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Finals > Opthamology > Flashcards

Opthamology Flashcards

1
Q

Define anisometropia

A

Difference in visual acuity between two eyes

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2
Q

Define papillitis

A

Inflammation of the optic nerve

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3
Q

Define amblyopia

A

defect of central vision processing

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4
Q

How should a history be conducted for eye problems?

A

Double vision
Discharge
Pain
Redness
Flashers and floaters
Distortion
Photophobia

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5
Q

What are the stages of an eye exam?

A

Acuity
Fields
RAPD
Ophthalmology
H-test

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6
Q

When should a pinhole be used for visual acuity testing?

A

If vision is <6/6

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7
Q

What are the values of a snellen chart?

A

6m/60 line

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8
Q

What medication is used to dilate the eye?

A

Tropicaimide

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9
Q

What should always be ruled out when there is sudden vision loss or blurring?

A

Temporal arteritis

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10
Q

What simple iris abnormalities are there?

A

Sectoral iris heterochromia

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11
Q

What is normal IOP?

A

12 - 21 mmHg

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12
Q

What are some key features of acute closed angle glaucoma?

A

IOP >30
large pupil, hazy vision
either after eye drops for dilating or being in a dark room, canal of schlemm
Tx - urgent referral to eye treatment centre
Lie flat, beta blocker, alpha agonist, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
More common is Asian
Not so much photophobia

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13
Q

What glaucoma medications increase uveoscleral outflow?

A

Prostaglandin
Timolol

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14
Q

What are some associations with anterior uveitis?

A

Ankolosing spondylitis
Behcets
Sarcoidosis

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15
Q

What are the features of anterior uveitis?

A

Photophobia
Small pupil
Blurred vision
Pain
Posterior synchenia
Limbal injection
TX - cycoplegics and corticosteroids

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16
Q

What changes are seen in orbital cellulitis?

A

May have proptosis, painful eye movements, loss of VA, loss of colour vision, may have RAPD

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17
Q

How is thyroid eye disease mananged?

A

Treat thyroid dysfunction
In severe cases may need decompression

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18
Q

How can you distinguish between episcleritis and scleritis?

A

Use 10% phenylephrine and if episcleral vessels move then likely episcleritis.

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19
Q

How is episcleritis treated?

A

NSAIDs

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20
Q

What is episcleritis linked with disease wise?

A

SLE, connective tissue disorder

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21
Q

How are corneal ulcers and keratitis managed?

A

Urgent eye clinic referral

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22
Q

How is bacterial conjunctivitis managed?

A

Can be one eye
Use chloramphenicol

23
Q

How is allergic conjunctivitis treated?

A

Olopatadine
Azelastine

24
Q

What is pinguecula and pterygium?

A
25
Q

What is the most common cause of arteritic AION?

A

GCA

26
Q

What are the symptoms of GCA?

A

Jaw claudication,, malaise, jaw/ tongue claudication, chewing pain, tender scalp

27
Q

What is associated with central retinal artery occlusion?

A

Look for signs of atherosclerosis, atrial fibrillation, heart valve disease, diabetes, smoking and lipids.
Pale retina and cherry red spot

28
Q

How is CRAO treated?

A

If seen within 100 minutes of onset, attempt to increase retinal blood flow either by occular massage or by reducing intraocular hypertension. There is no universally accepted treatment

29
Q

What are some features of diabetic retinopathy?

A
30
Q

How is CRVO tested?

A

Flourescein fundus angiography

31
Q

T or F, glaucoma is responsible for 10% of all blind registrations?

A

True

32
Q

How does glaucoma affect vision?

A

Reduces peripheral vision

33
Q

What are the risk factors for POAG?

A

Afro-carribean
Family history
Age
Diabetes

34
Q

How does the NHS manage patients with a family history of glaucoma?

A

Eye tests every 2 years over the age of 40 with a family history

35
Q

What are the treatments for POAG?

A

Beta blocker
Alpha agonists
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Prostaglandin analogues

36
Q

How does prostaglandin differ from the other treatments for glaucoma?

A

Prostaglandin increases uveoscleral outflow

37
Q

Which gluacoma medication is avoided in pregnancy?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

38
Q

What is a cost effective treatment for POAG?

A

Trabeculoplasty

39
Q

What is normal IOP and cup to disc ratio?

A

12-21

0.4-0.7

40
Q

What is the leading cause of blindness worldwide?

A

Cataracts

41
Q

What are some risk factors for cataracts?

A

Smoking
Alcohol
UV light
Trauma
Radiotherapy
Myotonic dystrophyv in younger patients

42
Q

T or F, cataracts can affect the red reflex?

A

Mature cataracts can affect the red reflex

43
Q

What are the types of cataracts?

A
44
Q

What is the most common sign of cataracts?

A

Seeing haloes/ dazzling effect around street lights

45
Q

What are the complications of cataracts surgery?

A

Astigmatism
Posterior capsule opacification
Endopthalmitis

46
Q

What protection or prophylaxis is there against catarcts?

A

Stop smoking, use sunglasses and reduce oxidative stress

47
Q

What can be done to assist with posterior capsule opacification

A

YAG capsulotomy

48
Q

What is the macula?

A

An area 5.5mm across from the optic disc. It contains the fovea centralis which is very high in cones

49
Q

T or F, ARMD is the leading cause of blindness in the developed world of those over 50?

A

T

50
Q

What are some risk factors for ARMD?

A

Deficiency in omega 3 and 6, carotoneoids, and minerals, a lack of exercise, increasing age, family history and smoking

51
Q

What tests can be done to identify macular degeneration?

A

OTC scan
Flourescein fundus angiography
Opthalmoscopy

52
Q

What are the types of retinal detachment?

A
53
Q

What are the features of retinal detachment?

A

Floaters, flashers, field loss, fall in vision

54
Q

List treatments for retinal detachment

A

Laser surgery: Laser beam is used to burn the retinal tear that further welds into underlying tissue.

Freezing (Cryopexy): Freezing probe is directly applied over the tear causing a scar that helps retina secure to the eye wall.

Pneumatic retinopexy: In the case of small tear, a tiny gas bubble is inserted into the vitreous that will seal the tear.

Scleral buckle: A silicon band is sewed around the white of eye. This pushes it towards the tear until it heals.

Vitrectomy: It is required in case of large tears where vitreous is removed and replaced with saline solution.

Finals (24 decks)

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