Domain IV: Foodservice Systems: Procurement, Production, Distribution, Service Flashcards

1
Q

____ is the first functional subsystem; the function of acquiring material for production (purchase, receive, storage, inventory control)

A

Procurement

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2
Q

A ____ center is assigned both expense and revenue responsibilities (ex: cafeteria)

A

Profit

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3
Q

A _____ center manages expenses, but does not generate profit (patient)

A

Cost

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4
Q

An informal, ____ market is used when a small amount of food is needed quickly

A

Open

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5
Q

A buyer requests _____ on specific items for specific amounts and quantities from one or more sources of supply; contact made by phone or with a vendor

A

Quotes

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6
Q

An order is placed after considering…

A

-Price
-Quality
-Delivery

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7
Q

In formal, competitive ____ ____, someone provides written specifications and quantity needs to vendors who then submit a price

A

Bid buying

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8
Q

____ are opened together; place order with the lowest bid (lowest price)

A

Bids

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9
Q

With _____ contracts, you purchase goods at a specific price to be shipped later

A

Future

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10
Q

_____ vending uses a single vendor for the majority of purchases; saves time and money

A

Prime

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11
Q

With _____ purchasing, personnel in one office does all purchasing for all units in that organization; this is cost-effective and time-saving

A

Centralized

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12
Q

Group or co-op purchasing involves a ____ or separate units who are not related to a single management, for joint purchasing

A

Union

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13
Q

There is an economic advantage of group purchasing due to large _____ discounts

A

Volume

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14
Q

___-___-___ purchasing is when a food service system purchases products as needed for production and immediate consumption by customers, without having to store and record them in inventory; receiving clerks take items immediately to the area in which they will be used

A

Just-in-time

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15
Q

The purchasing _____ is the first document used in the purchasing process; it is an internal form used to request items from the purchasing manager

A

Requisition

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16
Q

The purchasing ____ is completed by the buyer; it is a written record of items ordered and quantities needed

A

Order

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17
Q

_____ purchasing orders eliminate the need to call in dairy or weekly orders (used for everyday things like milk and bread)

A

Standing

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18
Q

____-____-____ products are delivered with all transport charges paid

A

Free-on-board

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19
Q

With free-on-board ____, the buyer takes ownership of the products at the seller’s location

A

Origin

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20
Q

A written ____ is an accurate word, picture, or definition of a product

A

Specification

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21
Q

Product specifications are precise statements of quality (brief, complete, simple); they include…

A

-Name
-Form
-Quantity
-Quality
-Size
-Grade
-Brand
-Style
-Sieve size

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22
Q

_____ specifications indicate the quality of a product by objective and impartial test results (graded food items, gauge of metal)

A

Technical

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23
Q

A ____-____ allows a buyer to open cans for comparison among brands

A

Can-cutting

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24
Q

Approved brand specifications indicate ____ by specifying brand names

A

Quality

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25
Q

_____ specifications indicate quality by functioning characteristics of the product (Ex: how many dishes washed/minute)

A

Performance

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26
Q

A ____ has descriptions of all approved products that an organization (or a department) would like all personnel (who need such a product) to use; volume discounts can be used, standardizes usage

A

Formulary

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27
Q

Evaluate vendor _____ (price, quality, service) after several orders have been filled

A

Performance

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28
Q

What are examples of value-added services?

A

-Chopped lettuce vs heads of lettuce
-Coffee-making equipment with the purchase of coffee products

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29
Q

A buyer’s ___ ___ ____ can serve as a legal agent for the organization (first, consider the interest of your company)

A

Code of Ethics

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30
Q

Buy without _____ and obtain maximum value for each dollar spent

A

Prejudice

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31
Q

____ bribery and kickbacks from sellers; respect your obligations

A

Denounce

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32
Q

Avoid ____ with vendors; decline gifts and favors that could compromise your ability to make objective purchasing decisions

A

Collusion

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33
Q

A food ____ does not own products, but they connect buyers with sellers and make deals

A

Broker

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34
Q

What are examples of food service management systems?

A

-Computrition
-CBORD
-Dietary Manager
-ChefMax

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35
Q

Procurement decisions are determined by ____

A

Needs

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36
Q

The amount of food to order is based on…

A

-Number to be served
-Portion sizes
-Amount of waste

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37
Q

When determining how many servings can be obtained from an uncooked item, consider the ____ ____ in preparation

A

Percent lost

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38
Q

____ ____ ____ is a quantitative approach to ordering staple or regularly stocked items

A

Economic order quantity

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39
Q

Economic order quantity attempts to find the quantity that minimizes both ____ and ____ costs (determines the order size that is most economical)

A

Purchasing and inventory

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40
Q

The total annual cost of restocking an inventory depends don’t he number of times it is ____ each year

A

Ordered

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41
Q

To decrease costs, place orders as ____ as possible by ordering large quantities

A

Seldom

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42
Q

When the cost of ____ an order aligns with the cost of ____ the items, economic order quantity is obtained

A

Placing; holding

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43
Q

A ____ _____ is a short-term forecast; it is an assumption that needs to follow an identifiable pattern over time

A

Time series

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44
Q

A ____ average uniformly weighs past observations (numbers are weighted equally)

A

Moving

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45
Q

____ ____ uses software to forcast usage; it gives more recent values more weight; does not uniformly weigh past observations

A

Exponential smoothing

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46
Q

____ models follow the assumption that a relationship exists between the item being forecast and other factors such as selling price and number of customers

A

Casual

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47
Q

Medium- and long-term forecasts are _____ to develop

A

Expensive

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48
Q

One example of a medium/long-term forecast is ____ ______ forecasting; based on the assumption that relationships between variables will continue over time

A

Regression analysis

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49
Q

A _____ model of forecasting is used when relevant data are scarce or when the relationship between data do not tend to persist over time (must rely on opinion)

A

Subjective

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50
Q

The ____ technique is an example of subjective forecasting; relies on expert opinions (market research, panel consensus)

A

Delphi

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51
Q

The ____ ____ is the first control in the receiving process

A

Purchase order

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52
Q

The receiving area is close to ___ docks with easy access to storage

A

Loading

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53
Q

An _____ is a vendor’s delivery slip that accompanies the order

A

Invoice

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54
Q

The invoice is the supplier’s statement of…

A

-Items being shipped
-Unit price
-Total expected payment

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55
Q

First, compare the invoice against the ____ ___

A

Purchase order

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56
Q

Next, compare the invoice against the ____

A

Items

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57
Q

____ items upon delivery, list on receiving report, and then store property

A

Inspect

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58
Q

In the ___ ____ receiving method, give the clerk a blind invoice or purchase order listing incoming merchandise but omitting quantities and weights; the receiving clerk inserts these numbers into the order on the basis of a check of the delivery (this forces the clerk to make serious checks of the delivery

A

Blind check

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59
Q

Downsides of using the blind check receiving method:

A

-Takes longer
-Costs more in labor

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60
Q

A daily ____ ____ lists the items received, date, number of units, unit price, supplier, and PO number

A

Receiving report

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61
Q

Use a _____ invoice when an order arrives without an invoice

A

Substitution

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62
Q

A request for ____ lists discrepancies such as shortages

A

Credit

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63
Q

The person who purchased the items should not be the one to ____ them

A

Receive

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64
Q

Schedule hours for ____; avoid busiest production times, and avoid too many deliveries arriving at the right time

A

Receiving

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65
Q

If there is any indication that frozen fish has been allowed to _____, reject it

A

Thaw

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66
Q

The amount of ____ in a facility depends on the frequency of deliveries, the market form of food purchased (raw, prepared, partially prepared), the extent of the menu

A

Storage

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67
Q

Store items at the point of first use; store heavier items ____ and lighter items ____

A

Lower, higher

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68
Q

____ storage should be dry, cool, dark, well-ventilated, and clean

A

Dry

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69
Q

There should be a separate room for dry food products and ____ supplies

A

Cleaning

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70
Q

The temperature of dry storage rooms should be between ____-____ degrees F

A

50-70

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71
Q

Storage areas should be well _____, meaning that there is good circulation of air that removes moisture and odors

A

Ventilated

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72
Q

Cartons and bags should be stored on shelves at least ____ inches above the floor and away from walls

A

6

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73
Q

Humidity is measured with a ____; should read between 50-60% in dry storage

A

Hygrometer

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74
Q

Fresh fruits and vegetables require the highest humidity of ___-___%

A

85-90

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75
Q

All potentially hazardous foods should be stored under ____ degrees F in the fridge

A

41

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76
Q

Fresh fruits and vegetables can be stored at temperatures between ____-____ degrees F

A

40-45

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77
Q

Meat, dairy, and eggs must be stored at temperatures between ____-____ degrees F

A

32-40

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78
Q

Frozen foods should bet stored between ____-____ degrees F

A

0-10

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79
Q

Fresh eggs in the shell can be safely stored in the fridge for ____-____ weeks

A

3-5

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80
Q

Raw egg yolks and/or whites can be stored safely in the fridge for ___-___ days

A

2-4

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81
Q

Fresh poultry, ground meat, fresh fish, and shellfish can be safely stored in the fridge or ___-__ days

A

1-2

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82
Q

Steaks, chops, and roasts can be stored safely in the fridge for ___-___ days

A

3-5

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83
Q

_____ decreases if employees know management is watching

A

Theft

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84
Q

Employees should have to sign in and out when taking items from the ____

A

Storeroom

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85
Q

Theft is ____ burglary without force

A

Premeditated

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86
Q

_____ is burglary with force

A

Robbery

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87
Q

_____ is inventory shrinkage caused by employees stealing food

A

Pilferage

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88
Q

Inventory management tells you ____ and ___ ___ to order

A

When, how much

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89
Q

____ inventory management is a running record or balance on hand

A

Perpetual

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90
Q

With perpetual inventory management, inventory is updated each time an item is ____ in or ____ from storage

A

Placed; taken

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91
Q

Perpetual inventory management is used in large operations that keep large quantities of product in ____; generally restricted to dry and frozen storage

A

Stock

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92
Q

Products such as bread, produce, and milk are not on inventory and are considered ____ ____

A

Direct issues

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93
Q

____ inventory management is an actual count of all goods on hand at the end of accounting period

A

Physical

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94
Q

Physical inventory is counted as an _____ on balance sheet

A

Asset

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95
Q

The ____ ____ method is when stock is bought up to par level each time an order is placed regardless of the amount on hand (ex: if par is 10 and you have 8, order 2)

A

Par stock

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96
Q

A fixed order quantity inventory system determines the ___ ___ (when you must reorder the item)

A

Order point

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97
Q

How to calculate the order point:

A

(average daily use x lead time) + safety stock

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98
Q

The ____ ____ is the number of days from placing the order until delivery

A

Lead time

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99
Q

____ ____ is the small backup supply to ensure against sudden increases in use

A

Safety stock

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100
Q

___ ___, ____ ____stock rotation is the process of rearranging merchandise so that the older containers are in the front and are issued first; takes extra work but pays off by eliminating the problem of stale merchandise

A

First in, first out

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101
Q

The ___-___ method of storing products is where stock is allowed to deplete to safety level before new order is placed; establish minimum and maximum amounts to have on hand (order goods when minimum is reached and only in amounts needed to reach the maximum level; the amount of item ordered will be the same each time it is ordered)

A

Mini-max

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102
Q

The ____ inventory classification system is based on the fact that small amounts of product account for a major portion of inventory value

A

ABC

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103
Q

With the ABC inventory classification system, the relative importance of each inventory item is measured by how much the total value of purchases is for that item each ____ (this is the activity level)

A

Year

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104
Q

The ABC method indicates that <20% of the total number of items in stock constitute 75-80% of the total annual value of purchases (____ items; vital and high value); 50-60% of inventory items comprise only 5-10% of the value (____ items; trivial, low value)

A

A; C

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105
Q

Items between the A and C range are in the ___ class (moderate, medium value)

A

B

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106
Q

Tightest inventory controls are needed for A items, which are the most ____ (often proteins)

A

Expensive

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107
Q

The ____ purchase price is based on the true price for the items; count products; add value of all products on hand

A

Actual

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108
Q

____ average purchase price is time-consuming to determine; based on the average price paid for products over time

A

Weighted

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109
Q

To determine the weighted average purchase price, multiply the number of units of each product in opening inventory and those ____ during the month by the purchase price; add these prices and divide by the total number of units

A

Purchased

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110
Q

FIFO is based on the ____ price paid, multiplied by the number of units in inventory

A

Last

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111
Q

FIFO uses the most ____ prices, so tends to price inventory high

A

Recent

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112
Q

Last in, first out uses the ____ price paid for an item in inventory; usually underestimates the value of the current inventory; current purchases are largely made to meet current production demands

A

Oldest

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113
Q

You could also use the ____ purchase price to determine the value of the inventory; this is simple and fast

A

Last

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114
Q

____ procedures are removed on written orders only (storeroom requisition or issue sheet); should be locked and well organized; one person in control

A

Issuing

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115
Q

Benefits of a central ingredient room:

A

-Quality control measure
-Assure storage, inventory, and production control
-Saves food costs

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116
Q

Inventory technology is the use of ___ ____ to identify products; includes a 5-digit manufacturing ID number and a 5-digit product number

A

Bar Codes

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117
Q

_____ systems are mixtures of solids, liquids, and gases

A

Dispersion

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118
Q

An example of gas in a liquid is…

A

Whipped egg whites (foam)

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119
Q

An example of gas in a solid is…

A

Sponge cake (suspension)

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120
Q

An example of a liquid in a liquid is…

A

Mayonnaise (emulsion)

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121
Q

An example of a solid in a liquid is…

A

Gravy (sol)

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122
Q

An example of a liquid in a solid is…

A

Custard (gel)

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123
Q

Small particles dispersed (salt, sugar) make a ____ ____

A

True solution

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124
Q

Large particles (protein, cooked starch) dispersed makes a ____ ____

A

Colloidal dispersion

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125
Q

Clumps of molecules like ____ or ____ ____ create a suspension that separates upon standing

A

Fat; uncooked starch

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126
Q

What can you do in order to change the degree of dispersion?

A

-Apply heat
-Beat

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127
Q

An _____ is a line that forms between two immiscible liquids (oil and water)

A

Interface

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128
Q

Most vegetables are slightly ____ with a relatively high pH

A

Alkaline

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129
Q

Acid is needed to process vegetables at a temperature higher than 212 degrees F in order to destroy ____

A

Botulism

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130
Q

Pressure cookers can be used to can low-acid vegetables because they reach temperatures higher than ____

A

212 degrees F

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131
Q

____ are sometimes pickled with vinegar (acetic acid) which lowers the pH, and can no be canned in a boiling water bath

A

Beets

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132
Q

Acid causes the loss of ____ when green vegetables are overcooked or canned

A

Color

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133
Q

How does acid cause the loss of color in green vegetables?

A

-Heat disrupts cells and releases organic acids
-H ions from the acid come into contact with the magnesium in the chlorophyll
-Magnesium is removed; molecule becomes pheophytin which is brown or olive color

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134
Q

To prevent the loss of color in green vegetables…

A

-Cook for short periods of time
-Leave lid off for the first few minutes of cooking to allow escape of volatile acids

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135
Q

When baking soda (alkaline) is added to green vegetables, there will be an intense green color due to ____

A

Chlorophyllin

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136
Q

While alkaline substances enhance the color of green vegetables, they make the texture ____ and cause the loss of ___-soluble vitamins

A

Mushy; water

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137
Q

Cream of tartar (acid) in angel food cake has many functions such as…

A

-Maintains white color by preventing the Maillard browning reaction
-Contributes to large volume by stabilizing egg-white foam
-Contributes to tender crumb

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138
Q

Without cream of tartar in an angel food cake, the cake would be…

A

-Tough
-Yellow
-Small

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139
Q

_____ act as catalysts to facilitate chemical reactions

A

Enzymes

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140
Q

Enzymes may remain ____ after a cell dies; must be controlled

A

Active

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141
Q

All enzymes are _____, so their activity is affected by temperature and pH

A

Proteins

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142
Q

Enzymes play a role in the ripening of fruits; they covert ____ to ____ and soften the fruit

A

Starch to sugar

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143
Q

Enzymatic ____ causes browning of cut surfaces of fruit; you can use acid to slow this process; acid will lower the pH and inhibit enzymatic activity to prevent oxidation

A

Oxidation

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144
Q

You should ____ vegetables before freezing to destroy enzymes (boiling water quickly, then cold water)

A

Blanch

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145
Q

Non-enzymatic browning is caused by the ____ reaction

A

Maillard

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146
Q

The initial step of the Maillard reaction is the combination of a ____ ____ (all simple sugars except sucrose) and an ___ ___

A

Reducing sugar and amino acid

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147
Q

The Maillard reaction mostly occurs in an _____ environment; baking soda and solid sugar will result in deep brown colors (not baking powder)

A

Alkaline

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148
Q

For more rapid browning, increase the ____ (6 or higher) or increase the _____

A

pH or temperature

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149
Q

With _____ cooking, heat moves from one particle to another by contact

A

Conduction

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150
Q

Examples of good conductors:

A

-Copper
-Black cast iron
-Aluminum

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151
Q

Examples of poor conductors:

A

-Glass
-Stainless steel

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152
Q

An example of conduction is meat kept warm on a dish sitting on ____ pellet

A

Heated

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153
Q

_____ is a cooking method where heated air is moved with a fan

A

Convection

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154
Q

Convection cooks by the transfer of heat by the circulation of hot air or liquid resulting from the change in _____ when heated; as the less dense, hot substance rises, it pushes aside the more dense, cooler material; the cooler portion sinks to the bottom, where it comes into contact with the metal of the pan or heating element

A

Density

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155
Q

_____ is the use of electric magnetic vibrations to excite the molecules of metal cooking surface

A

Induction

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156
Q

An induction burner has no ____ ____, and the burner surface does not get hot

A

Open flame

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157
Q

With induction, the pan itself is the original generator of the cooking heat, transferred to food by _____

A

Conduction

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158
Q

Induction cooking is ____-based

A

Iron

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159
Q

Benefits of induction cooking:

A

-Faster heat
-No wasted heat

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160
Q

_____ is caused by infrared waves coming from glowing heat (gas flame, charcoal, electrical element, toasting, broiling)

A

Radiation

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161
Q

One example of radiation is a ____, which causes kinetic action (friction) that cooks food

A

Microwave

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162
Q

A microwave affects only _____ molecules and penetrates two inches into food

A

Water

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163
Q

____ ____ is the subsequent distribution of heat by conduction when the magnetron is turned off

A

Standing time

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164
Q

In food service, a microwave is mainly used to heat ____ foods; on-demand feeding

A

Prepared

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165
Q

Disadvantages of microwave cooking:

A

-Uneven heat
-Lack of browning in foods cooked for a short time
-Simmer or stew to tenderize is not possible
-Limited to small amounts
-Should not be used to heat infant formula

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166
Q

Cooking steak on a grill, or meat braising in a steam-jacketed kettle use both ____ and ____ cooking methods

A

Conduction; radiation

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167
Q

_____ foods are composed of a variety of natural and/or synthetic ingredients texturized and modified to stimulate the appearance and taste of a particular product

A

Engineered

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168
Q

Advantages of engineered food:

A

-Consistent in year-round availability, taste, appearance, nutrient content
-Increases shelf life

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169
Q

Meat ____ are made up of isolated soy protein, along with vegetable protein, fat, carbohydrate, vitamins, minerals, flavor, and color (less fat than meat, about 50% protein, and no saturated fat)

A

Analogs

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170
Q

Seafood analogs are made up of ____ blended with fish; retains flavor and does not change greatly with heat, this reducing weight loss and shrinkage (economical)

A

Soy

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171
Q

What are examples of engineered vegetable blends?

A

-Incaparina (maize, sorghum, cottonseed flour)
-CSM (corn, soy, non-fat dry milk, vitamins, minerals)

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172
Q

Molds grown in warm (between ___-____ degrees F), damp, dark conditions

A

77-86

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173
Q

Mold grows best in ____ conditions or on neutral or sweet foods

A

Acidic

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174
Q

Mold is used in curing cheese and making soy sauce; it usually does not produce ____ substances

A

Harmful

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175
Q

Food can be ____ to destroy molds

A

Boiled

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176
Q

Yeasts grow best in temperatures between ___-____ degrees F

A

77-86

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177
Q

Yeast is used for ____-making

A

Bread

178
Q

Yeast produces bubbles of ____; can be destroyed by boiling

A

Gas

179
Q

Bacteria need abundant ____ and a neutral pH to grow best

A

Moisture

180
Q

Bacteria grows best in temperatures between ____-____ degrees F

A

68-113

181
Q

Some bacteria can grow at temperatures above 113 degrees F; these are _____ bacteria (may be aerobic or anaerobic)

A

Thermophilic

182
Q

Bacteria is destroyed by temperatures of _____ (145 degrees for 30 minutes)

A

Pasteurization

183
Q

The temperature danger zone for bacterial growth is between ____-____ degrees F

A

40-140

184
Q

FATTOM describes the ideal conditions for microorganism growth; it stands for:

A

-Food
-Acidity
-Temperature
-Time
-Oxygen
-Moisture

185
Q

Enzymes produce both ____ and ____ effects; they act at body temperature and are inactivated at boiling temperature

A

Desirable and undesirable

186
Q

Freezing foods at under ____ degrees is the least damaging to flavor and texture

A

0

187
Q

Freezing preserves…

A

-Quality
-Nutritive value
-Chemical and physical properties

188
Q

The growth of ____ is prevented by cold temperatures and lack of water when frozen

A

Microorganisms

189
Q

Adding ____ to foods being frozen causes loss of flavor and increases rancidity of any item containing fat

A

Salt

190
Q

The action of ____ is slow, but noticeable over time in frozen foods

A

Enzymes

191
Q

Commercially, quick-frozen meals have ____ crystals with a smooth feeling

A

Small

192
Q

_____ is a process that includes drying food to 50% of its weight and volume, and then freezing

A

Dehydrofreezing

193
Q

Thaw potentially hazardous foods in the ____, or submerge under running cold water at 70 degrees or lower

A

Fridge

194
Q

If frozen food is thawed in the microwave, it must be _____ immediately

A

Cooked

195
Q

____ freezing is freezing at very low temperatures (-238 degrees) using liquid nitrogen or carbon dioxide

A

Cryogenic

196
Q

Drying can be used to preserve because low ____ content prevents the growth of microorganisms

A

Moisture

197
Q

There needs to be an appropriate water level in ____ foods to ensure food safety and shelf life; microorganisms grow well at an AW of 0.91-0.99

A

Dehydrated

198
Q

The AW that limits growth is ___-___; the lower limit for all microorganisms is 0.6 AW

A

0.7-0.9

199
Q

Dehydrated fruits have ____% of water removed; dehydrated vegetables have ____% of water removed

A

80; 95

200
Q

Enzymes are inactivated by _____

A

Blanching

201
Q

In the process of ____, food is frozen first, and then water is evaporated without melting crystals

A

Sublimation

202
Q

The USDA’s _____ inspects canned product manufacturing

A

FSIS

203
Q

Canned foods last up to…

A

1 year

204
Q

Canning is done under high ____ for a short amount of time in order to preserve quality

A

Pressure

205
Q

Bacteria grow best in foods with a pH near ____; most foods have a pH of 7 or less

A

Neutrality

206
Q

High _____ foods support less bacteria growth

A

Acid

207
Q

____ is more readily destroyed by heat in acid

A

Botulism

208
Q

If pH is low (4.5 or under-> acid is high), use ____ ____ in the canning process (strawberries, apples, pickles)

A

Boiling water

209
Q

If pH is high (>4.5-> acid is low), use ____ ____ in the canning process (carrots, beets, peas)

A

Pressure cooker

210
Q

_____ compounds are additives used in canned foods used as humectants; they retain moisture, increase firmness, and tenderness

A

Calcium

211
Q

_____ canning is when food is sterilized outside the can, then placed in sterile cans which are sealed in a clean

A

Aseptic

212
Q

When pickling foods, the acidity level of the vinegar used must be at least ____%

A

5

213
Q

_____ spoilage may occur in canned foods due to an interaction between contents and an imperfect container

A

Chemical

214
Q

_____ is cold sterilization (the temperature of the food does not rise much even though large amounts of energy are used)

A

Irradiation

215
Q

Products that are irradiated are marked with the ____ symbol

A

Radura

216
Q

Irradiation is used to prevent ___-___ in meat; irradiate frozen

A

Off-flavors

217
Q

Irradiation is approved by the FDA for what products?

A

-Spices
-Beef
-Lamb
-Pork
-Poultry
-Wheat
-Potatoes

218
Q

Irradiation kills most harmful bacteria in foods other than ____

A

Milk

219
Q

_____, also known as high-pressure processing, extends shelf life (ex: guacamole)

A

Pascalization

220
Q

Chemical preservatives such as ____ and ____ are antioxidants for fatty products (used to preserve butter and meat)

A

BHA, BHT

221
Q

____ and ____ make water unavailable for bacterial growth

A

Sugar and salt

222
Q

A ____ ____ tells the food service operation what to do and when to do it

A

Production schedule

223
Q

A production schedule assures efficient use of employee ____ and minimal production problems; it assigns preparation to employees by hour of the day

A

Time

224
Q

____ recipes produce a known quantity of food in the desired quality

A

Standardized

225
Q

What is included in a standardized recipe?

A

-Name
-Ingredients
-Procedures
-Pan sizes
-Baking time
-Temperature
-Quantity and number of portions of specified size
-Standards of quality expected

226
Q

Standardized recipes must be ____ and ____ for use

A

Tested and adapted

227
Q

Quality control is obtained through…

A

-Employee evaluations
-Taste panels
-Customer reaction

228
Q

The problem with quality control is the lack of ____ measures

A

Objective

229
Q

_____ control is obtained through proper forecasting and controlling portion sizes

A

Quantity

230
Q

In order to maintain quantity control, servers should be aware of…

A

-Size of portion
-Dish
-Serving tool

231
Q

The scoop number indicates how many scoops it would take to get to a _____

A

Quart

232
Q

A quart contains ____ cups

A

4

233
Q

To determine the volume of a scoop, divide the scoop number by ____ to get the volume in cups (#8 scoop/4= 0.5 cups)

A

4

234
Q

To determine the amount of ounces in a scoop, divide the scoop number by ____

A

32

235
Q

A _____ process chart is used to schedule and control work

A

Gantt

236
Q

Gantt process charts are concerned with the ____ of production, not the cost

A

Time

237
Q

Rows on Gantt process charts are ____ to be completed

A

Tasks

238
Q

Horizontal bars of Gantt process charts indicate the ____ _____ to complete each task

A

Time frame

239
Q

The Program Evaluation and Review Technique and the Critical Path Method are evaluation tools used for effective ____ and control of the functions of management; network for decision-making

A

Planning

240
Q

The Program Evaluation and Review Technique and the Critical Path Method show relationships among ____ of a project

A

Phases

241
Q

The Program Evaluation and Review Technique and the Critical Path Method show what activities must await ____ of other tasks and which activities can be performed _____

A

Completion; concurrently

242
Q

The Program Evaluation and Review Technique and the Critical Path Method can calculate the total amount of ____ needed to complete a task; need sequencing requirements and an estimate of the time required for each activity

A

Time

243
Q

The critical path method (longest path through) determines the ____ time for completion (helps to determine labor costs); if any of these steps are delayed, the completion of the project will also be delayed

A

Minimum

244
Q

In _____ production systems, all preparation is done on the same premises where meals are served; foods are prepared and served on the same day (immediate service)

A

Conventional

245
Q

Advantages of conventional production systems:

A

-More adaptable to individual preferences
-Menu flexibility
-Low distribution costs
-Less freezer space needed

246
Q

Disadvantages of conventional production systems:

A

-Uneven stressful workday caused by peak meal period demands
-Productivity is lower as menus differ daily
-High labor costs
-Need all pre-preparation, cooking and serving equipment, skilled and unskilled labor

247
Q

With _____ delivery, trays are set up close to production under common supervision (tray line)

A

Centralized

248
Q

Centralized delivery requires…

A

-Heated/refrigerated carts
-Heated pellets
-Insulated trays

249
Q

The concern with centralized delivery is how ____ the tray can be delivered

A

Quickly

250
Q

_____ delivery services are used where the distance from the kitchen to the patient is great

A

Decentralized

251
Q

With decentralized delivery, ____ food is delivered; trays are set up in areas separate from production but close to the customer

A

Bulk

252
Q

Decentralized delivery requires _____ of equipment, employees, and supervisors

A

Duplication

253
Q

An ____ cart system uses built-in corridors (monorail); the decision to use this is made in the planning stage (blueprint) of kitchen design

A

Automated

254
Q

A _____, or satellite production, centralizes procurement and production; food production (kitchen) and service areas (patients) are in separate facilities

A

Commissary

255
Q

With a commissary production, menu items are in bulk or portioned, then frozen, chilled, or hot-held; carriers are filled at the commissary and delivered to the ____ units

A

Service

256
Q

Advantages of commissary production:

A

-Uniform quality of products for all units
-Economical (centralized, large volume purchasing, no duplicate personnel or equipment)

257
Q

With commissary production, equipment and personnel operate at a high _____ rate during the day with no idle periods; need highly skilled personnel

A

Efficiency

258
Q

With commissary production, large and sophisticated equipment is needed such as _____ trucks

A

Delivery

259
Q

Disadvantages of commissary production:

A

-Delivery and safety issues
-Had 9 critical control points

260
Q

Ready-prepared (cook-chill, cook freeze) items are not produced for ____ service, but for inventory and subsequent withdrawal

A

Immediate

261
Q

With ready-prepared production, foods are prepared on-site, and then frozen or chilled for later use; requires ____ ____ or ____ and adequate storage

A

Blast chiller or freezer

262
Q

A distinct feature of ready-prepared production is the separation between time of ____ and time of ____

A

Preparation; service

263
Q

With ready-prepared, foods may be held ___-___ days (blast chilling), up to ____ days (tumbled chilled), or up to ___-___ months (cook freeze)

A

1-4; 45; 3-4

264
Q

Bulk foods should be brought down to ____ degrees F in 90 minutes or less

A

37

265
Q

___ ____ is a process that seals raw, fresh food items in plastic pouches to allow chilled storage and then cooking in boiling water prior to service

A

Sous vide

266
Q

What are methods of rethermalization for ready-prepared foods?

A

-Microwaves
-Convection oven: food heated in bulk; reaches temperatures more rapidly
-Integral heat systems (converts electric energy to heat through carbon resistors fused to the bottom of dishes)
-Immersion technique (heat pouches of food in boiling water or steamers)

267
Q

Advantages of ready-prepared production:

A

-Offsets critical shortage of high-skilled employees
-Production schedule is more liberal
-Decreased job stress related to production deadlines
-Decreased labor costs
-Menu items on call

268
Q

Disadvantages of ready-prepared production:

A

-Cost of large cold storage, freezers, and space needed
-Need all pre-preparation, cooking, and service equipment

269
Q

____-___ production is total convenience, and requires minimal cooking

A

Assembly-serve

270
Q

With assembly-serve, an operation purchases completely ____ individual portions; finish by thawing, and heating on premises

A

Prepared

271
Q

With assembly-serve, there is no on-site ____ ____ (kitchen-less kitchen); reheat and assemble (may use sous vide)

A

Food production

272
Q

Advantages of assembly-serve:

A

-Only has 4 critical control points
-Curtails labor time by separating manufacture from distribution
-No skilled cooks or pre-preparation employees needed
-Equipment and space requirements are minimal
-Just need reheating and serving equipment

273
Q

Disadvantages of assembly-serve:

A

-Limited menu items
-Lower quality food
-Lower acceptability

274
Q

_____ cooking is a restaurant design where food is displayed and prepared in full view of the diner

A

Display

275
Q

A traditional cafeteria serves ___-___ people per minute

A

3-4

276
Q

Scramble, hollow square, and free-flow are separate counters used for hot foods and salads; serve a ____ number of people within a cafeteria and are used with “repeat” customers such as in an employee or school cafeteria

A

Greater

277
Q

If the scramble system is too slow, add ____ ____

A

Food stations

278
Q

A food bank is an electronic system containing precooked, frozen meals that are color-coded for the _____

A

Microwave

279
Q

To determine ___ ____, divide customers per meal by the number of seats (if you have 150 customers and 100 seats (150/100), seats turnover 1.5 times during the meal period)

A

Seat turnover

280
Q

____ machines may include health options

A

Vending

281
Q

With a buffet or smorgasbord, watch for _____ (use sneeze guards); eye appeal is important

A

Contamination

282
Q

Waiter service done at a ____ has benefits of ease and speed; a U-shaped space utilizes space to the maximum

A

Counter

283
Q

With American waiter service, the waiter takes ____ and food is portioned onto plates in the kitchen

A

Orders

284
Q

With French waiter service, portions are brought to the table on a platter, and the waiter completes ____ at the table (carving, making sauce, flaming); this is the most expensive style

A

Preparation

285
Q

With Russian waiter service, food is prepared and portioned in the kitchen; brought to table on serving platters and waiter serves _____ portions to each guest

A

Individual

286
Q

With ____ ____ service, guests serve themselves from platters and bowls

A

Family style

287
Q

At a ____, there is a preset menu and service for a given number of people

A

Banquet

288
Q

The USDA ____ ____ sets requirements for holding temperatures of food

A

Food Code

289
Q

Hold frozen foods between ___-___ degrees F

A

0- -10

290
Q

Transport hot food between ___-___ degrees F

A

165-170

291
Q

Not not hold food within the range of ____-____ degrees F

A

40-140

292
Q

Food should be reheated to ____ for 15 seconds within 2 hours of cooling

A

165

293
Q

Leftovers should be rapidly cooled (two-stage process); total cool time ____ hours

A

6

294
Q

Leftovers should be cooled quickly from ____ to ____ degrees F within 2 hours

A

135 to 70

295
Q

Then, food should be cooled from ____ to ____ degrees F within an additional 4 hours

A

70 to 40

296
Q

Hold cold food at ____ degrees F or less

A

40

297
Q

The ideal temperature range for the growth of pathogens is between ____-____

A

70-125

298
Q

The USDA’s Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) inspects…

A

-Meat
-Poultry
-Eggs

299
Q

The Meat and Poultry Division of the FSIS contains what two acts?

A

-Wholesome Meat and Poultry Act
-Eggs Products Inspections Act

300
Q

The Wholesome Meat and Poultry Act inspects all meal and poultry at the time of ____ and of processed products during production used in interstate, intrastate, and foreign commerce

A

Slaughter

301
Q

The Eggs Products Inspections Act inspects ____ ____; requires pasteurization of liquid eggs to be frozen or dried

A

Processing plants

302
Q

The U.S Department of Commerce runs the ____ ____ ____ Services

A

National Marine Fisheries

303
Q

The National Marine Fisheries ____ and ____ fishing vessels, seafood processing plants, and retail facilities for federal sanitation standards

A

Inspects and certifies

304
Q

US Grade ____ fish indicates that the product met sanitation and quality standards; grades for shellfish are based on size

A

A

305
Q

The Department of Health and Human Services runs the ___ ____ Service

A

Public Health

306
Q

The Public Health Service is concerned with ___ and ____ ____ transmitted through shellfish, milk, vending machines, and restaurants

A

Infectious and contagious diseases

307
Q

Contaminated shellfish can transmit ____

A

Hepatitis

308
Q

The Milk Ordinance code requires ____ of milk

A

Pasteurization

309
Q

The CDC runs the ____ system, which is an early warning system for outbreaks of foodborne disease; a national network of labs that fingerprint bacteria

A

PulseNet

310
Q

The CDC also runs ____, which tracts trends of foodborne diseases over time in order to develop interventions

A

FoodNet

311
Q

The FDA’s Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition funds the ____, ____, and ____ Act (law)

A

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic

312
Q

The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act covers all interstate (domestic and imported) food except…

A

-Meat
-Fish
-Poultry
-Eggs

313
Q

Roles of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:

A

-Inspect food processing factories, raw materials, and labeling
-Inspection of egg substitutes and imitation eggs
-Monitors interstate shipping of shellfish
-Prohibits adulteration (lowering of quality by mixing or substituting substances)
-Prohibits misbranding (use of deceitful or unfair labeling)
-Regulates additives

314
Q

Products recognized as GRAS are recognized as such due to long-term use, but have not been ____

A

Tested

315
Q

The Food Additives Amendment requires that the producer of an additive must prove its ____

A

Safety

316
Q

The _____ Clause states that anything causing cancer in animals or humans but be removed from the market

A

Delaney

317
Q

_____ additives are from incidental contamination (ex: pesticide residue)

A

Unintentional

318
Q

The ____ formulates mandatory standards (federal regulations) for products shipped across state lines

A

FDA

319
Q

Standard of ____ defines what a product must be to be called by a certain name (ex: mayonnaise)

A

Identity

320
Q

Standard of _____ specifies minimum quality below which foods must not fall (ex: fruit)

A

Quality

321
Q

Standard of ____ of containers protects against deception through use of containers that appear to hold more than they do (ex: canned goods_

A

Fill

322
Q

The ____ controls any food labeled as “limitation” or “substitute”

A

FDA

323
Q

____ foods are often nutritionally inferior; mast cost less but taste the same (ex: coffee whitener)

A

Imitation

324
Q

_____ foods are nutritionally equal or superior in some ways and inferior in others (ex: egg substitute)

A

Substitute

325
Q

The ___ ____ ____ establishes and monitors water quality standards and determines safety and tolerance levels for pesticides

A

Environmental Protection Agency

326
Q

Food ____ is an illness caused by a toxin in food prior to consumption

A

Intoxication

327
Q

____ ____ is a bacteria found in humans (nose, hands, intestines, cuts, sores)

A

Staphylococcus aureus

328
Q

Staphylococcus aureus enters through handling or contact with _____ surfaces

A

Contaminated

329
Q

Staphylococcus aureus grows best at temperatures between ___-___ degrees F; it is resistant to drying, freezing, and is not destroyed by cooking

A

70-97

330
Q

Staphylococcus aureus can be found in ____ foods that are high in protein such as meat, poultry, eggs, milk products, or stuffing

A

Reheated

331
Q

1-7 hours after ingestion, Staphylococcus aureus can cause…

A

-Nausea
-Vomiting
-Pain
-Diarrhea
-NO FEVER

332
Q

To avoid infection with Staphylococcus aureus:

A

-Wash hands
-Chill food quickly
-Cool food in shallow pans

333
Q

Clostridium botulinum is ____; it is rare and more deadly; unusually resistant to heat

A

Anaerobic

334
Q

Clostridium botulinum is found in…

A

-Soil
-Water
-Plants
-Intestinal tract of humans and animals

335
Q

The ingestion of Clostridium botulinum causes no harm (does not multiply or produce toxin in the GI tract), but if heat is not adequate in canning, spores produce a _____ under anaerobic conditions (spores are destroyed in an acidic environment)

A

Toxin

336
Q

4-36 hours after ingesting Clostridium botulinum, symptoms include:

A

-Weakness
-Double vision
-Fatigue
-Diarrhea
-Affects central nervous system (paralysis)
-Inability to swallow
-Slurred speech

337
Q

Botulism may be fatal in ___-___ days if not treated

A

3-10

338
Q

Clostridium botulinum spoils many foods, including…

A

-Low acid foods
-Improperly canned foods
-Vacuum-packed (sous vide) and tightly wrapped foods
-Smoked and salted fish
-Cooked root vegetables held at warm temperatures for too long

339
Q

____ is also a source of Clostridium botulinum, do not give to infants due to inadequate immune system

A

Honey

340
Q

Clostridium perfringens is also anaerobic; found in the ____ tract of humans and animals and the surfaces of meat and poultry

A

Intestinal

341
Q

8-10 hours after the ingestion of Clostridium perfringens, symptoms may include…

A

-Nausea
-Vomiting
-Abdominal pain
-Diarrhea

342
Q

To prevent Clostridium perfringens…

A

-Cool foods in shallow pans
-Keep cold food below 40 degrees F
-Keep hot food above 140
-Reheat leftovers to 165
-Wash hands

343
Q

Clostridium perfringens is found in improperly ____ and ____ foods

A

Cooked and reheated

344
Q

Clostridium perfringens commonly causes the “cafeteria bug” by infecting foods like…

A

-Meats
-Soups
-Gravies
-Stews
-Casserole

345
Q

Clostridium perfringens is found in foods held at _____ ____ in large quantities for several hours

A

Room temperature

346
Q

Bacillus cereus forms ____ and is found in soil, dust, grains, flour, cereal crops; it is aerobic

A

Spores

347
Q

30 minutes to 6 hours after ingestion of Bacillus cereus, someone will experience ____ (emetic)

A

Vomiting

348
Q

6-15 hours after ingestion of Bacillus cereus, someone will experience _____ (this lasts up to 24 hours)

A

Diarrhea

349
Q

Foods that may cause vomiting with Bacillus cereus:

A

-Rice products (fried rice)
-Starchy foods (potatoes, pasta, cheese products)
-Food mixtures like casseroles, sauces, pudding, soups, pastries

350
Q

Foods that may cause diarrhea with Bacillus cereus:

A

-Meats
-Milk
-Vegetables
-Fish

351
Q

Foodborne infections are caused by the activity of ____ carried by food into the GI tract

A

Bacteria

352
Q

Salmonella causes symptoms within ___-___ hours

A

6-48

353
Q

Symptoms of Salmonella include…

A

-Fever
-Nausea
-Vomiting
-Chills
-Headache

354
Q

Symptoms of Salmonella last ___-___ days

A

2-3

355
Q

Salmonella is found in…

A

-Intestinal tract of humans and animals
-Water
-Soil

356
Q

Salmonella is spread by ____ handlers

A

Food

357
Q

Salmonella is found in low ____ foods at body or room temperature and is destroyed by temperatures of pasteurization

A

Acid

358
Q

What foods contain salmonella?

A

-Raw and undercooked meat and poultry
-Eggs
-Raw dairy
-Seafood
-Melons

359
Q

Streptococcus is found in ____ contents of humans and animals

A

Intestinal

360
Q

Streptococcus is caused by…

A

-Poor hygiene
-Ill handlers

361
Q

Streptococcus grows between ___-____ degrees F and is destroyed by cooking

A

50-113

362
Q

Streptococcus can be found in foods such as…

A

-Milk
-Eggs
-Potato salad
-Food held at room temperature for hours

363
Q

The onset of Streptococcus is between ___-___ days

A

2-60

364
Q

Streptococcus causes symptoms like…

A

-Fever
-Diarrhea

365
Q

Listeria monocytogenes presents syptoms within ____-____ days

A

2-30

366
Q

Listeria monocytogenes is found in…

A

-Human or animal intestinal tract
-Unwashed vegetables
-Fruits
-Soil
-Water

367
Q

Listeria monocytogenes grows between ____-____ degrees F on neutral or slightly alkaline foods; it is resistant to freezing, drying, or heat

A

34-113

368
Q

Foods that common contain Listeria monocytogenes include…

A

-Hot dogs
-Deli meats
-Cold cuts
-Coleslaw
-Raw milk
-Soft cheese

369
Q

Listeria monocytogenes can harm a ____ (pregnant women should avoid)

A

Fetus

370
Q

Listeria monocytogenes can cause symptoms like…

A

-Flu-like symptoms
-Encephalitis
-Meningitis

371
Q

Campylobacter jujuni is one of the more common causes of _____

A

Gastroenteritis

372
Q

Campylobacter jujuni is found in the intestinal tract of…

A

-Cattle
-Sheep
-Pigs
-Poultry

373
Q

Campylobacter jujuni causes symptoms within 3-5 days, including…

A

-Abdominal pain
-Bloody diarrhea

374
Q

Symptoms of Campylobacter jujuni last ___-___ days

A

2-10

375
Q

Campylobacter jujuni can be found in…

A

-Raw or undercooked meat or poultry
-Raw milk
-Raw vegetables

376
Q

To reduce risk of Campylobacter jujuni, prevent ____ _____ between raw and cooked foods

A

Cross contamination

377
Q

Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus can be found in raw or undercooked _____

A

Seafood (shellfish, oysters)

378
Q

Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus cause symptoms such as…

A

-Fever
-Vomiting
-Cramps
-Diarrhea

379
Q

Symptoms of Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus start ____ hours after ingestion and last ____ hours

A

16; 48

380
Q

Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus yield a _____

A

Norovirus

381
Q

Shigella is found in the human intestinal tract and in water polluted by feces; can be transmitted by…

A

-Bare hands
-Flies

382
Q

What foods may contain Shigella?

A

-Cold mixed salads (chicken, tuna, potato)
-Raw vegetables
-Watermelon

383
Q

12-50 hours after ingestion of food containing Shigella, what symptoms may occur?

A

-Bloody diarrhea
-Abdominal pain

384
Q

Symptoms of Shigella last ___-___ days

A

4-7

385
Q

E. coli is found in human or animal intestinal tracts; infection causes…

A

-Diarrhea
-Severe cramping

386
Q

E. coli has a slow onset, ____-____ days after ingestion

A

3-8

387
Q

Symptoms of E. coli last ____-____ days

A

5-10

388
Q

Foods that may contain E. coli include…

A

-Rare or raw ground beef
-Uncooked fruits and vegetables
-Raw milk
-Unpasteurized apple juice

389
Q

E. coli can survive ____ and high ____; can grow at refrigerator temperatures

A

Freezing; acid

390
Q

_____ is an illness caused by poor personal hygiene among infected food handlers

A

Norovirus

391
Q

Norovirus does not reproduce in humans, but remains _____ until after the food is eaten

A

Active

392
Q

Norovirus is found in human feces and can be transmitted through…

A

-Contaminated water
-Human contact
-Vegetables fertilized by manure
-Manufactured ice cubes
-Ready-to-eat foods

393
Q

Symptoms of norovirus appear in 24-48 hours and include…

A

-Nausea
-Diarrhea
-Vomiting

394
Q

Symptoms of norovirus last ___-___ days

A

1-2

395
Q

What are the two most critical elements of food safety?

A

-Hand-washing
-Control of proper time and temperature (follow Food Code)

396
Q

Foodborne illness can be linked directly to the lack of attention to ____ ____

A

Personal hygiene

397
Q

What are some ways to prevent staff from spreading foodborne illness:

A

-Employees should wear clean, washable clothing with effective hair restraints
-Jewelry is discouraged, as bacteria can lodge in settings and contaminate food
-Hands should be washed using soap and friction for at least twenty seconds
-Disposable gloves are encouraged for direct food contact; change gloves frequently to avoid-cross contamination
-Employees with symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, fever, respiratory infection, or sore throat should not work as a food handler

398
Q

___ _____ _____ are written step-by-step instructions for routine tasks; documentation is a prerequisite for the quality control analysis model of HACCP

A

Standard Operating Procedures

399
Q

HACCP stands for…

A

Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point

400
Q

HACCP is a _____ approach to quality control, identifying potential dangers for corrective action; identifies food hazards and high-hazard jobs

A

Preventative

401
Q

___ ___ ___ are points in food service where a loss of control would result in unacceptable safety risks (numbers: time, end-point temperatures, etc)

A

Critical control points

402
Q

Commissary productions have ____ critical control points

A

9

403
Q

Ready-prepared productions have ____ critical control points

A

8

404
Q

Conventional productions have ____ critical control points

A

5

405
Q

Assembly-serve productions have ____ critical control points

A

4

406
Q

What are the 7 principles of HACCP?

A

-Conduct hazard analysis
-Determine CCP
-Establish critical limits
-Monitoring procedures
-Correct actions
-Verification procedures
-Record-keeping and documentation protocols

407
Q

The Food Safety Modernization Act (FDA) focuses more on _____ food safety problems

A

Preventing

408
Q

Food recalls are made by the ____; monitor notifications by the FDA and USDA; remove items from inventory and store in secure and appropriate locations away from food, utensils, equipment, and linens (label items: Do not use/do not discard)

A

Manufacturer

409
Q

A Class I recall involves a health hazard situation in which there is a _____ probability that eating the food will cause health problems or death

A

Reasonable

410
Q

A Class II recall involves a potential health hazard situation in which there is a ____ probability of adverse health consequences from eating the food

A

Remote

411
Q

A Class III recall involves a situation in which eating the food will ____ cause adverse health consequences

A

Not

412
Q

The Public Health Security and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act protects the ___ and ____ of the food supply

A

Safety and Security

413
Q

____ ____ ____ prioritizes preventative measures likely to have the greatest impact on reducing the risk of food security problems

A

Operations Risk Management

414
Q

_____ is the intentional use of biological agents or germs to cause illness

A

Bioterrorism

415
Q

______ identifies measures to minimize risk of food being subjected to tampering; assures products are received from safe sources; look (monitor) the security of production; employees know who should and should not be there; report and keep information related to food defense accessible; threat-> what you will do and who to contact if there is suspicious activity

A

ALERT

416
Q

Employees should wear ____ ____ ____ such as rubber gloves and protective glasses

A

Personal protective equipment

417
Q

A ____ ____ ____ requires a plan to communicate chemical hazards to employees

A

Hazard Communication Standard

418
Q

A ____ ____ ___ ___ must be available on all hazardous materials

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

419
Q

OSHA requires a ___ ____ Pathogen Standard, which requires notice to employees of all potentially infectious materials

A

Blood Borne

420
Q

_____ is the built-in safety features of building and equipment

A

Engineering

421
Q

_____ is also important in keeping food safe; provide policies, on-the-job training, and keep records of accidents and injuries on the job

A

Education

422
Q

Policies and procedures related to safety should be ____; follow up and do periodic inspections using a checklist

A

Enforced

423
Q

What creates a safe work environment?

A

Management cares about employee and works to educate employees on safe work practices, resulting in decreased lost work days and workman’s compensation costs

424
Q

____ pest management denies pest access, food, water, and a nesting place; use a licensed pest control operator and install mesh screens over ventilation pipes (inspection is done by state/county/city/town health inspectors)

A

Integrated

425
Q

The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) is a law that sets minimum _____ standards; requires record keeping of accidents and illness

A

Safety

426
Q

OSHA also performs ____ of facilities looking for safety hazards (wet floors), fire extinguishers, handrails on the stairs, lighted passageways, first-aid supplies, etc

A

Inspections

427
Q

Fires release ____ ____

A

Carbon monoxide

428
Q

Class ___ fires are caused by ordinary combustible materials like wood, paper, and cloth

A

A

429
Q

Class ____ fires are caused by flammable liquids, gases, and greases

A

B

430
Q

Class ____ fires are caused by live electrical wires

A

C

431
Q

Fire extinguishers are made of multi-purpose ____ ____ (ammonium sulfate, monoammonium phosphate, mica, talc); they can be used on class A, B, or C fires

A

Dry chemicals

432
Q

Class ____ fire extinguishers are required in commercial kitchens that use appliances and oils that operate at much higher temperatures than previous oils and appliances

A

K

433
Q

Cleaning ____ and standard procedures should include a list of what is to be cleaned, when, how, and by whom; bacteriological counts should be performed regularly

A

Schedules

434
Q

Maintain equipment and facilities in good ____; keep equipment information; record repairs and service; schedule corrective maintenance promptly

A

Repair

435
Q

Equipment and facilities should have good ____; include floor drains and cantilever equipment (wall-mounted)

A

Cleanability

436
Q

Chemical cleaning supplies are regulated by the ___ ___ ____

A

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

437
Q

What are the most common chemicals used in sanitizing surfaces that touch food (countertops, pots, pans)?

A

-Chlorine solution
-Iodine
-Quaternary ammonia

438
Q

Chloride solution should be used in concentrations of ____-____ ppm (pH <8)

A

50-90

439
Q

Iodine should be used in concentrations of ____-____ ppm (pH <5)

A

12.5-25

440
Q

Quaternary ammonia should be used in concentrations of ____-____ ppm (pH 7)

A

150-400

441
Q

Most states and local codes require immersion in chemical solutions for last least ____ seconds using water above ____ degrees F

A

60; 75