramnios

214
Q

Indication of fetal distress associated with neural tube disorders.
Can also be secondarily associated with fetal structural anomalies, cardiac arrhytmias, congenital infections, or chromosomal abnormalities

A

Polyhydramnios

215
Q

May be associated with congenital malformations, premature rupture of amniotic membranes, and umbilical cord compression resulting in decelerated heart rate and fetal death

A

Oligohydromnios

216
Q

Tests for Fetal Well-Being and Maturity
Bilirubin scan

A

HDN

217
Q

Tests for Fetal Well-Being and Maturity
AFP

A

Neural tube disorder

218
Q

Tests for Fetal Well-Being and Maturity
Lecithin-Sphingomyelin ration

A

Fetal Lung maturity

219
Q

Tests for Fetal Well-Being and Maturity
Amniostat-fetal lung maturity

A

Fetal lung maturity/phosphatidyl glycerol

220
Q

Tests for Fetal Well-Being and Maturity
Foam stability Index, Optical density 650nm, Lamellar body count

A

Fetal Lung maturity

221
Q

AFP and acetylcholinesterase are markers tested for what defects?

A

Neural tube defect

222
Q

Creatinine, Urea, and uric acid will be ____
(Amniotic fluid)

A

Increased

223
Q

Glucose, and protein concentration ______
(Amniotic fluid)

A

Decreased

224
Q

Measurement of amniotic fluid _____ has been used to determine fetal age

A

Creatinine

225
Q

36 weeks gestation, amniotic fluid creatinine level is

A

1.5 - 2.0 mg/dL

226
Q

Greater than 36 weeks gestation, amniotic fluid creatinine level is

A

more than 2.0 mg/dL

227
Q

What test can differentiate amniotic fluid from urine and other body fluids?

A

Fern test

228
Q

Collection of amniotic fluid is called?

A

Amniocentesis

229
Q

To determine the following: Fetal lung maturity, Fetal distress, HDN, Infection. What week should the pregnancy needs to be to perform Amniocentesis

A

20 to 42 weeks

230
Q

Amniocentesis may be indicated at what week for the early treatment or intervention of the following:
*Mother’s age of 35 or older at delivery
* Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as
trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
* Parents carry an abnormal chromosome rearrangement
* Earlier pregnancy or child with birth defect
* Parent is a carrier of a metabolic disorder
* Family history of genetic diseases such a sickle cell disease, Tay-Sachs disease, hemophilia, muscular dystrophy,
sickle cell anemia, Huntington chorea, and cystic fibrosis
* Elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
* Abnormal triple marker screening test
* Previous child with a neural tube disorder such as spina
bifida, or ventral wall defects (gastroschisis)
* Three or more miscarriages

A

15 to 18 weeks

231
Q

Maximum level of amniotic fluid that is collected in sterile syringes

A

30mL

232
Q

How many mL should be discarded due to it being contaminated by maternal blood, tissue fluid, and cells. (Amniotic Fluid)

A

2 or 3mL

233
Q

Fluid for Fetal Lung Maturity should be placed in _____

A

Ice for delivery

234
Q

Specimens for cytogenetic studies or microbial studies must be process ______ and maintained at ___________ or _____________

A

Aseptically, room temperature or body temperature

235
Q

Amniotic fluid color: Colorless

A

Normal

236
Q

Amniotic fluid color: Blood-streaked

A

Traumatic tap, abdominal trauma, intra-amniotic hemorrhage

237
Q

Amniotic fluid color: Yellow

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (Due to bilirubin)

238
Q

Amniotic fluid color: Dark green

A

Meconium

239
Q

Amniotic fluid color: Dark red-brown

A

Fetal death

240
Q

What test can determine the source of the blood in Amniotic fluid

A

Kleihauer-Betke test (for fetal hemoglobin)

241
Q

Most frequent complication of early delivery and is the seventh most common cause of morbidity and mortality in the premature infant

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

242
Q

Reference method of Fetal Lung Maturity

A

Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio

243
Q

Primary component of the surfactants (Phospholipids, neutral lipids, and protein)

A

Lecithin

244
Q

What week of gestation will you see a rise in Lecithin

A

35th week

245
Q

Lecithin-Sphingomyelin ratio reference range

A

less than 1.6 <35 weeks
2.0 or higher >35 weeks

246
Q

Quantitative measurement of lecithin and sphingomyelin is performed using

A

Thin-layer chromatography

247
Q

Replacement of Lecithin-Sphingomyelin Ration

A

Phosphatidyl glycerol immunoassays and
lamellar body density procedures

248
Q

Can also be detected after 35 weeks’ gestation. It is another lung surface lipid

A

Phosphatidyl Glycerol

249
Q

These are densely packed layers of phospholipids that represent a storage form of pulmonary surfactant

A

Lamellar bodies

250
Q

Lamellar bodies are secreted by the type II pneumocytes of the fetal lung at what week?

A

24 weeks of gestation

251
Q

Lamellar bodies enters the amniotic fluid at what week

A

26 weeks of gestation

252
Q

How many g of feces is excreted in a 24 hour period

A

Approx. 100-200g

253
Q

Digestion of ingested proteins, carbohydrates, and
fats takes place throughout the

A

Alimentary tract

254
Q

Primary site for final breakdown and reabsorption of digested and ingested proteins

A

Small Intestine

255
Q

More than 3000mL of water in the large intestine will cause

A

Diarrhea

256
Q

An increase in daily stool weight above 200g

A

Diarrhea

257
Q

Caused by poor absorption that exerts osmotic pressure across the intestinal mucosa

A

Osmotic diarrhea

258
Q

Also known as impaired food digestion

A

Maldigestion

259
Q

Impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine

A

Malabsorption

260
Q

Determine the appearance/color of the stool with the ff possible cause:
Upper GI bleeding
Iron therapy
Charcoal
Bismuth (antacids)

A

Black

261
Q

Determine the appearance/color of the stool with the ff possible cause:
Lower GI bleeding
Beets and food coloring
Rifampin

A

Red

262
Q

Determine the appearance/color of the stool with the ff possible cause:
Bile-duct obstruction
Barium sulfate

A

Pale yellow,
white, gray

263
Q

Determine the appearance/color of the stool with the ff possible cause:
Biliverdin/Oral antibiotics

A

Green

264
Q

Determine the appearance/color of the stool with the ff possible cause:
Bile-duct obstruction
Pancreatic disorders

A

Bulky/frothy

265
Q

Determine the appearance/color of the stool with the ff possible cause:
Intestinal constriction
Colitis
Dysentery
Malignancy
Constipation

A

Ribbon-like mucus or blood streaked mucus

266
Q

Microscopic count of neutrophils in smear stained with
methylene blue, Gram stain, or Wright’s stain

A

Examination for neutrophils

267
Q

Microscopic examination of direct smear stained with
Sudan III

A

Qualitative fecal fats

268
Q

Microscopic examination of smear heated with acetic
acid and Sudan III

A

Qualitative fecal fats

269
Q

Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin liberates oxygen from hydrogen peroxide to oxidize guaiac reagent

A

gFOBT

270
Q

Uses polyclonal anti-human antibodies specific for the
globin portion of human hemoglobin

A

iFOBT

271
Q

Addition of sodium hydroxide to hemoglobin-containing
emulsion determines presence of maternal or fetal blood

A

APT test

272
Q

Emulsified specimen placed on x-ray paper determines
ability to digest gelatin

A

Trypsin

273
Q

Immunoassay using an ELISA test

A

Elastase 1

274
Q
A