extra Flashcards

1
Q

most comm0n cause of cerebral abascess in HIV pts

A

toxoplasmosis

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2
Q

best initial test for suspected brain abscess

A

Ct with contrast

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3
Q

initial antibiotic for brain abscess

A

ceftriaxone, metronidazole and vanc

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4
Q

congenital heart disease and recurrnet sinusitis are predisoping factors for brain abscess

A
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5
Q

lyme disease can be the first indication of bells palsy

A

ELISA - borrelia burgdorferi

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6
Q

mainstay for brain abscess

A

burr hole and if larger or recurrent = craniotomy

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7
Q

what differentiates brain abscess from tumour

A

biopsy

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8
Q

differential for a ring enhancing lesion on brain

A

glioblastoma multiforme

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9
Q

msot accurate investgation for brain abscess

A

biopsy

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10
Q

most common cause of death in alzheimers

A

penumonia becuase of reduced swallowing

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11
Q

early onset alzheimers asscoiated with presenelin 1 and 2

A

late associated with apollipoporetin e4 allele

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12
Q

– is particularly sensitive to damage in alzheiemrs

A

hippocampus

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13
Q

shrinkage of the amygdala - memory ct scan may show starfish sign

A

alzheimers

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14
Q

vit e can be used for

A

alzheimers/ vascualr dementia

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15
Q

dementia is more common in

A

females

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16
Q

all pts with cognitive impairment must be evaualted for

A

hypothyroidism and depression

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17
Q

pseudodemntia is cognitive impairment secondary to

A

major depressive disorder

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18
Q

elderly with acute symptoms of major depression

A

pseudodementia - treat with SSRI

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19
Q

initial investigation of dementia to help exldue other cuases

A

blood screen

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20
Q

lewy body dementia is

A

fluctuating

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21
Q

typical antipsychotics can worsen

A

lewy body dementia

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22
Q

dat scan can be used for

A

lewy body dementia

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23
Q

encephalitis most commonly caused by

A

hsv1

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24
Q

if suspect encephalitis do not wait for cause before starting treatment - start Iv aciclovir

A
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25
Q

U&es and tfts to rule out

A

reversible causes of essential tremor

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26
Q

extradural haematoma causes

A

ipsilateral dilated pupil

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27
Q

middle meningeal arery rupture

A

extradural - pterion fracture

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28
Q

encephalitis want to do

A

virology PCR - from lumabr pucnture and csf analysis

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29
Q

most dangerous complciation of a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

rebledding

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30
Q

normal ct if suspect sub arachnoid haemorrhage do

A

lumbar puncture

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31
Q

most common site for berry aneurysm

A

junction of anterior communicating and anterior cerebral

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32
Q

if positive ct for subarachnoid haemorrhage then do

A

Ct angiography

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33
Q

findings will be normal on CT for subarahnoid haemorrhage if do less than

A

6hrs

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34
Q

lumbar puncture should be done at least how long after symptoms for subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

12- xanthocrhomia

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35
Q

do start dementia drugs MMSE should be greater than

A

12 as if below side effects outweigh benefits

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36
Q

major cause of death 3-10 days after SAH

A

vasopasm causing an ishaemic infarct

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37
Q

anticoagulants such as warfarin increase risk of

A

subdural haemorrhage in elderly

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38
Q

which haemorrhage crosses suture line

A

subdural

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39
Q

new bleeding will appear

A

hyperdense

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40
Q

chronic subdural haemorrhage more likely in alcholics and the elderly due to

A

cerebral atrophy which stretches the bridging veins

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41
Q

blood test important in subdural haemorrhage

A

coagulation screen

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42
Q

initial antibiotics for meningococcal meningitis

A

benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime

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43
Q

kernigs sign

A

meningitis

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44
Q

initial antibiotics for pneumococcal menigntis

A

Iv cefotaxime

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45
Q

patient contact less than 7 days ago from memnigntococaal meningjtis should be given

A

ciprofloxacin

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46
Q

mx of bacterial meningitis in primary care

A

Im/IV benzylpenicillin at earliest opportunity

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47
Q

diagnostic investigation for bacterial meningitis

A

LP - CSF findings

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48
Q

non blanching rash indicates what

A

meningococcal sepsis

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49
Q

patients with bacterial meningitis may be given – to avoid hearing loss

A

dexamethasone

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50
Q

bacterial meningitis initial empiral antibiotics if 3months to 5 years

A

Iv cefotaxime

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51
Q

bacterial meningitis if less than 3 months or over 50

A

cefotaxime and amoxicillin so basically just add amox

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52
Q

kernigs sign

A

knee extension - meningitis

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53
Q

fungal meningitis

A

amphotericine B and fluocystosine

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54
Q

soap bubble in the white matter of the brain

A

cryptococcus

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55
Q

vaccination agaisnt pneumococcal 23 serotypes is given at

A

65y/o

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56
Q

halo appearance on india ink stain

A

cryptococcus

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57
Q

fungal meningitis has

A

lymophocyte predominance and then same as bacteria with increased protein and decreased glucose

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58
Q

most common type of meningitis

A

viral

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59
Q

most common cause of viral meningitis

A

enteroviruses eg cocksackie and echoviruses. followed by hepres simplex

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60
Q

mx for confirmed viral meningitis - suportive eg analgesia. use of aciclovir is unlear but if has signs of encephalitis then defos give aciclovir

A
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61
Q

how does viral meningitis differ from fungal

A

viral has normal glucose and fungal has decreased glucose

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62
Q

what HSv is more common to cause viral meningitis

A

2

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63
Q

for viral meningitis gold standard for identifying the underlying organisms

A

CSF PCR

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64
Q

nerve conduction studies in motor neuron are

A

normal

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65
Q

non invasive ventilaltion (usually BiPap) at night also given for

A

MND

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66
Q

ALS (MND) usually has spastic paralysis in lower limbs and what paralysis in upper

A

flaccid

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67
Q

riluzole is a

A

glutamate inhibitor- prolongs life by 3 months

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68
Q

treat suspected viral meningitis as bacterial until diagnosis exluded so give

A

empirical antibiotics

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69
Q

ALS usually begins at

A

cervical lesion of the spinal cord

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70
Q

progressive bulbar palsy affects what motor neruones

A

upper and lower

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71
Q

als typically begins in

A

hands and feet

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72
Q

what is unaffected in mnd

A

sensory, bladder and bowel and occular muscles

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73
Q

Primary lateral scleoriss affects

A

upper motor neurones

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74
Q

suspect myasthenia gravis and negative for anti AChR antibodies can then consdier testing for Anti MUSK antibodies

A
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75
Q

ice pack over eyelids will improve symptoms in

A

myasthenia gravis

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76
Q

edrophonium differentiates myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crissi

A

if symptoms improve then myasthenic

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77
Q

ALS - spastic paralyis in

A

lower limbs

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78
Q

myasthenia gravis is a

A

type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

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79
Q

drugs contraindicated in myasthenia gravis

A

aminoglycosides eg gentamicin

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80
Q

all pts with myasthenia gravis should have a

A

thymus CT or MRI

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81
Q

myasthenia gravis - antibodies against post synaptic

A

NICOTINC ach

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82
Q

only anti emetic that is safe in parkinsosn

A

domperidone

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83
Q

what triptan should be avoided in clsuter headaches

A

oral

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84
Q

verapamil affects heart so do ECG prior to use in

A

cluster headahces

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85
Q

investigation of choice to rule out other underlying brain lesions in cluster headahce

A

MRI with gadolinium contrast

86
Q

in cluster headahces pain with each attack occurs

A

at the same time each day and on the same side of the head

87
Q

episodic cluster headahces have pain free periods lasting over

A

3 months

88
Q

difference between cluster headahces and horner sydnrome

A

forehead sweating in cluster headahce and anhidrosis in horners

89
Q

cluster headaches more common in

A

males

90
Q

symptoms of migraine improve during

A

pregnancy

91
Q

refer if suspect first bout of cluster headache

A
92
Q

supplement that can be given for migraine

A

riboflavin

93
Q

migraine prophylaxis - propanol cannot be given if asthmatic. topiramate should be avoided in child bearing age so

A

acupuncture or amitripylien

94
Q

prophylaxis for tension headahce

A

acupuncture

95
Q

riboflavin

A

supplement given for migraines

96
Q

acute mx of tension headachs

A

paracetemol, Nsaids or aspirin

97
Q

pt with raised icp should be position with head elevation

A

of 30 degrees

98
Q

first lien pharmacological mx for raised ICP

A

IV mannitol

99
Q

pts with raised icp should have a

A

Ct/MRi to rule out space occupying lesion

100
Q

prochloperazine and metoclopramide may be given to migraine patients even in the abscence on nasuea and vomitting as shown to alleviate other migraine symptoms such as pain and discomfort

A
101
Q

leading cause of raised iCP

A

traumatic brain injuries

102
Q

controlled hyperventillation can be used in raised ICP that works by vasoconstricting cerebral arteries

A

as decreased pco2 causes vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries

103
Q

body does what in ICP

A

increases MAP

104
Q

start back risk assessmment tool is for

A

herniated discs/ sciatica

105
Q

75% of herniated discs will improve after 4 weeks due to re- absorption of the prolapsed disc over time

A
106
Q

straight leg test for

A

herniated disc

107
Q

nsaids for herniated disc

A

better than paracetemol

108
Q

surgical mx for herniated disc

A

decompression via laminectomy

109
Q

what infarcts can cause quadriplegia and locked in syndrome

A

brainstem

110
Q

hypoattenuation suggests what kind of stroke

A

ischaemic

111
Q

contraindications for thrombolysis

A

intracranial haemorrhage, pregnancy and uncontrolled hypertension

112
Q

secondary prevention for ishcaemic stroke

A

clopidogrel and statin . aspirin is given in slocpidogrel is contraindicated

113
Q

Tia is a subtype of

A

ischaemic stroke

114
Q

initial mx of all ishcaemic strokes

A

aspirin

115
Q

history suggestive of a stroke should have what initial invesygoation to rule ou tmain differentials

A

blood glucose
ecg to rule out arrythmias

116
Q

iniital mx of stroke within 4.5hrs

A

aspirin 300mg, thrombolysis (alteplase) stating after 48hrs

117
Q

anticoagulation should not be started until – days since the onset of an ischaemic stroke

A

14 days

118
Q

locked in syndrome affects what artery

A

basilar

119
Q

language centre is most found in the dominant hemisphere which is commonly the

A

left hemisphere

120
Q

lateral pontine syndrome affects ipsilateral

A

facial nerve palsy

121
Q

strokes can cause aphasia if they occur in the

A

domiant hemisphere

122
Q

medial midbrain (webers)

A

occulomotor palsy ans contralateral hemiparesis

123
Q

anterior cerebral artery also supplies the

A

anterior limb of the internal capsule

124
Q

posterior inferior cerebella artery supplies the

A

lateral medulla - horners

125
Q

anterior - deafness
posterior - horners

A

anterior- lateral pons
posterior - lateral medulla

126
Q

anterior spinal artery supplies the

A

medial medulla

127
Q

posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome also affects cranial nerve 10 causing

A

dysphagia

128
Q

medial midbrain stroke causes

A

CN 3 palsy and contrlateral hemiparesis

129
Q

basilar artery supplies the

A

medial pons

130
Q

anterior limb of of internal capsule -

A

posterior limb of internal capsule - middle cerebral artery

131
Q

lacunar stroke is most commonly due to occlusion of what arteries

A

lenticulostriate

132
Q

posterior cerebral artery supplies the thalamus so causes

A

contralateral sensory abnormalities

133
Q

corpus callosum mostly supplies by

A

anterior cerebral

134
Q

artery supplies the language centres

A

middle cerebral

135
Q

hemi neglect strokes are in the

A

non dominant hemispere

136
Q

MCA supplies the superior temporal lobe and the PCA supllies the

A

inferior temporal lobe

137
Q

carotide artery endarterectomy if carotid stenosis greater than

A

70%

138
Q

do NOt do Ct for TIa unless there is clinical suspicion of an alternative daignsosis. just do carotid imaging

A
139
Q

if present with TIA that occured less than 7 dyas ago

A

give aspirin adn urgent assessment bu stroke physician

140
Q

aspirin contraindicated in

A

bleeding disorders, taking anticoagulatnts or taking low dose aspirin regularly

141
Q

trigeminal neuralgia common affects what divisions of CNv

A

mandibular and/or maxillary

142
Q

bilateral trigemninal neuralgia suspect

A

MS

143
Q

in wernickes encephalopahty the

A

mamillary bodies and ventricle wallsa of the brain are affected by petechial haemorrhages

144
Q

most common occular sign of wernickes

A

nystagmus

145
Q

investigation would do in werniceks

A

MRI and RBC tranketolase activty (would be decreased)

146
Q

CIN do

A

LLETZ

147
Q

if smear psotive then what is done

A

cytological examination

148
Q

hpv 18 and 18 -

A

cervical cancers

149
Q

who has decreased risk of cervical cancer

A

if never been sexually active

150
Q

CIN 1 usually

A

regresses

151
Q

abrupt bradycardia after rupture of membranes suggests

A

umbillical cord prolapse

152
Q

CTPA in preg increases maternal breast cancer

A

v/q scan increases risk of childhood cancer

153
Q

initial investigations for suspected PE in preg

A

ECG and CXR

154
Q

iniital investigation for ectopic is preg test although investigation of chocie is US

A
155
Q

bhcg over what suggests ectopic

A

1500

156
Q

if there is an adnexal masss in ectopic then avoid examinig iit

A

because of increased risk of ruptured pregnancy

157
Q

contraceptions that are rf for ectopics are

A

the coils and progesterone only pill

158
Q

meds for endometrial pain

A

1- paracetemol and nsaids
2- hormonal - COCP or progestogens

159
Q

mirenal coil is first line for fibroids but if not mefanmic/tranexamic

A

definitive - mymoectomy

160
Q

investigation for fibroids

A

transvaginal US

161
Q

fibroids typically regress when

A

post menopause

162
Q

what shrinks size of fibroids

A

GnRh agonists eg lupron

163
Q

fasting glucose for diabetes is 7 and gestational is greater than

A

5.6
2 hour glusoe - greater than 7.8 (11.1 for normal DM)

164
Q

most common medical disroder in preg

A

gestation hypertension then gestational diabetes

165
Q

hypertension in pregnancy if over

A

140/90

166
Q

2nd line for hyperemesis gavidarum

A

ondansetron(avoid in first sem) and metoclpramide

167
Q

avoid metoclopraide in pregnancy for greater than 5 days as can then cause

A

extrapyradmidal side effects

168
Q

hyperemesis gavidarum ususally stopped at

A

20 weeks

169
Q

– used to treat vasomotor symtoms in menopause

A

SSRI eg fluoxetine

170
Q

Hrt increases risk of what cancers

A

breats and ovarian

171
Q

obesity increases risk of what in pregnancy

A

miscarriage

172
Q

initial investigation for ovarian cancer

A

CA125

173
Q

definitive investigation for ovarian cancer

A

diagnostic laparotomy

174
Q

if ca125 levels are riased in suspected ovarian cancer then do

A

US of the pelvis

175
Q

preg test should be done if presenting with PID to rule out

A

ectopci

176
Q

if placenta praevia present at 32 weeks then

A

rescan US every 2 weeks

177
Q

what us is done in ovarian cancer if ca 125 is elevated

A

PELVIC

178
Q

how is placental abruption investigated

A

CTG to monitor fetal distress

179
Q

mx of placental abruption if less than 36 weeks and not infetal distress

A

oberve closely and give steriods

180
Q

mx of placental abruption if fetus is dead

A

induce delviery vaginally

181
Q

first line pharmacological approach for PPH

A

oxytocin

182
Q

surgical mx for PPH

A

intrauterine balloon tamponade

183
Q

in PPH get the mother in what position

A

lying flat

184
Q

labetalol also first line for

A

pre eclampsia

185
Q

pre eclampsia can cause

A

growth retardation

186
Q

pre eclampsia also raised

A

transaminases - ASt and ALT

187
Q

Help syndrome is a severe form of

A

pre eclampsia

188
Q

aspirin from – week in pre eclampsia

A

12

189
Q

abortion greater thna 15 weeks

A

D and C

190
Q

abortion if under 13 weeks

A

suction termination

191
Q

abortion pill can be taken up to – weeks at home

A

10

192
Q

lorazepam for alcohol withdrawl and hepatic failure

A
193
Q

seizures occur how long after alcohol withdrawl

A

36hrs

194
Q

2 first line for alchol withdrawl

A

chlrodizepoxide or diazepam (benzos)
lorazepam may be preferrable if got hepatic failrue

195
Q

first line for delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawl seizure

A

oral lorazepam

196
Q

first line pharmacological for bulimia

A

SSRI specifically fluoxetine

197
Q

patietns with delirium and has a history of parkinsons disease should be treated with quetiapine or clozapine rather than

A

haloperidol/ olanzapine

198
Q

delirium typically lasts

A

6 weeks in hospital

199
Q

depression if how long

A

2 weeks

200
Q

Gad needs to be at least how long

A

6 months

201
Q

z drugs should be avoided in

A

older people (>55)

202
Q

SSRi given for body dysmorphic disorder

A

fluoxetine

203
Q

what is like the adult version of conduct disorder

A

antisocial personality disorder

204
Q

OCD personality - unaware their behaviour is problematic or causing them distress

A
205
Q

schizotypal

A

odd behaviours

206
Q

SNRI that can be given for PTSD

A

venlafaxine

207
Q

schizophrenia symptoms need have been present for at least

A

1 month

208
Q

avoidant personality disorder crave what

A

social contact

209
Q

Nsaids not recommended in what trimester

A

3rd

210
Q

if got renail impairment give unfractionated heparin as prophylaxis

A
211
Q

transient tachypnoea of the newborn can occur form

A

c- section