Blood Bank Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is not efficient at causing direct hemmaglutination?

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

b. IgM

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2
Q

What reaction grade would occur if compliment was activated?

a. 4+ at room temperature
b. 3+ at AHG
c. Hemolysis
d. Negative

A

c. Hemolysis

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3
Q

Some blood group antibodies may react stronger with the red cells of individuals who have inherited identical alleles for the antigen to which the antibody is directed. This is known as:

a. post zone effect
b. pro zone effect
c. equivalence effect
d. dosage

A

d. dosage

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4
Q

Patient plasma with donor red cells produced an agglutination of 1+. How do you interpret this?
a. The reaction is weak, the patient can probably tolerate the donor cells
b. the donor blood is compatible with the patient plasma
c. the donor plasma is compatible with patient blood
d. the donor blood is incompatible with patient plasma

A

d. the donor blood is incompatible with patient plasma

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5
Q

Which of the following occurs during storage of red blood cells?
a. pH decreases
b. 2,3 DPG increases
c. ATP increases
d. Plasma K+ decreases

A

a. pH decreases

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6
Q

Which additive solution increases shelf life the longest to 42 days?
a. ACD-A
b. CPDA-A
c. CP2D
d. AS-3

A

d. AS-3

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7
Q

A nurse just called to add on a crossmatch to a pre-transfusion specimen you worked on 4 days ago. What is the most appropriate course of action?

a. check to see if there is enough volume in the original sample to complete the workup
b. perform compatibility testing on the original specimen
c. indicate to the nurse that a new specimen needs to be collected for pre-transfusion testing
d. Repeat the type and screen testing on the original sample to see if the patient has made any antibodies after transfusion

A

c. indicate to the nurse that a new specimen needs to be collected for pre-transfusion testing

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8
Q

What test that you have learned counts as phenotype testing?

a. ABO
b. antibody screen
c. IAT
d. polymerase chain reaction

A

a. ABO

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9
Q

The immuno dominant sugar responsible for blood group A specificity is:
a. fucose
b. N-acetyl galactosamine
c. D-galactose
d. N-acetyl glucosamine

A

b. N-acetyl galactosamine

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10
Q

What property makes the ABO system the most significant for transfusion compatibility?
a. antibody ability to fix complement
b. low distribution of antigen throughout the body
c.antibody is usually IgG
d. all of the above

A

a. antibody ability to fix complement

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11
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a. an individual with the BO genotype is homozygous for B antigen
b. an individual with BB genotype is homozygous for B antigen
c. an individual with OO genotype is homozygous for O antigen
d. an individual with AB genotype is heterozygous for A and B antigens

A

a. an individual with the BO genotype is homozygous for B antigen

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12
Q

A mother is blood type O and a father is AB, what is the predicted percentage of offspring they would have that are blood type O?

a. 0
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100

A

a. 0

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13
Q

A child is blood types as A, their biological sibling is O, their mother is blood type B, what is the father’s genotype?

a. OO
b. BO
c. AO
d. AB

A

c. AO

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14
Q

Assuming the interpretation is correct, Which result is in error?
Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
Anti-D: 4+
A1 cell: 0
B cell: 0
Blood type: A pos

a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-D
d. A1 cell
e. B cell

A

e. B cell

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15
Q

What is the blood type of the patient with the following serological reactions?

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 0
Control: 0
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 4+

A

O

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16
Q

What is the most likely blood type of the patient with the following serological reactions?

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 2+mf
Anti-A,B: 2+mf
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 0

a. A2
b. B3
c. Bx
d. Am

A

b. B3

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17
Q

Which of the following would NOT be reasonable interpretation for these serological results.

Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 3+
Anti-A,B: 4+
A1 cell: 2+
B cell: 4+

a. A1B with anti-I
b. A2B with anti-A1
c. AB2 with anti-B1
d. O with cold agglutination

A

c. AB2 with anti-B1

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18
Q

Anti-A1 lectin is QC’d everyday of use. It is used today, what two reagents are the best choices for positive and negative controls?

a. A1 cells and B cells
b. B cells and O cells
c. Anti-A and Anti-B
d. A1 cells and A2 cells

A

d. A1 cells and A2 cells

19
Q

Which of the following ABO blood groups contains the least amount of H substance?

a. A1
b. A2
c. B
d. O

A

a. A1

20
Q

A patient with hh, Le,Le, see, A genes will express what antigens on their red cells?
a. A,H, Lea
b. Lea only
c. A and H only
d. A, H, Lea, Leb

A

b. Lea only

21
Q

What is the Rh blood group named for?

a. its function on the cell
b. the scientist who discovered it
c. its position in the alphabet
d. a monkey

A

d. a monkey

22
Q

Which of the following is the most common Rh genotype in asians?
a. Dce/dce
b. DCe/DCe
c. DcE/dce
d. DCe/dce

A

b. DCe/DCe

23
Q

(Choose all that apply) Which Rh system antibodies can an R0R0 patient make is they are immunized?

anti-D
anti-C
anti-E
anti-e
anti-c
anti-d

A

anti-C, anti-E

24
Q

An individual has the following Rh phenotype: D+ C+ E= c+ e+. Using Fischer/Race terminology what is the most likely genotype if they are Caucasian?

a. DCe/dce
b. Dce/DcE
c. DCe/DcE
d. DCe/ dcE

A

a. DCe/dce

25
Q

A donor unit of which genotype would be acceptable to give to patient who has developed an anti-c?

a. r’r
b. R0R1
c. R2r’
d. R1r’

A

d. R1r’

26
Q

TRUE or FALSE. A partial D patient can make anti-D

A

TRUE

27
Q

Which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in caucasians?

a. D
b. E
c. c
e. e

A

e. e

28
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding antigens in the Rh system?

a. D and d are an antithetical pair
b. C and c are an antithetical pair
c. E and e are an antithetical pair
d. f is the combination of ce from one haplotype

A

a. D and d are an antithetical pair

29
Q

In which patient population is It most important to identify partial D?

a. cardiac
b. elderly
c. prenatal
d. sickle cell disease

A

c. prenatal

30
Q

Cells carrying a weak D antigen require the use of what test to demonstrate its presence?

a. Direct antiglobulin test
b. indirect antiglobulin test
c. microplate test
d. warm autoadsorption

A

b. indirect antiglobulin test

31
Q

Which property does anti-D share with anti-B?

a. immunoglobulin subclass
b. preferred reactive temperature
c. immune stimulation trigger
d. ability to cause transfusion reaction

A

d. ability to cause transfusion reaction

32
Q

Which of the following is not true about Rh null cells

a. typically Rhag negative
b. shaped like stomatocytes
c. shaped like acanthocytes
d. don’t have D, C, c, e, or E antigens

A

c. shaped like acanthocytes

33
Q

A woman types as Rh positive. She has anti-c titer of 32. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by HDN. What is the father’s most likely rh genotype?

a. rr
b. r”r
c. R1r
d. R2r

A

c. R1r

34
Q

Which of the following reagents is used to facilitate hemagglutination following sensitization of red cells with an IgG alloantibody?

a. anti- human globulin
b. low ionic strength solution c
c. poly ethylene glycol
d. 22% bovine albumin

A

a. anti- human globulin

35
Q

You are running a paternity test for a mother who has birthed fraternal twins. You begin testing with ABO and Rh phenotype for all. The following are the results:
Mother: O D(+) C (+) c(=) E (=) e(+)
Twin A: A D(+) C (+) c(=) E (=) e(+)
Twin B: A D(+) C (+) c(+) E (+) e(+)
What must be the father’s Rh genotype be?

a. R1R1
b. R2R2
c.R1R0
d. R1R2

A

d. R1R2

36
Q

Help the student you are training to find blood compatible for your patient with an anti-E. You walk them to the frequency chart to look up the frequency of E antigen in general population. It is roughly ____%. Blood compatible for an antigen of this frequency is ______%. To be sure you will find one unit of compatible blood you would type ____ ABO compatible units for the E antigen

A

should be (70,30, 3)
but on test (30,70,1) added pts back

37
Q

In IAT tests, RBCs must be washed in saline 4 times before the addition of AHG reagent in order to:
a. wash away any hemolyses cells
b. remove traces of free serum globulins
c. neutralize any excess AHG reagent
d. increase the antibody binding of antigen

A

b. remove traces of free serum globulins

38
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the net charge surrounding red blood cells?

a. dielectric constant
b. van der Waals forces
c. hydrogen bonding
d. zeta potential

A

d. zeta potential

39
Q

Who developed the indirect antiglobulin test for “incomplete” antibody detection?

a. Orwell
b. Landsteiner
c. Weiner
d. Coombs

A

d. Coombs

40
Q

Interpret the following serological results
Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 2+
Anti-D: 2+
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 0

A

B pos

41
Q

What follow up testing might you perform to complete this work up? This patient is a baby

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 2+
Anti-D: 0

a. saline control
b. weak D test
c. reverse typing testing
d. antibody screen

A

b. weak D test

42
Q

Interpret the following serological results.
Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 0
Anti-D: 0
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 0

a. A pos
b. B pos
c. O pos
d. AB pos
e. A neg
f. B neg
g. O neg
h. AB neg
i. ABO discrepancy

A

ABO discrepancy

43
Q

Interpret the following test results: (IS, 37C, AHG, CC)
IS 37 AHG CC
SCI: 0,0,0,0
SCII: 0,0,0,0
SCIII: 0,0,0,0

a. positive
b. negative
c. invalid

A

c. invalid