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A-DAD IV - Test 1 > Chapter 2 > Flashcards

Chapter 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Subclinical infection

A

signs and symptoms of infection are not detectable

asymptomatic gonorrhea

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2
Q

acute infection

A

characterized by relatively rapid onset and brief duration

most bacterial infections

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3
Q

fulminant infection

A

extremely sudden onset with intense s/s. Typically life threatening
caused by acute infection
infection due to biological warfare (bacillus anthracis and yersinia pestis)
another example could be francisella tularensis?

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4
Q

chronic infection

A

persists for months to years
mycobacteria
staph. aureus

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5
Q

dormant infection

A

metabolically quiescent, replicates slowly

TB

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6
Q

localized infection

A

confined to small region

staph. aureus

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7
Q

disseminated infection

A

starts at one region and spreads
hematogenous staph osteomyelitis
gonococcal septic arthritis

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8
Q

secondary infection

A

microbial invasion that is subsequent and different from original microbe
caused by disseminated infection
staph. aureus pneumonia followed by flu

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9
Q

mixed infection

A

two or more bacteria infecting same tissue

diabetic extremity infection

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10
Q

carrier state

A 
although never infected , the host continues to shed bacteria and spores to infect others.
typhoid fever 
salmonella and shigella gastroenteritis
CDAD (C. dificile)
staph
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11
Q

pili

slime

A

increased ability to establish residence in host
Pili: E. coli, Salmonella, Neisseria, Strep Pyogenes
Slime: staph Epidermidis

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12
Q

hyaluronidase
coagulase
streptokinase

A

invasins which contribute to S. aureus pathogenicity

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13
Q

encapsulation

A 
avoid phagocytosis
strep pneumoniae
H. Influenze
Neisseria meningitidis
klebsiella pneumoniae
salmonella typhi
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14
Q

Prevent oxidative burst

prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion

A 
impair or prevent phagocytic killing
mycobacterium tuberculosis
legionella pneumonphilia
listeria monocytogenes
toxoplasma gondii
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15
Q

shields pathogen from humoral immune response

A 
intracellular growth in nonphagocytic cells
salmonella, shigella
chlamydia
rickettsia
neisseria
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16
Q

exotoxin = proteins

A 
secreted upon lysis
more specific symptoms
highly toxic
Highly immunogenic
toxoid potential: formaldehyde
No fever
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17
Q

endotoxin = lipid portion of LPS

A 
release of endogenous pyrogens
most G (-)
salmonella typhi
proteum species
neisseria meningitidis
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18
Q

facilitate scavenging of iron

A

siderophores
E coli
salmonella

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19
Q

bug that can inhibit opsonization and kill phagocyte

A

S. aureus

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20
Q

bug that can inhibit phagocytosis

A

strep pneumoniae

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21
Q

bug that can inhibit lysosomal fusion

A

M. Tuberculosis

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22
Q

bug that can block activation by interferon gamma

A

mycobacteria

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23
Q

8 ways to avoid immune defense

A 
inhibit:
opsonization
chemotaxis
phagocytosis
lysosomal fusion

kill phagocyte

escape lysosome and grow in cytoplasm

block activation of interferon gamma

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24
Q

superantigen

A

S. aureus

S. pyogenes

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25
Q

A-B toxin

A

diphtheria

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26
Q

G ( - ) endotoxin

A 
LPS
which screws up clotting, liver (leading to hypoglycemia), fever, vascular permeability (hypotension), complement pathway (shock), IgE
S/S: fever, diarrhea, vomit
weakly toxic
poor immunogenicity
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27
Q

biofilm bugs

A 
S. epidermidis
S. aureus
S. mutuns
listeria
p. aeruginosa
candida
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28
Q

Opportunistic infection

A 
aspergillus
cryc.
listeria
p. aeurginosa
acinetobacter
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29
Q

if pt has immunoglobulin defect, susceptible to

A

s. penumoniae

h. influenza

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30
Q

drugs that can cause fever

A

phenytoin
Amphotercin B
Ecstacy

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31
Q

Drugs that mask fever

A

NSAID
acetaminophen
corticosteroid

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32
Q

brain abcess

A

aspergillus
mycobacterial
candida
enterobacteriaceae

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33
Q

meningitis/encephalitis (viruses)

A

measles

rabies

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34
Q

skin infections (viruses)

A 
varicella zoster
HHV 6
small pox
human papillomavirus
parvovirus (fifth's disease)
rubella
measles
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35
Q

gastroenteritis (viral)

A

rotavirus

norovirus

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36
Q

Primary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

folliculitis, futuncles, carbuncles

A

hair
staph aureus
p. aeruginosa

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37
Q

Primary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

erysipelas

A

skin
impetigo - around the mouth
s. pyogenes
s. aureus

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38
Q

Primary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

lymphagitis

A

red streaking

s. aureus
s. pyogenes

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39
Q

Primary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

cellulitis

A

s. pyogenes
s. aureus
Gram ( - ) bacilli
anaerobes

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40
Q

Primary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

myonecrosis

A

C perfringens

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41
Q

Primary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

necrotizing fasciitis I

A

bacteroides (B. fragilis)
group A strep (s. pyogenes
enterobacter

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42
Q

Primary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

necrotizing fasciitis II

A

S. pyogenes

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43
Q

secondary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

DEI = diabetic extremity infection

A 
s. aureus
s pyogenes
enterobact
anaerobes
p. aeruginosa
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44
Q

secondary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

pressure sore

A 
s. aureus
s pyogenes
enterobact
anaerobes
p. aeruginosa
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45
Q

secondary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

burn wound

A

s. aureus
strep
enterobact
p. aeruginosa

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46
Q

secondary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

human bite wound

A 
eikenella corrodens
s aureus
strep
corynebacterium
B. fragilis
anaerobes
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47
Q

secondary skin-soft tissue infection (SSTI)

animal bite wound

A

P. multocida
a aureus
strep
B. fragilis

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48
Q

post traumatic osteomyelitis

A

s aureus
streptococci
Gram negative bacilli

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49
Q

osteomyelitis with implants

A 
S. epidermidis
S. aureus
strep
enterococci
enterobact
P aeruginosa
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50
Q

osteomyelitis associated with vascular insuffiency (DEIs)

A

G ( - )

obligate anaerobes

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51
Q

osteomyelitis with bite wounds

A

pasteurella multocida (animals)
eikenella corrodens ( human)
staph
strep

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52
Q

osteomyelitis with IV drug abuse

A

staph
P. aeruginosa
serratia marcescens

53
Q

osteomyelitis with puncture wound

A

S. aureus

P. aeruginosa

54
Q

osteomyelitis with immunocomprimised

A

aspergillosis

candida

55
Q

septic arthritis

A 
most likely caused by:
N. gonorrhoeae
S. aureus
also caused by:
strep
G ( - ) aerobe
56
Q

URTI defined

A 
sinusitis
common cold
pharyngitis
epiglottis
laryngotracheitis
*Most commonly caused by viruses rather than bacteria
57
Q

otitis media

A

S. pneumoniae (most likely)
H. influenzae (2nd most likely)
M. catarrhalis (3rd most likely)

S. pyogenes
S aureus
E coli
P aeruginosa
mycoplasma
58
Q

pharyngitis

A

viral:
S pyogenes

H. influenzae
Chlamydia pneumoniae
M. pneumoniae
C. diphtheriae

59
Q

laryngitis (croup)

A

Viral:
parainf
RSV

S. aureus
S pyogenes
S pneumoniae
H. influenzae
M catarrhalis
60
Q

Epiglottis (emergency)

A

H. influenzae

61
Q

Sinusitis

A 
similar to otitis media
S. pneumoniae (most likely)
H. influenzae (2nd most likely)
M. catarrhalis (3rd most likely)
viruses
S pyogenes
S aureus
Anaerobes
62
Q

LRTI defined

A

bronchitis
bronchiolitis
pneumonia

63
Q

Acute bronchitis

A

usually viral
Bacteria:
mycoplasma
chlamydia

64
Q

Chronic bronchitis

A 
smoking, enviornment
H. influenzae/parainfl
S. pneumoniae
M. catarrhalis
N. meningitidis
K. pneumoniae
S. marcescens
P. aeruginosa
65
Q

Bronchiolitis

A

infants
RSV
parainfluenza

66
Q

Community acquired pneumonia (CAP)

A 
S. pneumonia
H. influenza
M. catarrhalis
M. pneumonia
C. pneumonia
MRSA
anaerobes
legionella
enterobact
p. aeruginosa
RSV
67
Q

hospital acquired pneumonia (HAP)

A 
Enterobact
p. aeruginosa
s. aureus
legionella
anaerobes
s. maltophilia
acinetobacter
68
Q

ventilator acquired pneumonia (VAP)

A

acinetobacter

69
Q

Nursing Home acquired pneumonia (NHAP)

A

Gram Negative bacilli

70
Q

aspiration pneumonia

A

anaerobes

Gram positive organisms

71
Q

fungal pneumonia

A 
aspergillus
blastomycosis
histoplasmosis
cryptococcus
candida
72
Q

encephalitis is caused by

A

virus

73
Q

mass lesion cause by

A

AKA brain abscess

bacteria

74
Q

s/s of meningitis

A

fever, HA, stiff neck, photophobia, abnormal CSF, and rash (N. meningiditis)
aggressive meningitis s/s: thromboses, superficial cerebritis

75
Q

s/s of brain abscess

A

somnolence, seizure, focal finding, weakness of limb

76
Q

Meningitis

A 
S. pneumoniae
strep
staph
N. meningitidis
H. influenzae (most likely)
Listeria monocytogenes (infant and old)
77
Q

encephalitis

A

herpes

78
Q

brain abscess

A

staph

s. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
enterobacteriaceae
pseudomonas

B. fragilis
anaerobes

79
Q

shunt infection

A

MRSA
MRSE
s. pneumoniae
strep

enterococci
N. meningitidis
H. influenzae
enterobacteriaceae
pseudomonas
corynebact
propionibacterium
candida
80
Q

Bacteremia

A

The invasion of the blood stream by pathogenic bacteria.

81
Q

primary bacteremia

A

Most often a nosocomial infection that is typically associated with an indwelling intravascular catheter, or it is a result of direct inoculation of the blood stream as, for example, a result of intravenous drug use.

82
Q

secondary bacteremia

A

Occurs when microorganisms causing infection at another site (e.g. pneumonia, pyelonephritis, skin or soft tissue) invade the blood stream and disseminate via the circulation

83
Q

infective endocarditis

A

Infection of the endocardial surface of the heart, usually the heart valves. Infection may rarely occur on the chordae tendinae or the atrial or ventricular wall surfaces especially at an area of anatomic abnormality such as septal defects or arteriovenous shunts (such as patent ductus arteriosus). Historically, infective endocarditis has been classified by the timing of the infection.

84
Q

acute bacterial endocarditis

A

Infection caused by invasive pyogenic bacteria, such as S. aureus, and characterized by high fevers and a relatively short toxic course of a few days to weeks. Structurally normal or abnormal valves may be involved.

85
Q

subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

More indolent infection caused by less virulent bacteria characterized by lower fevers, prolonged constitutional symptoms of anorexia, weight loss, and night sweats lasting for several weeks. This is usually an infection of abnormal valvular surfaces.

86
Q

defective (native) valve endocarditis

A 
Viridans Strep (alpha hemolytic)
S. bovis
87
Q

IV drug user endocarditis

A

MRSA

MSSA

88
Q

prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

MRSE (methicillin resistant staph epidermidis)
MRSA (methicillin resistant staph aureus)
gram negative bacilli

89
Q

enterococcal endocarditis

A

E. faecalis

90
Q

fungal endocarditis

A

candida

aspergillus

91
Q

inflammatory gastroenteritis

A

campylobact
E coli
shigella
salmonella

92
Q

non-inflammatory gastroenteritis

A

viruses
vibrio
e coli

93
Q

acute cystitis

A

E coli
S. saprophyticus

Enterococci
GNB

94
Q

pyelonephritis community

A

e coli

proteus

95
Q

pyelonephritis nosocomial

A

e coli
pseudomonas
enterococcus

96
Q

Catheter associated UTI

A 
MRSE (S. epidermidis)
MRSA
enterococcus
e coli
P. mirabilis
P. aeruginosa
Enterobact
serritia
candida
97
Q

prostatits acute

A

N. gonorrheae
chlamydia
enterobacteraciae

98
Q

prostatitis chronic

A

enterobacteraciae
pseudomonas
enterococcus

99
Q

urethritis, cervicitis, prostatitis

A

N. Gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia trachomatis

trichomonas vaginalis
ureaplasma urealyticum
mycoplasma genitalium

100
Q

PID

A

N. gonorrheae
chlamydia trachomatis

enteric gram neg
U. urealyticum
bacteroides (b. fragilis)

101
Q

genital herpes

A

HSV - 1 (oropharyngeal)

HSV - 2 (genital)

102
Q

chancroid

A

H. ducreyi

103
Q

syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

104
Q

epididymitis

A

N. gonorrheae
chlamydia trachomatis
e coli

105
Q

vaginosis

A

G. vaginalis
bacteroides
peptococcus
Candida

106
Q

vaginalis

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

Candida

107
Q

genital and oral warts

A

Human papillomavirus

108
Q

top 8 causes of diarrheal gastroenteritis

A
  1. norovius or rotavirus
  2. salmonella
  3. campylobact
  4. E. Coli
  5. enterotoxigenic diarrhea (cholera)
  6. clostridium
  7. shigella
  8. Cryptosporidiosis/Isospora, Staph, Yersiniosis, entamoeba (dysentery), giardia

H. influenza cannot cause gastroenteritis

109
Q

GI infections are most likely caused by these four bugs

A
  1. GNB
  2. Anaerobes (B. fragilis)
  3. enterococci
  4. strepto
110
Q

4 common bugs that cause UTI

A
  1. E Coli (80% of the times)
  2. GNB (klebsiella)
  3. Enterococci
  4. Staph saprophyticus
111
Q

In clean surgery you are most at risk for

A

skin bugs

  1. staph
  2. strep
  3. occasional GNB
112
Q

In dirty or gut surgery you are most at risk for

A
  1. GNB
  2. Anaerobe
  3. enterococci
  4. streptococci
113
Q

Clean surgery is defined as

A

Elective, not emergency, nontraumatic, primarily closed; no acute inflammation; no break in technique.
Respiratory, gastrointestinal, biliary, and genitourinary tracts are NOT ENTERED

114
Q

immunocomprimised patient likely to get…

A

TIC:

toxoplasma, isosporia, cryptosporidium

115
Q

Common protozoa in US

A

giardia (resistant to gastric acid)
entamoeba (resistant to gastric acid)
trichomonas vaginalis

116
Q

Can cross placenta

TORCHeS

A 
Toxoplasma
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes/HIV/HSV
Syphillis
117
Q

12 opportunistic bacterial infections (more likely to affect immunocomprimised people)

A
  1. Acinetobacter
  2. Nontypical mycobacterium
  3. Nocardia asteroids
  4. Corynebacterium jekium
  5. Listeria monocytogenes
  6. Stentrophomonas
  7. Alcaligenes xyloxidans
  8. Bartonella hesela
  9. Cryptosporidium
  10. PCP
  11. Isospora
  12. Toxoplasma
118
Q

Macrophage

A

Fights against: bacterial and fungal infection
chronic responder
fixed in tissue (spleen, lymph nodes, liver)
activated acquired system
enzyme

119
Q

Basophil

A

release histamine

120
Q

eosinophil

A

Releases: cytokine, PG, leukotriene, and ROS
Allergy, asthma
fights against: helminth and parasite

121
Q

neutrophil

A

Fights against: bacterial and fungal infection
acute respiratory
inc in number and inc in immature neutrophil (shift to left)
Job: phagocytosis and enzyme release

122
Q

B cell

A

produce memory cell

123
Q

TH1

A

activate macrophage

124
Q

TH2

A

antibody

125
Q

cytotoxic T cell

A

kill

126
Q

suppressor T cell

A

turns system off

127
Q

Complement does…

A

opsonize bug
contribute to clumping
contribute to chemotaxis
cell lysis

128
Q

8 Rapid detection testing for bugs

A 
pyogenes
influenza
MRSA
gonorrhea
chlamydia
HIV
VRE
C. Dificile
129
Q

test for virulence = EIA

A

antigen/toxin test

enzyme linked immunoassay

A-DAD IV - Test 1 (4 decks)

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