Chemistry exams Flashcards

1
Q

Identification of a patient can be obtained from the following except:

A. Verbal identification statement
B. Identification band
C. A relative, nurse, or attending physician
D. Patient on the same ward

A

D. Patient on the same ward

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1
Q

True about plasma except:
A. Liquid Portion of an anticoagulated blood
B. Requires centrifugation to be obtained but does not need to be allowed to clot
C. Does not contain Fibrinogen
D. Has a high water content

A

C. Does not contain fibrinogen
Consumption of fibrinogen is in serum. PLASMA DOES NOT CLOT THEREFORE FIBRINOGEN IS STILL PRESENT

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2
Q

Ideal for glucose determination
A. Serum sample from a plain tube
B. Serum obtained from a gel separator tube
C. Whole blood with fluoride

A

C. Whole blood with Fluoride

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3
Q

All are NOT true about tourniquet except:
A. Should be applied near the site of collection
B. Application is required for arterial puncture
C. Paper tourniquet may be reused
D. Blood pressure cuff must be inflated up to 40-60 mmHg

A

D. Blood pressure cuff must be inflated up to 40-60 mmHg
Not true except yung tanong thus tama yung TRUE yung D.

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4
Q

Reusable tourniquets have a high risk of transmitting:
A. Blood borne diseases
B. Skin penetrating parasites
C. Antibiotic resistant bacteria

A

C. Antibiotic resistant bacteria
Blood borne diseases - needle prick

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5
Q

Difference between a plastic and glass plain tube is that the former:
1. Contains clot activator
2. Requires 5x inversion
3. No clot activator
4. No inversion required

A

3 and 4

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6
Q

Basal state means

A

Fasting samples are collected early in the morning with no strenuous activities

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7
Q

To decrease the rate of glycolysis by the WBC, whole blood for glucose determination must be stored at?

A

Ref temp - Slows down degradation

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8
Q

Which of the following does NOT properly describe type 1 DM
A. absolute insulin deficiency
B. Associated with autoimmune destruction of pancreatic B-cells
C. Ketoacidosis prone
D. occurs more frequently in ADULTS

A

D. occurs more frequently in ADULTS
Type 1 DM is juvenile onset diabetes

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9
Q

Which glucose method catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose by adenosine triphosphate forming glucose-6-phosphate and adenosine diphosphate with the absorbance of the product read at 340nm

A

Hexokinase - ATP > G6P and ADP

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10
Q

Reference interval for fasting serum glucose in an adult expressed in SI unit

A

3.3-5.6 mmol/L

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11
Q

Glucose conversion factor

A

0.0555

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12
Q

Glucose unit measured using Hexokinase method
A. Alpha-D-Glucose
B. Beta-D-Glucose

A

Both A and B are correct

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13
Q

Which of the following is true about type II diabetes
1. Adult-onset diabetes mellitus
2. Can be caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
3. Insulin dependent type of diabetes mellitus
4. C-Peptide levels are detectable

A

1 and 4

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14
Q

A 68-yea-old obese woman visits her doctor reporting increased urination (especially at night), increased thirst, and increased appetite. Her glucose on examination was 210mg/dL (fasting) Which of the following statements best fits with the given information above?
A. Type 1 DM
B. Patients urine will show a positive glucose
C. Impaired fasting glucose
D. Decreased HBA1C

A

B and C
Renal glucose threshold is 160-180mg/dL
Impaired fasting glucose kasi borderline pa lang

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15
Q

What effect if any, would be expected when the secretion of epinephrine is stimulated by physical or emotional stress
A. Decrease blood glucose level
B. Increased blood glucose level
C. Increased glycogen storage
D. No effect

A

B. Increased glucose level
Epinephrine will trigger the release of cortisol, cortisol makes glucose higher

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16
Q

Cut off value for HDL cholesterol
A. 30mg/dL
B. 40mg/dL
C. 50 mg/dL
D. 60 mg/dL

A

B. 40mg/dL - desirable
Mas maganda mas mataas HDL

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17
Q

A patient sample is assayed for fasting TAG and a TAG value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions?
A. CHD
B. Diabetes
C. Pancreatitis

A

C. Pancreatitis
TAG value of over 500 mg/dL is associated with liver and pancreas problem

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18
Q

Which of the following would be expected to be falsely elevated on a serum specimen from a non-fasting patient
A. Cholesterol
B. TAG
C. HDL
D. LDL

A

TAG

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19
Q

Pre-mature atherosclerosis can occur when which of the following becomes elevated
A. Chylomicrons
B. VLDL
C. LDL
D. HDL

A

C. LDL

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20
Q

When electrophoresed, migration of lipoprotein starting from anode will be?

A

HDL - VLDL - LDL - Chylomicrons

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21
Q

Turbid serum sample caused by VLDL after overnight would have?

A

Turbid supernatant without creamy layer on top

Clear supernatant with creamy layer on top = chylomicrons
Turbid supernatant with creamy layer on top = Chylomicrons and VLDL

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22
Q

Level of cholesterol considered as borderline high and treatment should start

A

200-239 mg/dL

<200mg/dL = Normal
>240 mg/dL = High

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23
Q

VLDL
a. Obstructive jaundice
b. Floating beta-lipoprotein

A

B. Floating beta-lipoprotein

LPx - Obstructive jaundice
LP(a) - Sinking pre-beta

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24
Q

Proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids are the three major biochemical compounds of human metabolism. What is the element that distinguish proteins from carbohydrate and lipid compounds?

A

Nitrogen

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25
Q

Negative acute phase reactant

A

Albumin

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26
Q

Marker for wilson’s disease

A

Ceruloplasmin

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27
Q

Basis for the kjedahl technique for determination of serum total protein?

A

Quantification of the nitrogen content of protein

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28
Q

Which of the following protein fraction has the greatest concentration in the serum of healthy individuals
A. Alpha-globulin
B. Beta-Globulin
C. Gamma-Globulin
D. Albumin

A

D. Albumin

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29
Q

In inflammation there would be a spike on what region?
A. Alpha 1
B. Alpha 2
C. Beta
D. AOTA

A

D. All of the above

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30
Q

Alpha1- globulin flat curve

A

Juvenile cirrhosis

31
Q

Alpha2-globulin band spike

A

Nephrotic syndrome

32
Q

Beta-gamma bridging

A

Hepatic cirrhosis

33
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy (gamma spike)

A

Multiple myeloma

34
Q

Polyclonal gammopathy

A

RA and malignancy

35
Q

Small spike in beta-region

A

IDA

36
Q

Major end product of protein and amino acid catabolism
A. Uric acid
B. Urea
C. Amino Acid
D. Ammonia

A

B. Urea

Uric acid - end product of purine
Ammonia - Amino acid

37
Q

In the ultraviolet procedure for quantifying uric acid, what does the reaction between uric acid and uricase cause

A

Reduction of phosphotungstic acid

38
Q

Which total protein method requires copper sulfate, potassium iodide in sodium hydroxide, and potassium sodium tartrate in its reagent system?

A

Biuret

39
Q

Inulin clearance can be used for the assessment of glomerular filtration capacity because inulin is

A

Filtered by the glomerulus but not reabsorbed in the tubules

40
Q

Total protein determination
I. Biuret
II. Jaffe method
III. Micro-kjedahl nessler
IV. Hexokinase

A

I and III

Jaffe is for crea
Hexokinase is for glucose

41
Q

Multiple myeloma
I. Tall and curved gamma globulin
II. Tall and spiked gamma globulin
III. Polyclonal Peak
IV. Monoclonal peak

A

II and IV

42
Q

Preferred dye for CSF electrophoresis

A

Coomasie Brilliant blue

43
Q

Decreased alpha-fetoprotein
I. Spina bifida
II. Liver carcinoma
III. Neural tube defects
IV. Down syndrome

A

IV

44
Q

Almost 90% excreted in the urine

A

Urea and creatinine

45
Q

SI unit that is utilized for volume

A

Liter

46
Q

Water that has been purified to remove almost all organic materials by being boiled and vaporized and collected after condensation

A

Distilled water

47
Q

Acceptable for analysis or reagent preparation
A. Distilled water
B. Autoclave water

A

A is correct

Autoclave is for washing of glassware

48
Q

It is the no. of units that can combine with or replace 1 mole of hydrogen ions for acids, hydroxyl ions for bases and the number of electrons exchanged in oxidation reduction reactions.

A

Valence

49
Q

In diluting solutions, what happens to the volume and the concentration

A

Volume increases and concentration decreases

50
Q

What is the dilution factor of a 6mL serum diluted to 10mL of distilled water

A

dilution = 3:8
Ratio = 3:5

Ratio = Amt of solute/ amt of solvent
Dilution = amt of solute / total amt of solute/solvent

51
Q

Glassware used for making optical reflectors and for analytical works that require high precision

A

High silica glass

52
Q

Glass with high thermal resistance used for hot plates

A

Glass ceramics

53
Q

True about TC pipettes

A

Hold a particular volume but does not dispense that exact volume

Calibrated using distilled and dispense the indicated volume = To deliver pipette
TD(istilled water)
TC(merCury)
Rate of delivery must never be hastened by blowing - self draining

54
Q

Etched rings near the mouth of pipette

A

Blow out pipette
Oswald-folin and serological pipette

55
Q

Mohr pipette differs from serological pipette because the latter

A

Has calibration to the tips and is a blowout pipette

56
Q

_____ chemicals have additional purification purification steps for use in specific procedures such as chromatography immunoassays, molecular diagnostics, standardization

A

Ultrapure

57
Q

Derived from human blood and resembles patient sample

A

Control solution
Utilized for precision

58
Q

Colorless solution, utilized for accuracy

A

Standard solution

59
Q

Reagent blank and water blank

A

To set the spectrophotometer to zero

60
Q

Relationship of energy and wavelength

A

Is described by the Planck’s formula and is inversely propotional

61
Q

The relationship with frequency and energy

A

is directly proportional

62
Q

Type of spectrophotometer that uses two photodetectors

A

Double-beam in space spectrophotometer

63
Q

AAS is based on the measurement of?

A

Light absorbed at wavelength of resonance line by unexcited atom

Light given by excited atoms - FES

64
Q

Beer’s law

A

Absorbance is directly proportional to the concentration

Transmittance is inversely proportional to the concentration

65
Q

Type of monochromator that can be rotate, allowing only the desired wavelength to pass through an exit slit

A

Prisms - Siya lang ang pwede irotate

Diffraction gratings - may groups para maisolate yung desired wavelength

66
Q

It is used for compounds that are naturally volatile or can easily converted into a volatile form

A

Gas chromatography

Like dissolves like
GC/MS - Confirmatory for drugs of abuse

67
Q

Which of the following statements best describes discrete analysis

A

Each sample-reagent mixture is handled separately in its own reaction vessel

Carryover is downside for continuous
Discrete - only model with random access
Flow analyzer- batch analysis

68
Q

Design of an automated analyzer which performs one test for multiple specimens

A

Batch analyzer

Parallel = multiple test, one patient
Sequential = Multiple process, 1 sample

69
Q

Purpose of air bubbles in continuous flow analyzers, except?

A

Induce cross contamination between samples

70
Q

Measurement of light scattered by a particulate ssolution

A

Nephelometry

Turbidimetry - Light blocked

71
Q

Alcohol ingestion

A

Decrease blood glucose and increase blood uric acid

72
Q

Plastic tube with red stopper

A

Inverted 5x and Non-additive

Pag glass no need for invertion

73
Q

Blood samples should not be obtained from

A

Over/under fasting patients
Unidentified patients
Sleeping patients

74
Q

Differences in the value of certain analytes during the day and night is due to

A

Diurnal variation

75
Q

The ability of a method to measure only the analyte of interest without the interference of some other substance present in the same sample

A

Specificity

76
Q

Tangier’s Disease

A

Familial hypo-a-lipoproteinemia