FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

function of digestive system?

A

-process food, extract nutrients, and eliminate waste

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2
Q

5 stages digestive system

A
  1. ingestion
  2. digestion- chemical and mechanical breakdown of food
  3. absorption- the uptake of nutrients into the epithelial cells of the digestive tract and then into the blood or lymph
  4. compaction- absorbing water and consolidating the waste
  5. defecation
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3
Q

organs that make up digestive tract

A

-mouth
-pharynx
-esophagus
-stomach
-small intestine
-large intestine

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4
Q

accessory organs digestive tract

A

-teeth
-tongue
-salivary glands
-liver
-gallbladder
-pancreas

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5
Q

functions of the stomach

A

-food storage organ
-where the process of chemical digestion continues
-mechanically breaks up food
-produces watery mixture of semi-digested food called chyme

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6
Q

gastric pits

A

-the depressions in the gastric epithelium that are lined with simple columnar epithelial cells
-lead down into the gastric glands
-contain a variety of glandular cell types

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7
Q

gastric gland + types

A

-contain a variety of glandular cell types
1. mucous cells
2. parietal cells
3. chief cells
4. enteroendocrine cells

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8
Q

mucous cells

A

produce mucus

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9
Q

parietal cells

A

-secrete hydrochloric acid and when the stomach is empty, an appetite-stimulating hormone called ghrelin
-HCl breaks down food and helps destroy ingested pathogens. also produces intrinsic factor, which binds to vitamin B12 and allows for its absorption in the small intestine. –Vitamin B12 is needed for normal RBC production. Without intrinsic factor, anemia develops due to the inability to synthesize hemoglobin.

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10
Q

chief cells

A

-secrete gastric lipase and pepsinogen (pepsinogen gets converted to pepsin by HCl, which then digests proteins)

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11
Q

enteroendocrine cells

A

-secrete hormones and paracrine messengers that regulate digestion.
-at least 8 kinds of enteroendocrine cells in the stomach, and probably about 20 different chemicals messengers produced.
-G cells produce gastrin, which stimulates HCl release and increases gastric motility

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12
Q

how is the lining of the stomach protected?

A
  1. mucous coat
  2. tight junctions
  3. rapid cell replacement- the epithelial cells od the mucosa layer only last for 3-6 days
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13
Q

steps for regulation of gastric function:

A
  1. cephalic phase
  2. gastric phase
  3. intestinal phase
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14
Q

cephalic phase

A

-the stomach responds to the sight, smell, taste, or thought of food
-these inputs converge on the hypothalamus, which relays signals to the medulla. then the vagus nerve fibers stimulate the stomach to secret HCl and gastrin
-this phase prepares the stomach to receive food

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15
Q

gastric phase

A

-in this phase, food in the stomach and semidigested proteins activate gastric activity
-the stretch of the stomach activates responses that lead to the release of ACh from parasympathetic fibers, histamine from enteroendrocrine cells, and gastrin from G cells. all 3 stimulate the release of HCl, intrinsic factor, and pepsinogen
-the presence of amino acids also stimulates the release of gastrin

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16
Q

intestinal phase

A

-starts when chyme starts to arrive in the duodenum of the small intestine
-the presence of acid and semidigested fats in the
duodenum triggers the enterogastric reflex – the
duodenum a) sends signals via the nervous system
to the stomach, b) sends signals to the medulla to
inhibit vagal stimulation of the stomach, and c)
sends signals via sympathetic neurons to the
stomach. All of these serve to inhibit gastric function.
-enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum release secretin and cholecystokinin (CCK), both of which inhibit gastric secretion and motility

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17
Q

function of gallbladder:

A

stores bile until it is released into the small intestine via the common bile duct

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18
Q

where is bile initially secreted

A

from the liver

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19
Q

function of bile:

A

aids in digestion of fats.
-contents of bile act to separate fat molecules from one another so they do not form clumps
-allows lipase to digest the fat more efficiently

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20
Q

pancreas

A

-both an endocrine and exocrine organ
*endrocrine part is the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)- secrete insulin and glucagon
*about 99% of the pancreas is exocrine tissue that produces pancreatic juice. it has acini that open into ducts that eventually converge into the main pancreatic duct, which carries materials to the small intestine

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21
Q

what makes up pancreatic juice?

A

-it’s an alkaline mixture
-contains water, electrolytes, sodium bicarbonate, and digestive enzymes (trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, pancreatic amylase, pancreatic lipase)

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22
Q

how is the release of pancreatic juice and bile regulated?

A

a. ACh- from the vagus nerve. causes secretion of pancreatic enzyme, even in anticipation of eating

b. cholecystokinin (CCK)- secreted by the SI in response to fats in the SI. strong effect on the release of bile; also causes secretion of pancreatic enzymes

c. secretin- secreted by the SI in response to acidity in the SI. causes an increase in the release of sodium bicarbonate from the pancreas to neutralize the acid

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23
Q

small intestine parts + function

A

-duodenum, jejunum, ileum
-duodenum is where secretion from gallbladder and pancreas are added to the chyme
-jejunum is where more digestion and nutrient absorption occur
-ileocecal sphincter separates SI and LI

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24
Q

structure and function of villi

A

-covered with absorptive cells and goblet cells, which produce mucus.
-increases surface area of inner lining of SI
-each villus contains and arteriole, capillaries, a venule, and a lacteal (which absorbs lipids)

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25
Q

what does the wall of the SI secrete?

A

-alkaline secretion (intestinal juice)
-mucus

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26
Q

function of intestinal motility

A

-mix chyme with intestinal juice, pancreatic juice, and bile
-churn the chyme to break it up mechanically and promote absorption
-move materials toward the large intestine

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27
Q

segmentation

A

contractions that target certain locations/sections in SI to further move material/break stuff up

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28
Q

migrating motor complex

A

when absorption of nutrients is mostly complete, the SI releases the hormone motilin, which causes waves of peristalsis called the migrating motor complex.

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29
Q

carb. digestion/absorption

A

-starch is digested into glucose, which is what gets absorbed by the SI
-about 50 % of starch is digested by the actions of salivary amylase and HCl from the stomach before it reaches the SI
-in the SI, pancreatic amylase (and some enzymes embedded in the wall of the SI) break down the rest of the starch into glucose
-sucrose and lactose are broken down by sucrase and lactase and the resulting monosaccharides (glucose and fructose, glucose and galactose) are absorbed
-the effectiveness of lactase diminishes with age in most individuals
-all the monosaccharides are absorbed by blood capillaries of the villi, and the hepatic portal vein transports them to the liver

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30
Q

protein digestion/absorption

A

-enzymes that digest proteins are called proteases. these include pepsin in the stomach and trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, aminopeptidase, and dipeptidase in the SI
-amino acids are absorbed by blood capillaries of the villi, and the hepatic portal vein transports them to the liver

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31
Q

lipid digestion/absorption

A

-fats are digested by lipases. includes lingual lipase, gastric lipase, and pancreatic lipase. Only about 15% of lipids are digested by the time the chyme reaches the SI
-the churning of the stomach emulsifies the fats (breaks it up into smaller droplets)
-in the SI, these droplets are coated by lecithin and bile salts (to keep them from combining) and pancreatic lipase digests the lipids in the droplets
-pancreatic lipase breaks triglycerides down into a monoglyceride and two free fatty acids (making them easier to absorb)
-micelles, which consist of bile acids with the
hydrophobic portions facing inward and their
hydrophilic portions facing outward, will absorb the monglycerides and free fatty acids, in addition to cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins. The micelles carry these lipids to the surface of the absorptive cells
-Inside the absorptive cells, the free fatty acids and monoglyceride are reformed into
tryglycerides, which are then placed into
packages called chylomicrons. The
chylomicrons are released from the absorptive cells and taken up by the lacteals
-From there, the lipids travel through the lymph system to be deposited in the circulatory system at the subclavian veins. Eventually they move to adipocytes for storage or to other body cells for
use in production of ATP.

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32
Q

large intestine function

A

-reabsorption of water and electrolytes
-compacts the waste into feces

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33
Q

female reproductive primary and secondary organs

A

-primary: ovaries
-secondary: internal reproductive tract (uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina) and external genitalia (clitoris, labia minora, labia majora)

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34
Q

ovary functions

A

-female gonads
-produce egg cells and sex hormones
*ovarian follicles each consist of one developing ovum (egg) surrounded by numerous small follicular cells

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35
Q

ovulation

A

eggs are released one at a time through the bursting of the follicles. the left and right ovaries alternate in activity from month to month.

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36
Q

uterus structure + function

A

-thick, muscular chamber that opens into the top of the vagina
-function of the uterus is to harbor the fetus, nourish it, and expel the fetus at the appropriate time

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37
Q

hormones released by hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland

A

-in males, GnRH produced by the hypothalamus, and causes the release of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary gland

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38
Q

what percentage of body fat is needed for hormonal axis activity?

A

-20%
-if leptin levels are too low, due to a low percentage of fat, then GnRH is not produced in adequate amounts and reproductive function will cease (or puberty will be delayed)

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39
Q

function of FSH

A

-FSH causes the development of ovarian follicles, which secrete estrogens, progesterone, inhibin, and low levels of androgens

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40
Q

main effect of progesterone

A

-acts primarily on the uterus, preparing it for potential pregnancy
-maintains a pregnancy

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41
Q

effects of estradiol

A

-causes growth of the ovaries and secondary sex organs
-stimulates growth hormone secretion, which leads to a rapid increase in height and widening of the pelvis
-stimulates fat deposition in the hips, thighs, buttocks, and breasts

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42
Q

effects of androgens in females

A

-responsible for growth of pubic and axillary hair and the development of sebaceous glands

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43
Q

hormones involved in negative feedback in hormonal control of function

A

-estrogen, progesterone, inhibin

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44
Q

oogenesis

A

-egg production!
-cyclic event that produces one egg per month usually

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45
Q

oogenesis steps

A

-begins before birth
-At that time, all oogonia initiate meiosis and become primary oocytes. Most of these primary oocytes undergo atresia before birth, but as many as 2 million remain at birth, and 200,000
at the start of puberty. This is more than enough, as fewer than 500 eggs are ovulated during a female’s lifetime
-then it is paused until puberty
-At puberty, once a month about two dozen of the primary oocytes are recruited to resume
development, a process that takes about 290
days (although usually only one of these
survives to be ovulated). During that time they
will undergo the rest of meiosis I (which
produces a polar body) and the start of meiosis
II. Meiosis II is not fully completed until
fertilization by a sperm occurs.

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46
Q

follicular development steps

A

1.Primordial Follicles – These consist of a primary oocyte surrounded by a single layer of
squamous cells. These are formed during
gestation but persist into adulthood as described above. These make up about 95% of
the follicles in an adult ovary. Again, once a month about two dozen of the primordial follicles are recruited to resume development.
2.Primary Follicles – By day 140, the two dozen
primordial follicles have become primary
follicles. The cells become cuboidal, and the
oocyte becomes larger
3. Secondary Follicles – By day 170, the follicular cells (now called granulosa cells) multiply into multiple layers. An outer layer of theca cells also develops. The larger oocyte is now surrounded by a glycoprotein gel called the
zona pellucida
4. Tertiary Follicles – The theca cells divide into a theca externa (made up of smooth muscle) and a theca interna (which produce steroids). LH stimulates the theca interna to absorb
cholesterol from the blood and convert it to
androgens. These diffuse into the granulosa
cells, where they are converted to estrogens,
especially estradiol. By day 230, the granulosa
cells secrete follicular fluid, which forms a pool
(called the antrum) inside the follicle.
5.Mature (Graafian) Follicles – Normally
only one follicle from each month’s cohort
becomes a fully mature follicle, which will
undergo ovulation

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47
Q

what hormone directs follicular development

A

FSH

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48
Q

components of the sexual cycle

A

ovarian and menstrual cycle

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49
Q

ovarian cycle phases

A
  1. follicular phase
  2. ovulation
  3. luteal phase
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50
Q

follicular phase

A

Extends from the beginning
of menstruation (Day 1) until ovulation (Day
14). During this time, FSH stimulates continued
growth of all follicles, but especially the
dominant one. FSH also stimulates the
secretion of estradiol from the granulosa cells.
At the end of this phase, there is a spike in LH
secretion (the LH surge). The LH causes an
increase in the production of follicular fluid,
which causes the follicle to swell and enlarge.

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51
Q

ovulation

A

Ovulation, which consists of a
bursting of the follicle due to the
increased pressure from the build-up of
follicular fluid, takes only a few minutes.
Normally, the egg, which is released from
the surface of the ovary, is taken up by
the uterine tube. However, it is not
unusual for oocytes to remain in the
pelvic cavity and die

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52
Q

luteal phase

A

Extends from ovulation until the end of
the cycle (Day 28). If pregnancy does not occur, the
following events takes place: Under the direction of LH,
the ovulated follicle becomes a structure called the
corpus luteum. LH stimulates the corpus luteum to
secrete both estradiol and, especially, progesterone.
The corpus luteum starts to shrink at about Day 22 and
by Day 26 has turned into a scar tissue called the
corpus albicans. Due to the reduction in estrogen and
progesterone levels near the end of this phase,
negative feedback on FSH production is relaxed, and
FSH levels begin to increase again to stimulate a new
cohort of follicles

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53
Q

menstrual cycle

A

-runs concurrently with the ovarian cycle and is dependent upon the release of hormones from the ovary.
-3 phases:
1. menstrual phase
2. proliferative phase
3. secretory phase

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54
Q

menstrual phase

A

As the functional layer
of the endometrium degenerates, it falls
away and mixes with blood to form
menstrual fluid. As this fluid accumulates,
it is discharged through the vagina. This
phase is also called menses

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55
Q

proliferative phase

A

This phase starts at
about Day 5. Estrogen that has been
secreted by the follicles stimulates mitosis
in the basal layer to cause the regrowth of
the functional layer. Estrogen also causes
the proliferation of blood vessels and
endometrial glands

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56
Q

secretory phase

A

The endometrium continues
to thicken, but mostly due to secretion and fluid
accumulation instead of mitosis. The number of
progesterone receptors in the endometrium
increases under the direction of estrogen, and
progesterone from the corpus luteum causes
the endometrial glands to grow and to secrete
glycogen and more fluid. Near the end of this
phase, the endometrium starts to degenerate
due to the fact that the corpus luteum in the
ovary has degenerated and is no longer
producing progesterone

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57
Q

syncytiotrophoblast secretes what hormone?

A

human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
-maintain the corpus luteum so it continues to produce large amounts of progesterone (basically prolongs life of corpus luteum)

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58
Q

corpus luteum

A

-disappears around 20 weeks of pregnancy
-releases estrogen and progesterone

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59
Q

what does the placenta do after the corpus luteum disappears?

A

take over the production of estrogens and progesterone

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60
Q

estrogen functions during pregnancy

A

stimulates tissue growth in the fetus. In the
mother, it causes the uterus and external genitalia to
enlarge, causes the mammary ducts to grow, and
causes the breasts to grow. It also makes the pubic
symphysis more elastic so that the pelvis can widen
during childbirth

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61
Q

progesterone functions pregnancy

A

suppresses uterine contractions so
early labor is not as likely to occur. It also
contributes to the development of the mammary
glands

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62
Q

functions of male reproductive system

A

produce sperm, introduce sperm into female body, produce steroid hormones

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63
Q

primary sex organs in males

A

the testes

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64
Q

secondary sex organs in males

A

penis, scrotum, vas deferens, prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, and seminal vesicles

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65
Q

where are sperm produced?

A

-inside coiled tubules called the seminiferous tubules

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66
Q

cells in the seminiferous tubules

A

-several layers of germ cells
-nurse cells (support the germ cells and produce androgen-binding protein and inhibin)

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67
Q

how is testosterone produced

A

testosterone is produced by the interstitial cells, also known as Leydig cells that are found in between the tubules

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68
Q

spermatogenesis

A

process of sperm formation achieved through meiosis (single diploid cell gives rise to four haploid cells)
-diploid cells called spermatogonia
-haploid cells called spermatids
-cells migrate thru the seminiferous tubes to the core

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69
Q

what must spermatids do?

A

transform into sperm!!! :D

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70
Q

parts of sperm + function

A

-flagellum
-mitochondria (power flagellum)
-acrosome (contains enzymes to penetrate the egg if contact is made)
-genetic material in the head

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71
Q

epididymis

A

-site of sperm maturation and storage
-sperm are moved along the fluid from the nurse cells and by the actions of cilia on the cells of ducts to get to the epididymis

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72
Q

vas deferens

A

transport sperm from epididymis to urethra

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73
Q

accessory glands that secrete materials that make up semen

A

-seminal vesicles
-prostate gland
-bulbourethral glands

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74
Q

functions of semen

A

-provides nutrients for the sperm in the form of sugars (fructose) and ions (calcium, phosphate, citrate)
-helps buffer acidic pH of the female reproductive tract

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75
Q

males hormones fetus

A

During the first trimester, the testes in the fetus
secrete large amounts of testosterone. Even
during the first few months after birth,
testosterone levels are as high as they are
during puberty. The purpose of elevated
testosterone at that time is to direct the
development of the internal and external
reproductive structures (the secondary sex
organs). After that, the testes become dormant
until puberty

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76
Q

males hormones puberty

A

As puberty begins, the hypothalamus produces
more GnRH gonadrotropin-releasing hormone),
which causes the release of LH (luteinizing
hormone) and FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
from the anterior pituitary.
* LH causes the interstitial cells to produce
testosterone. Testosterone promotes sperm
production. It also causes the development of
secondary sex characteristics, enhances libido
and promotes territorial and aggressive
behaviors
FSH stimulates the nurse cells to secrete
androgen-binding protein, which holds
testosterone in the seminiferous tubules.
* Nurse cells also secrete inhibin, which functions
in a negative feedback loop to inhibit the release
of FSH from the anterior pituitary.
* Testosterone has an inhibitory effect on the
release of GnRH.

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77
Q

anatomy

A

the study of the structures of living organisms

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78
Q

physiology

A

the study of how living organisms function

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79
Q

homeostasis

A

the maintenance of the relatively constant internal environment

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80
Q

negative feedback

A

-when any deviation from the set point is made smaller (resisting the change)

-ex. regulation of blood pressure, body temperature, and blood sugar levels

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81
Q

positive feedback

A

-when a deviation occurs, the response is to make the deviation greater (much less common than negative feedback)
-ex. childbirth, opening on sodium channels associated with action potentials, platelet-plug formation during blood clotting

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82
Q

Plasma Membrane

A

defines the boundaries of the cell, controls interactions with other cells, and controls movement of materials in and out of the cell

-appears as a pair of dark parallel lines

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83
Q

membrane proteins- receptors

A

-usually specific for one kind of chemical messenger
-chemical signals/messengers that cannot enter cell might bind to surface receptors

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84
Q

membrane proteins- enzymes

A

-some embedded proteins are enzymes that can catalyze certain reactions

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85
Q

membrane proteins- channel proteins

A

2 types: leak channels & gated channels

leak channels- always open
gated channels- may be ligand-gated, voltage gated, or mechanically gated

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86
Q

membrane proteins- carrier proteins

A

-transmembrane proteins that bind to glucose, electrolytes, and other solutes then transfer them to the other side of the membrane

-if they have to work against a concentration gradients, they’re called pump and they consume ATP

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87
Q

membrane proteins- cell-identity markers

A

-glycoproteins contribute to the glycocalyx, which enables the body to distinguish its own healthy cells from other things (diseased cells, invading organisms, etc.)

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88
Q

membrane proteins- cell-adhesion molecules

A

-allows cells to adhere to one another and to extracellular material

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89
Q

selective permeability def.

A

something can act as both a barrier and a pathway between the cytosol and extracellular fluid

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90
Q

rates of diffusion thru a membrane depend on: (5)

A
  1. temperature
  2. molecular weight of the molecule
  3. steepness of the concentration gradient
  4. membrane surface area
  5. membrane permeability to that molecule
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91
Q

what is facilitated diffusion?

A

-carrier-mediated transport of a solute thru a membrane down its concentration gradient
-no energy required!

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92
Q

what is active transport?

A

-a carrier protein moves a substance across a cell membrane against its concentration gradient
-energy (from ATP) is required!

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93
Q

functions of the sodium-potassium pump

A
  1. regulation of cell volume- more ions are pumped out than in, so it prevents cellular swelling
  2. maintenance of a membrane potential- the inside of the cell is more negatively charged than the outside
  3. heat production- heat is released as ATP is used for the pump
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94
Q

vesicular transport

A

-large amounts of material are moved inside bubble-like vesicles made of membrane

-endocytosis
-exocytosis

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95
Q

endocytosis

A

-phagocytosis
-pinocytosis
-receptor mediated endocytosis

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96
Q

how does the nervous system regulate internal functions?

A
  1. processing information about internal and external environments
  2. processing that info and determining if a response is necessary
  3. sending commands, mostly to muscle and glandular tissue, to carry out the responses
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97
Q

peripheral nervous system divisions are called…?

A
  1. sensory division/afferent division
  2. motor division/efferent division
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98
Q

myelin sheath

A

a spiral layer of insulation around a nerve fiber

-formed by oligodendrocytes in the CNS and by Schwann cells in the PNS

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99
Q

gaps in single axon

A

Ranvier
-each area covered in myelin is called an internode

100
Q

what does conduction speed of nerve fibers depend on?

A
  1. diameter of the fiber
  2. presence or absence of myelinated
101
Q

electrical potential

A

the difference in the concentration of charged particles between two points. measured as voltage

102
Q

electrical current

A

the flow of charged particles from one point to another

103
Q

what are things that have electrical potential are described as…?

A

polarized (living cells are polarized)

104
Q

what is the charge difference across the plasma membrane of a cell at rest called?

A

resting membrane potential (RMP)

105
Q

what is the RMP of neurons

A

-70 mV (this means the inside of the cell is more negative)

106
Q

what is depolarization?

A
  • a ligand binds to a receptor and allows Na+ into the cell. This cancels out some of the negative internal charge and makes the inside of the cell more positive
107
Q

hyperpolarization

A

less likely that an action potential will occur

108
Q

what does local potential do?

A

carry the signal from the dendrites and around the cell body

-local potential is a short-range change in voltage

109
Q

what does action potential do?

A

carry the signal along the axon

110
Q

action potential steps

A
  1. adds local potential and depolarizes membrane at that point
  2. local potential rises to threshold potential (abt -55 mV)
  3. membrane depolarizes
  4. voltage peaks at approx. +35 mV. membrane is now positive on inside and negative on outside
  5. action potential kicks in, and repolarization
  6. membrane voltage drops to 1 or 2 mV more negative than the original RMP, which produces a negative overshoot called hyperpolarization
  7. returns to the RMP
111
Q

unmyelinated fibers

A

-continuous conduction
-only travels in one direction

112
Q

myelinated fibers

A

-saltatory conduction
-voltage-gated Na+ channels are concentrated in the nodes of Ranvier, and Na+ couldn’t enter the cell where myelin is present anyway

113
Q

what is a synapse?

A

the area where two cells come together.

114
Q

neurotransmitter

A

chemical messenger type thingy

ex. acetylcholine, glycine, GABA, epinephrine, etc.

115
Q

synaptic transmission- excitatory cholinergic synapse

A
  1. the arrival of action potentials at the axon terminal opens voltage-gated calcium channels
  2. CA2+ enters the neuron and triggers exocytosis of the synaptic vesicles, and releases ACh

watch a video for the rest.

116
Q

how can neurotransmitters be removed from receptors in the synaptic cleft?

A
  1. neurotransmitter degradation- via enzyme activity
  2. reuptake- into the presynaptic neuron
  3. diffusion- out of the synaptic cleft
117
Q

what is a reflex

A

-quick, involuntary stereotyped reactions of glands of muscles to stimulation
-reflexes involving skeletal muscle are called somatic reflexes

118
Q

steps of a somatic reflex

A

-somatic receptors sense an input
-afferent nerve fibers carry the sensory information from the receptors to the spinal cord
-the pathway moves through an integrating center, which consists of the interneurons of gray matter of the spinal cord. Sometimes these aren’t involved though.
-efferent nerve fibers carry motor impulses to the muscles
-effector muscles contract

119
Q

what is a muscle spindle?

A

-stretch receptors embedded in the muscles
-examples of proprioreceptors, which monitor position and movement
-consist of seven or eight modified muscle fibers enclosed in a fibrous capsule

120
Q

what do muscle spindles do?

A

inform the brain of muscle length and body movements. the brain then sends motor commands back to the muscle to control muscle tone, posture, and balance.

121
Q

what is the autonomic nervous system?

A

a part of the motor nervous system that regulates the activities of glands, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscles

-an involuntary system
-responsible for visceral reflexes
-glands, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscles do not need input from ANS to function, but just to adjust activity

122
Q

ANS divisions

A

-sympathetic
-parasympathetic

123
Q

sympathetic associated with..?

A

-activity or fight or flight responses
-alertness heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory activity, glucose concentrations, and blood flow to muscle are increased
-digestive activity, urinary activity, and blood flow to the skin and digestive tract are decreased

124
Q

parasympathetic associated with…?

A

-times of calm or relaxation
-digestive and waste elimination activities are more prominent

125
Q

what is dual innervation?

A

most of the viscera (organs) receive nerve fibers from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
-in most cases, the two divisions have antagonistic effects on the same organs. in some cases (salivary glands) they are cooperative

126
Q

what is a sensory receptor?

A

any structure specialized to detect a stimulus
*some are just bare nerve endings while others are specialized cells adjacent to afferent neurons

127
Q

what is the purpose of sensory receptors?

A

to convert one form of energy (stimulus) into nerve signals
THIS PROCESS IS CALLED TRANSDUCTION

128
Q

modality (SR info)

A

-type of stimulation (vision, hearing, taste, etc.)
-modality is determined by where the sensory signals end in the brain

129
Q

how can receptors be classified?

A

-stimulus modality
-distribution of receptors

130
Q

thermoreceptors

A

heat and cold

131
Q

photoreceptors

A

light

132
Q

nociceptors

A

pain

133
Q

chemoreceptors

A

chemicals (odors, tastes, body fluid composition)

134
Q

mechanoreceptors

A

-physical deformation caused by vibration, touch, pressure, stretch or tension.
(includes hearing, balance, and many diff. receptors in the skin)

135
Q

proprioceptors

A

sense the position and movements of the body or its part. found in muscles, tendons and joint capsules.

136
Q

are skeletal muscles voluntary or involuntary?

A

voluntary- they will not contract unless stimulated to do so

137
Q

why do we see striations in muscles?

A

they are due to an overlapping arrangement of internal contractile proteins

138
Q

what is the cytoplasm in a muscle fiber called?

A

sarcoplasm

139
Q

what is another name for the plasma membrane?

A

-sarcolemma
-it has numerous tubular infoldings called transverse (T) tubules

140
Q

what is the sarcoplasm made up of?

A

-mostly long strings of proteins, or myofilaments, called myofibrils
-large amount of glycogen as well as myoglobin, which is an oxygen-binding protein

141
Q

what is another name for the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum
-contains really high amounts of calcium

142
Q

2 types of myofilaments

A
  1. thick filaments
  2. thin filaments
143
Q

thick filaments

A

consist of many molecules of the protein myosin

144
Q

thin filaments

A

-consist of two intertwined strands of actin
-each bead of the actin has an active site that can bind to the head of a myosin molecule
-also includes the protein tropomyosin, which covers these active sites when at rest
-each tropomyosin has yet another protein, troponin, bound to it

145
Q

what does the Z line do?

A

-provides anchorage for the thin filaments
-a segment from one Z line to the next is called a sarcomere
-z lines are pulled closer together during contraction

146
Q

when will skeletal muscles contract?

A

when stimulated by somatic motor neurons

147
Q

what is a motor unit?

A

one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers it innervates

148
Q

what is a neuromuscular junction?

A

the point where a neuron meets a muscle fiber

149
Q

what neurotransmitter is secreted onto skeletal muscle?

A

acetylcholine (ACh)

150
Q

what is acetylcholinesterase

A

-enzyme
-breaks down the ACh after stimulation of the muscle has occurred

151
Q

steps of muscle contraction and know these steps in depth

A
  1. excitation
  2. excitation-contraction coupling
  3. contraction
  4. relaxation
152
Q

how are the nervous system and endocrine system complimentary?

A

nervous system tends to act quickly, while the endocrine system will have longer lasting effects

153
Q

what are hormones?

A

chemical messengers transported thru the bloodstream to target tissues

154
Q

other methods of cell-to-cell communication

A
  1. neurotransmitters- secreted by neurons and bind to receptors on adjacent cells
  2. paracrine messengers- secreted by one cell and diffuse to adjacent cells, where they bind to receptors and cause changes
155
Q

exocrine glands

A

secrete their materials via ducts either onto the surface of the body or into the digestive tract

156
Q

endocrine glands

A

do not utilize ducts and they secrete their materials into the bloodstream. they include a very high density of blood capillaries.

157
Q

what is the hypothalamus?

A

-small area located at the base of the brain
-many functions including some endocrine

158
Q

pituitary gland (hypohysis)

A

-suspended from the floor of the hypothalamus by a stalk called the infundibulum

159
Q

alt. name for the anterior pituitary

A

adenohypophysis
-no direct nervous connection to the hypothalamus, but it is linked to it by the hypophyseal portal system

160
Q

alt. name for the posterior pituitary

A

neurohypophysis
-is an extension of the hypothalamus

161
Q

what two hormones are released from the posterior pituitary

A
  1. oxytocin (OT)
  2. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
    -produced by neurons in 2 separate nuclei within the hypothalamus
162
Q

oxytocin

A

-responsible for the contraction of myoepithelial cells in breast tissue which results in the expulsion of milk
-surges in both sexes during sexual arousal and orgasm
-essential for contractions during childbirth
-feelings of sexual satisfaction and emotional bonding

163
Q

anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

A

-increases water retention by the kidneys (reduces urine volume and helps prevent dehydration)
-alcohol inhibits release of ADH
-increase in osmolarity releases ADH
-excessive blood pressure inhibits release of ADH

164
Q

hypothalamic hormones

A
  1. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
  2. thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
  3. corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
  4. prolactin inhibiting hormone (PIH)
  5. growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
  6. somatostatin (SST)
165
Q

Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH)

A

Causes the release of Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) from the anterior pituitary.

166
Q

Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH)

A

Causes the release of Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) from the anterior pituitary

167
Q

Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone (CRH)

A

Causes the release of Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary

168
Q

Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)

A

Inhibits the release of Prolactin (PRL) from the anterior pituitary. This is actually dopamine.

169
Q

Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH)

A

– Causes the release of Growth Hormone (GH)
from the anterior pituitary

170
Q

Somatostatin (SST)

A

-also known as Growth Hormone-Inhibiting Hormone (GHIH)
– Inhibits the release of Growth Hormone (GH) from the anterior pituitary.

171
Q

hormones of anterior pituitary

A
  1. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone
  2. Luteinizing Hormone
  3. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
  4. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
  5. Prolactin
  6. Growth Hormone
172
Q

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone

A

In ovaries, stimulates the secretion of ovarian sex hormones (estrogen and progesterone) and causes development of the follicles, which contain eggs. In males, stimulates sperm production.

173
Q

Luteinizing Hormone

A

In females, stimulates
ovulation (and the development of the corpus
luteum). In males, causes secretion of
testosterone.

174
Q

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

A

Causes growth of
thyroid gland and release of thyroid hormone

175
Q

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone

A

Causes the growth
of the adrenal cortex and the release of cortisol

176
Q

Prolactin

A

Causes the production of milk in breast
tissue. Levels increase greatly during pregnancy
and lactation.

177
Q

Growth Hormone

A

Stimulates mitosis and cellular
differentiation in all tissues and thus promotes
growth in general.

178
Q

prolactin

A

-milk production and mammary gland growth and development
-causes parental behaviors in a number of species
-affects hair growth and sebaceous gland activity

179
Q

physiological roles of thyroid hormone

A

1.growth and development
2. thermogenesis and metabolic rate- increase metabolic rate by increasing production of ATP and heat

180
Q

glucocorticoid effects on immune system

A

-stimulate fat and protein catabolism
-stimulate gluconeogenesis
-anti-inflammatory effects
-OVERSECRETION can suppress the immune system

181
Q

aldosterone

A

-hormone called a mineralocorticoid because it helps to regulate the levels of electrolytes
-stimulates kidneys to retain sodium and water
-helps to maintain blood volume and blood pressure
-the release is under the control of the renin/angiotensin system (know in depth)

182
Q

what are the islets of langerhans?

A

-clusters of cells that secrete several hormones, including glucagon and insulin

183
Q

when is glucagon released

A

between meals after the carbohydrates, fats and proteins from our previous meal have been moved into our tissues (it makes sure glucose levels in the blood dont get too low)

184
Q

what does glucagon do?

A

-causes glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen into glucose)
-gluconeogenesis (formation of glucose from fats and proteins)
*both provide glucose to maintain glucose levels in the blood

185
Q

when is insulin released?

A

-during and immediately following a meal
(targets are the liver, skeletal muscle, and adipose tissue)

186
Q

insulin function

A

-stimulates cells to absorb glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids either to store them or to metabolize them for energy.
-it therefore promotes the synthesis of glycogen, fat, and proteins and enhances cellular growth and differentiation

187
Q

hyposecretion

A

inadequate hormone release

188
Q

hypersecretion

A

excessive hormone release

189
Q

what is a goiter

A

-overgrowth of the thyroid gland due to excessive release of TSH
-may develop due to dietary deficiency of iodine

190
Q

why does a goiter develop if iodine isnt available

A

If you don’t get enough iodine in your diet, your thyroid makes more cells (and grows) to try to make more thyroid hormone.

191
Q

Hashimoto’s disease

A

-autoimmune
disorder in which antibodies attack the
thyroid gland and decrease the ability to
produce thyroid hormone. It is the most
common cause of hypothyroidism in North
America.
* A goiter develops.

192
Q

graves disease

A

-most common type of hyperthyroidism
-Due to antibodies that bind to the TSH
receptor on the thyroid gland and cause
overstimulation of the thyroid gland.
* Symptoms include a goiter, elevated
metabolic rate, nervousness, weight loss,
abnormal sweating, and bulging of the
eyes.

193
Q

type 1 diabetes

A

-lack of production of insulin (genetic or caused by disease)
-5-10% of cases in the US
-insulin doses are effective

194
Q

type 2 diabetes

A

-due to insulin resistance
-may be due to genetic mutations
-may be due to obesity

195
Q

cardiac conduction steps

A
  1. SA node fires
  2. excitation spreads through atrial myocardium
  3. AV node fires
  4. excitation spreads down AV bundle
  5. subendocardial conducting network distributes excitation through ventricular myocardium
196
Q

what is contraction of the heart called?

A

systole

197
Q

what is relaxation of the heart called?

A

diastole

198
Q

how do the cells of the SA node act rhythmically?

A

they are autorhythmic

199
Q

steps of action potentials in cardiomyocytes

A
  1. voltage-gated Na+ channels open
  2. Na+ inflow depolarizes the membrane and triggers the opening of still more Na+ channels, creating a positive feedback cycle and rapidly rising membrane voltage
  3. Na+ channels close when the cell depolarizes, and the voltage peaks at nearly +30 mV
  4. Ca2+ channels entering through slow Ca2+ channels prolongs depolarization of membrane, creating a plateau. Plateau falls slightly because of some K+ leakage, but most K+ channels remain closed until end of plateau
  5. Ca2+ channels close and Ca2+ is transported out of cell. K+ channels open, and rapid K+ outflow returns membrane to its resting potential
200
Q

what is the significance of the Ca+ plateau?

A

causes a longer, more sustained contraction as opposed to quick twitch

201
Q

how long is the refractory period in cardiac muscle? and why is it important?

A

-250 ms (as opposed to 2 ms in skeletal muscle)
-this prevents summation and tetanus of any kind

202
Q

p-wave

A

atria contracts

203
Q

QRS interval + T-wave

A

ventricles contract

204
Q

what is cardiac output?

A

the amount of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called the cardiac output (CO)

205
Q

cardiac output equation

A

CO= heart rate (HR) x stroke volume (SR)

206
Q

tachycardia

A

a persistent resting adult heart rate above 100 beats/min. may occur due to stress, stimulants, heart disease, etc.

207
Q

bradycardia

A

a persistent resting adult heart rate lower than 60 beats/min. common during sleep and in endurance-trained athletes

208
Q

what is the frank-starling law

A

stroke volume is proportional to end-diastolic volume. (the ventricles eject as much blood as they receive)

209
Q

3 main categories of blood vessel?

A
  1. arteries
  2. veins
  3. capillaries
210
Q

capillary bed

A

web-like networks in which capillaries are arranged

211
Q

how is blood flow to particular capillaries regulated?

A

by constriction or dilation of upstream arterioles or by precapillary sphincters

212
Q

systolic pressure

A

peak pressure recorded during ventricular systole

213
Q

diastolic pressure

A

the minimum arterial pressure, measured during ventricular diastole,

214
Q

what is pulse pressure?

A

the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure

215
Q

what is the mean arterial pressure (MAP) equation?

A

diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
-gravity effects MAP (MAP will be higher in ankles v. head)

216
Q

3 main variables that determine blood pressure:

A
  1. cardiac output
  2. blood volume
  3. resistance to flow
217
Q

how does aldosterone increase blood pressure?

A

promotes sodium and water retention in the kidneys

218
Q

how does angiotensin II increase blood pressure?

A

-causes vasoconstriction

219
Q

how does antidiuretic hormone increase blood pressure?

A

promotes water retention and vasoconstriction

220
Q

venous return

A

the flow of blood back to the heart

221
Q

5 mechanisms that help venous return:

A
  1. pressure gradient (promotes flow to heart)
  2. gravity (from head to neck)
  3. skeletal muscle pump (contractions of muscles and presence of valves pushes blood in one direction)
  4. thoracic pump (when you inhale, thoracic cavity expands and thoracic pressure drops, then diaphragm increase abdominal pressure. this moves blood towards heart)
    5.cardiac suction (suction from the empty atria draws blood in)
222
Q

what are alveoli?

A

the site of gas exchange between the air and the blood

223
Q

pulmonary ventilation

A

repetitive cycle of inspiration and expiration

224
Q

why does air flow in and out?

A

due to variations in pressure in the thoracic cavity caused by changes in the volume of the thoracic cavity
-contraction enlarges the thoracic cavity and decreases the pressure inside that cavity

225
Q

what muscles drive respiration?

A

diaphragm and intercostal muscles

226
Q

what 2 factors regulate resistance to airflow?

A

-diameter of the bronchioles
-pulmonary compliance

227
Q

what does pulmonary surfactant do?

A

disrupts the hydrogen bonds and reduces surface tension to increase compliance!

228
Q

infant respiratory distress syndrome

A

the lack of pulmonary surfactant in premature infants. it causes a difficulty breathing.

229
Q

what drives the movements of oxygen and carbon dioxide in and out of the blood?

A

differences in partial pressures of those individual gases

230
Q

2 ways that oxygen is carried in transport?

A
  1. 98.5% is bound to hemoglobin
  2. the rest is dissolved in the blood plasma
231
Q

what is the utilization coefficient?

A

the percentage of oxygen that is released from hemoglobin at the systemic capillaries

232
Q

3 ways that carbon dioxide is carried in transport?

A
  1. about 90% of carbon dioxide reacts with water to form carbonic acid, which dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions
  2. about 5% is bound to hemoglobin
  3. about 5% is dissolved in the blood
233
Q

carbon dioxide loading steps:

A
  1. The conversion of carbon dioxide to
    bicarbonate and hydrogen ions occurs
    much more quickly inside RBC’s due to
    the presence of carbonic anhydrase.
    2.The bicarbonate gets pumped out of the
    RBC in exchange for a chloride ion. This is
    called the chloride shift.
    3.The hydrogen ion binds to hemoglobin and
    promotes the release of oxygen.
234
Q

acidosis

A

a blood pH lower than 7.35
-can correct acidosis by hyperventilating- thus driving off carbon dioxide. shifts the carbonic acid rxn to the left

235
Q

alkalosis

A

-blood pH greater than 7.45
-can correct by hypoventilating-allows for accumulation of carbon dioxide. drives the same reaction to the right

236
Q

functions of the kidneys

A
  1. filter the blood and excrete metabolic wastes, toxins, drugs, hormones, salts, and hydrogen ions
  2. regulate blood pressure, blood volume, and blood osmolarity by regulating water output
  3. regulate the electrolyte and acid-base balance of body fluids
237
Q

main nitrogenous wastes

A
  1. 50% is urea (from proteins)
  2. uric acid (from nucleic acids)
  3. creatinine (from creatine phosphate)
238
Q

why do you want to get rid of nitrogenous waste from the body?

A

they are toxic! :D

239
Q

parts of the renal tubule

A

in order:
1. proximal convoluted tubule
2. the loop of henle- with descending and ascending limbs
3. distal convoluted tubule

-distal convoluted tubule drains into collecting duct, then drains into a space that leads to the ureter

240
Q

4 steps of urine formation:

A
  1. glomerular filtration
  2. tubular reabsorption
  3. tubular secretion
  4. water conservation
241
Q

how does fluid name change as it moves through the nephron?

A

-fluid in capsular space is called glomerular filtrate
-fluid in the tubule is called tubular fluid
-fluid from the collecting duct and onward is called urine

242
Q

glomerular filtration

A

-when water and some other materials (electrolytes, glucose, amino acids, etc.) pass from capillaries of the glomerulus into the capsular space of the nephron
-driven by the high pressures in the glomerular capillaries (afferent arteriole is larger than efferent arteriole)

243
Q

what is glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

A

the amount of filtrate formed per minutes by the two kidneys. it is not always constant. Regulation of GFR comes through regulation of glomerular blood pressure

244
Q

tubular reabsorption

A

-process of reclaiming water and other filtrates from the tubular fluid and returning them to the blood. about 99% are reabsorbed

245
Q

tubular secretion

A

-This is the process by which the renal
tubule extracts materials from the
peritubular capillaries and secretes them
into the tubular fluid.
* This includes movement of nitrogenous
wastes, drugs, and other contaminants.

246
Q

where does water conservation mainly occur?

A

the collecting duct