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1
Q

When was the first time Congress passed legislation to purchase and arm naval vessels?

A. 10 May 1774
B. 4 July 1776
C. 13 October 1775
D. 10 November 1775

A

C. 13 October 1775

2
Q

Almost every U.S. Sailor has experienced some type of major deployment.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

3
Q

Which, if any, of the following factors defines naval presence?

A. A major deployment
B. Having a naval force in a specific location
C. Deploying to a hostile area to confront adversaries
D. None of the above

A

B. Having a naval force in a specific location

4
Q

Deployments place naval forces in position for which of the following purposes?

A. To provide protection and support to Allied Forces in time of war
B. To stop the advance of the enemy as soon as possible
C. To engage the enemy promptly at the start of hostilities
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

5
Q

What is the maximum time U.S. naval forces can sustain operations in a crisis area?

A. 30 days
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. Indefinitely

A

D. Indefinitely

6
Q

What requirement must U.S. naval forces reflect to be effective in a presence role?

A. Friendliness toward the host country and its allies
B. Ready combat capability to respond to any threat
C. Current U.S. policy
D. Current technology

A

B. Ready combat capability to respond to any threat

7
Q

Which of the following responsibilities belongs to the Navy during wartime?

A. Functioning in a hostile environment
B. Power projection
C. Sea Control
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

8
Q

Sea control means having simultaneous control over the world’s international waters.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

9
Q

What basic military function provides U.S. forces with the ability to conduct sustained operations abroad?

A. Acquiring large amounts of the enemy’s territory
B. Large numbers of ground forces
C. Naval presence
D. Sea control

A

D. Sea control

10
Q

Denying the enemy the ability to advance close enough to use weapons is called

A. Intermediate hostile interdiction
B. Power projection
C. Naval presence
D. Sea control

A

B. Power projection

11
Q

An essential element of power projection is identified by which of the following requirements?

A. Amphibious ships
B. Counter insurgency warfare
C. Intermediate hostile interdiction
D. Forward deployed propositioning of ships

A

A. Amphibious ships

12
Q

The use of fleet ballistic missile submarines to provide a nuclear strike is an example of sea control.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

13
Q

The unrestricted global mobility of naval forces is based on which of the following items?

A. Treaties
B. Tradition
C. International Agreement
D. Difficulty of detection

A

B. Tradition

14
Q

The Soviets restrict their naval power projection to the waters around the Soviet Union and the East Coast of the United States.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

15
Q

The German navy has upgraded NATO’s air defense through the purchase of which of the following aircraft?

A. F-14D
B. F-104
C. F/A-18
D. Tornado

A

D. Tornado

16
Q

Who is responsible for NATO’s offensive and defensive capability in the Norwegian and Mediterranean Seas?

A. CINCLANT
B. CINCMED
C. SACLANT
D. SACPAC

A

C. SACLANT

17
Q

Which of the following areas of responsibility belongs to NATO?

A. Northwestern TVD
B. Western TVD
C. AFCENT
D. All of the above

A

C. AFCENT

18
Q

Which of the following areas of responsibility is a Soviet theater of operation?

A. Northwestern TVD
B. Southern TVD
C. Western TVD
D. Each of the above

A

D. Each of the above

19
Q

What are the Soviets conducting a long-range strategic nuclear modernization program?

A. To prove they are the world leaders in arms technology and to provide third world countries with new weapons
B. To replace every out-of-date nuclear warhead with a newer more efficient warhead
C. To comply with expected future strategic arms reduction treaty constraints
D. To reduce the chance of accidental war

A

C. To comply with expected future strategic arms reduction treaty constraints

20
Q

Which of the following choke points is NOT applicable to Soviet ships deploying from Severodvinsk?

A. Danish Straits
B. Barents Straits
C. Turkish Straits
D. Iceland-England Gap

A

C. Turkish Straits

21
Q

The Soviet Black Sea Fleet could be contained by sinking a ship in which of the following choke points?

A. Danish Straits
B. Barents Straits
C. Turkish Straits
D. Greenland-Iceland Gap

A

C. Turkish Straits

22
Q

Which of the following cities is the home port of the Soviet Black Sea Fleet?

A. Severodvinsk
B. Sevastopol
C. Tripoli
D. Ur

A

B. Sevastopol

23
Q

What is the primary mission of the Soviet Navy?

A. World-wide power projection
B. To provide security for Soviet shipping
C. To provide security for third-world allies
D. To provide support for Soviet land-based forces

A

D. To provide support for Soviet land-based forces

24
Q

The bulk of Soviet naval air power is derived by which of the following methods of providing air power?

A. Land-based aircraft
B. Aircraft carriers
C. Helo carriers
D. Destroyers

A

A. Land-based aircraft

25
Q

Which of the following Soviet fleets contain aircraft carriers?

A. Pacific Ocean Fleet
B. Black Sea Fleet
C. Caspian Fleet
D. Baltic Fleet

A

A. Pacific Ocean Fleet

26
Q

Which of the following Soviet fleets does NOT contain fleet ballistic missile submarines?

A. Pacific Ocean Fleet
B. Black Sea Fleet
C. Northern Fleet
D. Baltic Fleet

A

B. Black Sea Fleet

27
Q

Approximately 10 percent of the world’s sea trade passes through the Suez Canal at which of the following points?

A. Hormuz
B. Hormel
C. Abul Nabul
D. Babel Mandeb

A

D. Babel Mandeb

28
Q

Persian Gulf states are building overland oil-pipe routes to lessen the importance of the Israeli controlled Suez Canal.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

29
Q

USCENTCOM naval force in the Middle East and Southwest Asia are under which of the following commands?

A. Commander, Sixth Fleet
B. Commander, Seventh Fleet
C. Commander, Middle East Forces
D. Supreme Allied Commander NATO

A

C. Commander, Middle East Forces

30
Q

Which, if any, of the following statements describes why Africa is strategically important to western nations?

A. It is very suitable for weapons testing because large areas of land are uninhabited
B. It has port facilities suitable for naval bases
C. It has a wealth of natural resources
D. None of the above

A

C. It has a wealth of natural resources

31
Q

Operation El Dorado involved which of the following countries?

A. U.S. & Mozambique
B. U.S. & Grenada
C. U.S. & Libya
D. U.S. & Iraq

A

C. U.S. & Libya

32
Q

The U.S. could lose Philippine bases for which of the following reasons?

A. The leases must be periodically renegotiated with the Philippine government
B. Recent base realignment has indicated the bases are not cost effective
C. The Philippine government has cut off aid
D. The U.S. refuses to pay rent

A

A. The leases must be periodically renegotiated with the Philippine government

33
Q

Which of the following factors contribute(s) to deterrence in the Pacific and East Asian regions?

A. Bilateral defense treaties
B. Weapons technology
C. PACOM forces
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

34
Q

Which of the following countries is NOT working toward acquiring nuclear weapons capability?

A. Saudi Arabia
B. France
C. Iraq
D. Iran

A

B. France

35
Q

Which of the following countries was a joint partner with Israel in developing nuclear weapons?

A. United States
B. Soviet Union
C. France
D. Spain

A

C. France

36
Q

What country(ies) conducted preemptive strikes against an Iraqi nuclear reactor?

A. United States
B. Israel
C. Iran
D. Both B & C above

A

D. Both B & C above

37
Q

Which of the following arms reduction talks resulted in an antiballistic missile treaty between the U.S. and the Soviet Union?

A. SALT
B. PEPPER
C. SALT IA
D. SALT II

A

A. SALT

38
Q

In arms reduction talks, the U.S. will try to limit which of the following items?

A. American-Soviet competition in strategic nuclear forces
B. American treaty compliance
C. Soviet treaty compliance
D. Strategic deterrence

A

A. American-Soviet competition in strategic nuclear forces

39
Q

In the event of a nuclear war between the U.S. and the Soviet Union, what is the primary mission of the Soviet navy?

A. To sink as many U.S. submarines as possible
B. To disrupt sea lines of communication
C. To shoot down incoming U.S. planes and cruise missiles
D. To conduct nuclear strikes from SSBN’s operating in protected waters

A

D. To conduct nuclear strikes from SSBN’s operating in protected waters

40
Q

How far from the Soviet mainland do the Soviet sea denial zones usually extend?

A. 1,000 miles
B. 1,000 kilometers
C. 2,000 miles
D. 2,000 kilometers

A

D. 2,000 kilometers

41
Q

U.S. national security is based on deterrence, propositioning of forces, and creating sea denial zones.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

42
Q

How many diesel submarines, if any, does the U.S. Navy maintain in active service?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 10
D. None

A

D. None

43
Q

The U.S. submarine force includes which of the following attack submarine classes?

A. Permit
B. Lafayette
C. James Madison
D. Benjamin Franklin

A

A. Permit

44
Q

Which of the following weapons platforms do the Soviets use as their primary platform for conducting naval warfare?

A. Aircraft carriers
B. Submarines
C. Destroyers
D. Aircraft

A

B. Submarines

45
Q

When compared to the U.S., the Soviet submarine force has what size and effectiveness?

A. Smaller size, more effective
B. Larger size, less effective
C. Smaller size, less effective
D. Larger size, more effective

A

B. Larger size, less effective

46
Q

Which of the following types of Soviet submarines carries cruise missiles as a primary weapon?

A. SSGN
B. SSN
C. SS
D. ALL of the above

A

A. SSGN

47
Q

What is the principle weakness of the Soviet Navy?

A. Lack of aircraft carriers
B. Lack of long-range aircraft
C. Dependence on submarines to counter U.S. surface forces
D. A very low priority in providing underway replenishment

A

D. A very low priority in providing underway replenishment

48
Q

What is the newest class of Soviet aircraft carrier?

A. Tbilisi
B. Okhotsk
C. Nikolayev
D. Ouagadougou

A

A. Tbilisi

49
Q

What stance does the U.S. take on chemical and biological weapons?

A. The U.S. encourages their use by our allies because they are less expensive than nuclear weapons
B. Nuclear weapons are more efficient so we don’t stock chemical weapons
C. We will do all we can to prevent their use
D. We will retaliate in kind

A

C. We will do all we can to prevent their use

50
Q

Which of the following nerve agents is most likely to be produced by a third world country?

A. GD
B. GB
C. GA
D. VX

A

C. GA

51
Q

Countries with known or suspected chemical weapons capabilities include which of the following Middle Eastern countries?

A. Israel, Egypt, Lebanon, Syria, Iraq, and Iran
B. Egypt, Iran, Syria, Libya, Israel, and Iraq
C. Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Israel, Iran, Iraq, and Libya
D. Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Israel, Libya, Lebanon

A

B. Egypt, Iran, Syria, Libya, Israel, and Iraq

L.Is.E.S. Iraq(n

52
Q

The United States supported Iraq during the Iran-Iraq War.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

53
Q

The job of the U.S. Navy in the Persian Gulf, from 1987 to 1988, is best described by which of the following statements?

A. The primary mission was in support of the Iraqi navy.
B. The mission of the U.S. Navy was to seek out and destroy Iranian naval units
C. The primary mission was to ensure freedom of passage to oil tankers
D. The primary mission was to act as decoys while elements of the British and French navies attacked terrorist camps

A

C. The primary mission was to ensure freedom of passage to oil tankers

54
Q

Which of the following countries could be the United States most formidable opponent in the Middle East?

A. Iraq
B. Iran
C. Syria
D. Libya

A

C. Syria

55
Q

Which of the following countries claims to be the victim of numerous Iraqi chemical attacks?

A. Iran
B. Libya
C. Syria
D. Israel

A

A. Iran

56
Q

Which of the following countries is known to have stockpiles of Soviet SS-1 missiles?

A. Iran
B. Iraq
C. Syria
D. All of the above

A

B. Iraq

57
Q

The chemical agent distilled mustard, HD, belongs to which of the following families of agents?

A. Choking
B. Blister
C. Nerve
D. Blood

A

B. Blister

58
Q

The chemical agent diphosgene, DP, belongs to which of the following families of agents?

A. Choking
B. Blister
C. Nerve
D. Blood

A

A. Choking

59
Q

The chemical agent cyanogen chloride, CK, belongs to which of the following families of agents?

A. Choking
B. Blister
C. Nerve
D. Blood

A

D. Blood

60
Q

The chemical agent VX belongs to which of the following families of agents?

A. Choking
B. Blister
C. Nerve
D. Blood

A

C. Nerve

61
Q

Which of the following chemical agents has a dark yellow appearance?

A. Soman, GD
B. Nitrogen, HN
C. Mustard-Lewisite, HL
D. Cyanogen Chloride, CK

A

B. Nitrogen, HN

62
Q

Any country capable of producing organophosphorus pesticides can produce which of the following chemical agents?

A. Tabun
B. Chlorine
C. Lewisite
D. Phosgene

A

A. Tabun

63
Q

The Ogham is a version of which of the following weapons?

A. Soviet SS-1
B. Chinese M-9
C. Soviet SS-12
D. Chinese Type 53 artillery rocket

A

D. Chinese Type 53 artillery rocket

64
Q

Which of the following countries is thought to have nuclear weapons in its arsenal?

A. Iran
B. Iraq
C. Israel
D. Lebanon

A

C. Israel

65
Q

The Jerico 2 missile is a (a) type with a (b) range.

A. (a) Mobile, (b) 1,000 kilometer
B. (a) Mobile, (b) 1,500 kilometer
C. (a) Fixed, (b) 1,000 kilometer
D. (a) Fixed, (b) 1,500 kilometer

A

B. (a) Mobile, (b) 1,500 kilometer

66
Q

When assigned as the preliminary inquiry officer, you will usually investigate which of the following offenses?

A. Offenses under investigation by a fact finding body
B. Offenses under investigation by NIS
C. Major offenses
D. Minor offenses

A

D. Minor offenses

67
Q

The legal officer uses what part of the Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984 in preparing a report chit?

A. Part I
B. Part III
C. Part IV
D. Part VI

A

C. Part IV

68
Q

The accused is informed of his or her rights under which of the following articles?

A. Article 31(a) of the Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984
B. Article 31(b) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
C. Article 30(a) of the Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984
D. Article 30(b) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice

A

B. Article 31(b) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice

69
Q

When serving as the preliminary investigation officer, you should remain impartial.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

70
Q

What source of information provides the best facts about the accused?

A. Service record of the accused
B. An informal interview with the witnesses
C. The person who initiated the report chit
D. Supervisors and peers of the accused

A

D. Supervisors and peers of the accused

71
Q

Who has the greatest motive for lying or distorting the truth?

A. The witnesses
B. The accused, if guilty
C. The accused, if innocent
D. The person who initiated the report chit

A

B. The accused, if guilty

72
Q

A copy of the Ship’s Organization and Regulations Manual is considered to be what type of evidence?

A. Documentary evidence
B. Regulatory evidence
C. Physical evidence
D. Real evidence

A

A. Documentary evidence

73
Q

The preliminary investigation officer should conduct an interview with the accused at which of the following times?

A. As soon as the report chit is filled out
B. After examine the real and documentary evidence
C. After the accused has been advised of Article 31(b) of the UCMJ and makes a waiver of rights
D. After advising the accused on the legal technicalities of the case

A

C. After the accused has been advised of Article 31(b) of the UCMJ and makes a waiver of rights

74
Q

The United States Coast Guard is assigned to the Navy at which of the following times?

A. Upon declaration of war
B. When directed by the President
C. Both A & B above
D. When requested by the Chief of Naval Operations

A

C. Both A & B above

75
Q

What is the primary regulatory document of the Navy?

A. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy (SORN)
B. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
C. Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984 (MCM)
D. U.S. Navy Regulations

A

D. U.S. Navy Regulations

76
Q

Chapter 8 of the U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, applies to which of the following people?

A. Commanding Officers
B. Prospective commanding officers
C. Petty officers detailed as officer in charge or command duty officer
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

77
Q

Which of the following chapters of U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, outlines the actions of U.S. naval forces when in the vicinity of other armed forces?

A. The Senior Officer Present (Ch9)
B. Precedence, Authority and Command (Ch 10)
C. Commanders in Chief and Other Commanders
D. Statutory Authority for United States Navy Regulations

A

A. The Senior Officer Present (Ch9)

78
Q

Which chapter in U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, provides information on detailing officers and enlisted persons?

A. The Senior Officer Present (Ch9)
B. Precedence, Authority and Command (Ch 10)
C. Commanders in Chief and Other Commanders
D. Statutory Authority for United States Navy Regulations

A

B. Precedence, Authority and Command (Ch 10)

79
Q

The articles specifically enumerated in article 137 of the UCMJ should be explained to each enlisted person at which of the following times?

A. After completion of six months active duty
B. At the time of each PCS move
C. Before each deployment
D. Three months before separation from the Navy

A

A. After completion of six months active duty

80
Q

Which of the following publications is NOT required to be made available to any person on active duty

A. Navy Regulations
B. UCMJ
C. Pay and Personnel Procedures Manual
D. Navy MILPERSMAN

A

C. Pay and Personnel Procedures Manual

81
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the exercise of authority is true?

A. A retired Navy captain may exercise authority over all subordinate personnel
B. A master chief petty officer in the Fleet Reserve may exercise authority over all subordinates
C. A commander on the sick list may exercise authority over all subordinates
D. A second class petty officer on active duty, capable of discharging all duties may exercise authority over all subordinate personnel

A

D. A second class petty officer on active duty, capable of discharging all duties may exercise authority over all subordinate personnel

82
Q

When an enlisted person receives an order that conflicts with a previously received order, which of the following actions should that person take?

A. Obey the first order
B. Obey the last order
C. Obey neither order
D. Obey both orders

A

B. Obey the last order

83
Q

Which of the following officers would have authority over all persons embarked in a boat?

A. A chaplain who is a captain
B. A supply corps commander
C. A naval aviator who is a lieutenant commander
D. A chief warrant boatswain

A

C. A naval aviator who is a lieutenant commander

84
Q

The department head assigns a job to a chief. The chief is busy and assigns the job to the LPO. The LPO forgets about the job and goes on liberty. Who was responsible for completing the job?

A. The LPO only
B. The chief only
C. The LPO, chief, and division officer
D. The LPO, chief, and department head

A

B. The chief only

85
Q

A sentry would NOT have authority over which, if any, of the following persons on his or her post?

A. A line officer
B. A staff officer
C. The command master chief
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

86
Q

When, if ever, may a junior person give an order to an officer who is senior to him or her?

A. When the junior is the petty officer of the watch
B. When the junior is serving on the staff of a rear admiral
C. When the junior is an executive officer executing an order of the commanding officer
D. Never

A

C. When the junior is an executive officer executing an order of the commanding officer

87
Q

When may an officer accept money from an enlisted person?

A. When the officer has sold an item of personal property to the enlisted person
B. Only when on liberty
C. As a birthday gift
D. Only as a loan

A

A. When the officer has sold an item of personal property to the enlisted person

88
Q

A chief petty officer loans money to another chief petty officer. What, if any, is the maximum interest rate that can be charged?

A. 10 percent
B. 14 percent
C. 18 percent
D. None

A

C. 18 percent

89
Q

Which of the following persons may inspect your record held by the Chief of Naval Personnel?

A. You
B. Your designated agent
C. Both A & B above
D. Your division officer

A

C. Both A & B above

90
Q

Which of the following naval personnel are required to report all offenses to proper authority?

A. Officers
B. Petty Officers
C. Non-rated personnel
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

91
Q

If your believe one of your personnel has a communicable disease, who should you report it to?

A. The command’s medical representative
B. The CO
C. The XO
D. The DIV-O

A

A. The command’s medical representative

92
Q

Which, if any, of the following statements concerning exchange of duty is correct?

A. You and another person only need to show up for each other’s watch
B. You only need to notify the officer of the deck
C. You and the other person should prepare a special request chit requesting an exchange of duty and route it through proper authority
D. None of the above

A

C. You and the other person should prepare a special request chit requesting an exchange of duty and route it through proper authority

93
Q

Which of the following statements concerning Navy examinations is correct?

A. Members may use old examinations as study guides for future examinations
B. Members taking examinations may discuss questions among themselves prior to answering them
C. Members may develop study guides from prior examinations to use in preparing for future examinations
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

94
Q

Normally, a person i the navy may communicate with a member of Congress with no restrictions. However, should the service member, in an official capacity, desire congressional action of any type, he or she must:

A. Receive prior approval from the CNO
B. Inform SECNAV of the intent to communicate and receive the former’s consent to proceed
C. Inform SECNAV of the intent to communicate and the former must get consent of SECDEF to proceed
D. Inform SECNAV of the intent to communicate and then proceed with application

A

B. Inform SECNAV of the intent to communicate and receive the former’s consent to proceed

95
Q

A person may be denied the right to communicate with a member of Congress under which, if any, of the following conditions?

A. When the communication is critical of Navy policy
B. When the communication alleges misconduct of a superior
C. When the communication would violate security regulations
D. None of the above

A

C. When the communication would violate security regulations

96
Q

When a request is not approved or recommended, you should state the reason on the request.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

97
Q

Meals served in the general mess are sampled regularly by an officer detailed by the commanding officer. What course of action should the officer take if discrepancies are discovered?

A. Notify the food service officer
B. Notify the supply officer
C. Notify the Commanding Officer
D. Advise personnel not to eat in the general mess

A

C. Notify the Commanding Officer

98
Q

In which of the following publications would you find the definition for unity of command?

A. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy (SORN)
B. U.S. Navy Regulations
C. Both A & B
D. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

A

A. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy (SORN)

99
Q

Which of the following statements concerning extra military instruction (EMI) is true?

A. Only the commanding officer has the authority to assign EMI
B. EMI will normally be assigned for more than 2 hours per day
C. EMI may not be assigned at a reasonable hour outside of normal working hours
D. EMI will be conducted over a period that is longer than necessary to correct performance discrepancy

A

A. Only the commanding officer has the authority to assign EMI

100
Q

Which, if any, of the following privileges can you, as a chief petty officer, withhold from your subordinates?

A. Special liberty
B. Exchange of duty
C. Special services events
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

101
Q

You are required to have your ship ready to get underway in the morning. It is nearing liberty call and most of the work has not been accomplished. Which of the following administrative actions should you apply?

A. Withholding of privileges
B. Extra military instruction
C. Extension of working hours
D. Control through recognition of performance

A

C. Extension of working hours

102
Q

You have a basic responsibility to recognize initiative and exemplary performance of your subordinates.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

103
Q

Which, if any, of the following chapters in the SORN contain organizational requirements for aviation units?

A. Standard unit organization (Ch 2)
B. The unit organization (Ch 3)
C. Watch organization (Ch 4)
D. None of the above

A

A. Standard unit organization (Ch 2)

104
Q

You are a work center supervisor and would like to find out what your LCPO responsibilities consist of. Which, if any, of the following chapters in the SORN would provide guidance?

A. Standard unit organization (Ch 2)
B. The unit organization (Ch 3)
C. Watch organization (Ch 4)
D. None of the above

A

B. The unit organization (Ch 3)

105
Q

Which of the following chapters in the SORN should the departmental duty officer review?

A. Standard unit organization (Ch 2)
B. The unit organization (Ch 3)
C. Watch organization (Ch 4)
D. Both B & C above

A

D. Both B & C above

106
Q

A person departing on leave must possess which of the following documents?

A. Properly validated leave papers and ID card
B. Armed forces liberty pass
C. Both A & B above
D. Geneva Convention card

A

A. Properly validated leave papers and ID card

107
Q

Without proper authority, a person shall not remove which of the following items from the regular place of stowage or location?

A. First-aid equipment
B. Stores and foodstuffs
C. Hull and damage control fittings
D. Each of the above

A

D. Each of the above

108
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning berthing?

A. You may be placed on report for failing to get up at reveille
B. You may sleep or lie on your bunk in working clothes
C. You may not sleep in your work spaces unless authorized
D. You may turn on white lights in berthing any time you want between reveille and taps

A

B. You may sleep or lie on your bunk in working clothes

109
Q

You pass the ship’s library after taps and notice some Sailors playing Monopoly. Which of the following actions should you take?

A. Ask the Sailors to follow you to the chief’s quarters and have them wait while you fill out a report chit for violating article 510.01 of the SORN
B. Stop and watch the Sailors play the game
C. Remind the Sailors it is against regulations to engage in games of any type after taps and ensure they quit
D. Continue on to the chief’s quarters without stopping

A

C. Remind the Sailors it is against regulations to engage in games of any type after taps and ensure they quit

110
Q

While in a liberty status aboard ship, you may wear civilian clothes while dining in the crew’s mess.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

111
Q

Aboard ship mess gear is often found in the work center. By regulation, which of the following persons is/are charged with ensuring the mess gear is immediately returned to the mess decks?

A. The DIV-O
B. The person who took the mess gear
C. The senior petty officer in charge of the space
D. All of the above

A

C. The senior petty officer in charge of the space

112
Q

Which of the following statements concerning uniforms and clothing is true?

A. You may wear frayed or dirty uniforms
B. You may wear an article that is not prescribed as part of the uniform of the day
C. You may wear the uniform in a manner that would bring discredit to the Navy
D. No names or marks may be placed on foul weather clothing except the number prescribed for official designation

A

D. No names or marks may be placed on foul weather clothing except the number prescribed for official designation

113
Q

Each person is responsible for keeping his or her locker locked at all times.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

114
Q

You may bring your personal camera aboard ship without first obtaining permission.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

115
Q

Which of the following statements is/are applicable to the plan of the day?

A. It will be placed on division bulletin boards
B. In port, it will be read at quarters
C. It will be published daily by the XO
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

116
Q

The use of profane, obscene, or vulgar words or gestures aboard naval units is an accepted practice and doesn’t violate any regulations.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

117
Q

Chapter 7 of the SORN covers which of the following topics?

A. Safety
B. Training
C. Unit Bills
D. Unit directives system

A

A. Safety

118
Q

What chapter in the SORN covers guidelines for establishing operational bills?

A. Unit Bills (Ch 6)
B. Watch Organization (Ch 4)
C. The Unit Organization (Ch 3)
D. Standard Unit Organization (Ch 2)

A

A. Unit Bills (Ch 6)

119
Q

What is the equal right of jurisdiction called?

A. Jurisprudence jurisdiction
B. Equilateral jurisdiction
C. Concurrent jurisdiction
D. Disparate jurisdiction

A

C. Concurrent jurisdiction

120
Q

When a military member is tried in a U.S. court, the military will pay the attorney fees and court cost.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

121
Q

American troops are stationed in Europe for which of the following reasons?

A. To benefit our allies
B. To recognize the need for collective strength
C. Both A & B above
D. Europe pays the U.S. for stationing the troops in NATO countries

A

B. To recognize the need for collective strength

122
Q

Status of Forces Agreements only apply to active duty military personnel.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

123
Q

Status of Forces Agreements are a package of which of the following agreements?

A. Treaties
B. Protocol agreements
C. Executive agreements
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

124
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Status of Forces Agreements?

A. To define the status of one’s military forces stationed in another country
B. To allow the host country jurisdiction over foreign personnel
C. To provide for the common defense against communist aggressors
D. To give NATO forces the right to operate anywhere in Europe

A

A. To define the status of one’s military forces stationed in another country

125
Q

You are stationed aboard a ship in a foreign port. When are you exempt from prosecution by local authorities?

A. When you come back aboard after going on liberty
B. When ashore on official business
C. Both A & B above
D. Naval personnel enjoy diplomatic immunity because of SOFA and are always exempt from prosecution

A

B. When ashore on official business

126
Q

Experience has shown that sentences imposed by foreign courts on U.S. service members are unusually harsh.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

127
Q

Which of the following privileges are allowed under SOFA by special consent of the host country?

A. Use of a U.S. driver’s license
B. Waiver of taxes or import duty on household goods
C. Entering and leaving the country on military orders
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

128
Q

Which of the following topics are generally covered by SOFA’s?

A. Freedom of troop movement
B. Exchange privileges
C. Both A & B above
D. Marriage licenses

A

C. Both A & B above

129
Q

When did countries first recognize the need to develop SOFAs?

A. Before WWI
B. During peacetime, 1919 to 1938
C. During WWII
D. After countries had recovered from WWII

A

D. After countries had recovered from WWII

130
Q

Our allies want us to remove our troops from Europe.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

131
Q

Which, if any, of the following levels of management contain chief petty officers?

A. Top
B. Middle
C. Operating
D. None of the above

A

C. Operating

132
Q

In which of the following types of planning are chiefs normally involved?

A. Single-use
B. Standing
C. Strategic
D. Both B & C above

A

A. Single-use

133
Q

What type of planning involves activities that will occur in 2 to 5 years?

A. Strategic
B. Standing
C. Procedures
D. Single-use

A

A. Strategic

134
Q

Which of the following plans gives broad general statements of expected behavior?

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Rules and regulations
D. Organizational objectives

A

A. Policies

135
Q

Which of the following plans are detailed standing plans?

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Rules and regulations
D. Organizational objectives

A

B. Procedures

136
Q

What type of organizational document should you use to help avoid crisis management?

A. The command policies
B. The command procedures
C. The command organizational objectives
D. The command’s rules and regulations

A

C. The command organizational objectives

137
Q

Which of the following statements concerning rules and regulations is true?

A. They are standing plans
B. They state what you may or may not do in a given situation
C. Commands use them to ensure personnel comply with command policy
D. Each of the above

A

D. Each of the above

138
Q

Which of the following types of control is expressed in numerical terms, usually by category and over a period of time?

A. Budget
B. Policy
C. Program
D. Project

A

A. Budget

139
Q

Single-use plans are developed from which of the following plans?

A. Strategic
B. Programs
C. Projects
D. Budgets

A

A. Strategic

140
Q

Which of the following statements defines management by objectives (MBO)?

A. MBO states a specific goal and gives the major steps, the timing of the steps, and the resources required
B. Supervisors set the goals and subordinates have no input to the planning process
C. Supervisors and subordinates set overall goals for the organization together
D. MBO states the amount of time, money, personnel, and other resources to be used

A

C. Supervisors and subordinates set overall goals for the organization together

141
Q

The purpose of MBO is to set clearly defined goals everyone can understand

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

142
Q

What principle is MBO based on?

A. People are more willing to work toward a goal they are committed to
B. People will do everything possible to meet the goals they set
C. Both A & B above
D. Supervisors should set all the goals because workers are basically lazy

A

C. Both A & B above

143
Q

Which of the following items is NOT a disadvantage of management by objectives?

A. It may cause leaders to overlook objectives that cannot be measured
B. It forces leaders to focus on important objectives
C. It requires more time to use
D. It increases paperwork

A

B. It forces leaders to focus on important objectives

144
Q

You will find the work requirements for your division in which of the following divisional documents?

A. Strategic plans
B. Single-use plans
C. Rules and regulations
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

145
Q

What is the first step in setting goals for work requirements?

A. Identify the difference between the real and ideal situation
B. Develop a single-use plan to implement the change
C. Recognize the real situation in your division
D. Make a commitment to change

A

A. Identify the difference between the real and ideal situation

146
Q

Which of the following statements defines the goal setting criteria of being behavior specific?

A. Specifies the necessary action to take
B. Provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
C. Specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
D. Tests your ability, but has at least 50 percent chance of being attained

A

A. Specifies the necessary action to take

147
Q

The goal setting criteria of being measurable is defined by which of the following statements?

A. The goals tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
B. The goal specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
C. The goal provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
D. The goal specifies the necessary action to take

A

B. The goal specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal

148
Q

Which of the following statements defines realistic but challenging goal setting criteria?

A. The goals tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
B. The goal specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
C. The goal provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
D. The goal specifies the necessary action to take

A

A. The goals tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained

149
Q

Which of the following statements defines time-phased goal setting criteria?

A. Tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
B. Specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
C. Provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
D. Specifies the necessary action to take

A

C. Provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal

150
Q

If a task does not fit into the priority of urgent, important, or important/urgent, when should you do the task?

A. Whenever you find time
B. Before the urgent task
C. Before the important task
D. Before the urgent/important task

A

A. Whenever you find time

151
Q

Why should you use strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis?

A. To determine where the division needs improvement
B. To determine opportunities available to the division
C. To determine if there are any obstacles the division must overcome
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

152
Q

What would an available school quota be classified as during a SWOT analysis?

A. Strength
B. Weakness
C. Opportunity
D. Threat

A

C. Opportunity

153
Q

You must assign a person to a billet that requires completion of a personnel qualification standard. When, if ever, is the person considered qualified to fill the billet

A. When the assignment is made
B. When the person completes the personnel qualification standard
C. When the service record entry documenting completion of the personnel qualification standard is made
D. Never

A

C. When the service record entry documenting completion of the personnel qualification standard is made

154
Q

Trying to anticipate problems and making corrections before problems occur requires which of the following types of control?

A. Quality
B. Feedback
C. Concurrent
D. Feedforward

A

D. Feedforward

155
Q

Which of the following types of control involves making corrections after an event happens?

A. Feedforward
B. Concurrent
C. Feedback
D. Quality

A

C. Feedback

156
Q

Which of the following types of control involves making changes as an event occurs?

A. Quality
B. Feedback
C. Concurrent
D. Feedforward

A

C. Concurrent

157
Q

An inspection of the raw input for defects is what type of quality control?

A. Quality circle
B. Zero defects
C. Feedforward
D. Feedback

A

C. Feedforward

158
Q

Which of the following types of quality control is based on doing the job right the first time?

A. Quality circle
B. Zero defects
C. Feedforward
D. Feedback

A

B. Zero defects

159
Q

Which of the following types of control is measurable?

A. Plan of action and milestones
B. Critical path method
C. Gantt chart
D. Each of the above

A

D. Each of the above

160
Q

Which of the following types of control was developed by the Navy while constructing the Polaris missile?

A. Plan of action and milestones
B. Critical path method
C. Gantt chart
D. PERT

A

D. PERT

161
Q

When constructing a PERT network, what is the fourth step?

A. Control the project
B. Find the critical path
C. Look for ways to improve the project
D. Define the order needed to complete the component task

A

B. Find the critical path

162
Q

Which of the following statements identifies the basic difference between PERT and CPM?

A. CPM requires only one time estimate
B. CPM includes a cost estimate as well as time estimates
C. CPM assumes you have some experience in performing each component task
D. Each of the above

A

D. Each of the above

163
Q

What does PERT stand for?

A

Program Evaluation and Review Technique

164
Q

What are the 6 steps of PERT?

A
  1. Identify the component task
  2. Define order
  3. Analyze/estimate time requirements
  4. Find critical path
  5. Look for ways to improve/modify
  6. Control the project
165
Q

As an element of effective control, your subordinates expect you to control their work by comparing it to a set standard.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

166
Q

When you evaluate your control system to eliminate unnecessary costs, you are using which of the following elements of effective control?

A. Effectiveness
B. Acceptance
C. Timeliness
D. Accuracy

A

A. Effectiveness

167
Q

A person who gives advice to the CO would belong to which, if any of the following types of organization?

A. Line
B. Staff
C. Functional
D. None of the above

A

B. Staff

168
Q

A major department responsible for accomplishing the mission of the command belongs to which of the following types of organization?

A. Line
B. Staff
C. Functional
D. Each of the above

A

A. Line

169
Q

A functional organization is defined by which of the following statements?

A. Does not have authority over line departments
B. Is responsible for accomplishing the command mission
C. Has authority over all parts of the command ensuring its special function is met
D. Gives advice to line departments

A

C. Has authority over all parts of the command ensuring its special function is met

170
Q

The division of work is explained by which of the following organizational concepts?

A. Chain of command
B. Unity of command
C. Span of control
D. Specialization

A

D. Specialization

171
Q

The order of “control” within an organization is defined by which of the following terms?

A. Chain of command
B. Unity of command
C. Span of control
D. Specialization

A

B. Unity of command

172
Q

How many people can one person effectively supervise?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 12
D. 13

A

A. 5

173
Q

The order of “authority” within an organization is explained by which of the following organizational concepts?

A. Chain of command
B. Unity of command
C. Span of control
D. Specialization

A

A. Chain of command

174
Q

Delegating your authority is an outstanding way to train subordinates for positions of greater authority.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

175
Q

Which of the following statements concerning authority is correct?

A. Most authority in the Navy is delegated
B. Subordinates usually accept authority readily
C. Subordinates must recognize you have authority over them before your authority exists
D. Each of the above

A

D. Each of the above

176
Q

When you tell a junior enlisted person in another division or work center to get a haircut, you are exercising which, if any, of the following types of authority?

A. Line
B. Staff
C. Functional
D. None of the above

A

B. Staff

177
Q

The use of threats or negative rewards is the use of which of the following types of power?

A. Expert
B. Referent
C. Coercive
D. Informational

A

C. Coercive

178
Q

When you influence others through the use of your specialized knowledge, you are exercising which of the following types of power?

A. Expert
B. Referent
C. Coercive
D. Informational

A

A. Expert

179
Q

Which of the following types of power do you have simply because people identify with you being a chief?

A. Expert
B. Referent
C. Coercive
D. Informational

A

B. Referent

180
Q

Which of the following statements concerning leadership is true?

A. It is the motivating force that leads to coordinated action and unity of effort
B. Leaders must encourage, inspire, teach, stimulate, and motivate all individuals of the organization
C. You should never let a subordinate be criticized or penalized by anyone but yourself
D. Each of the above

A

D. Each of the above

181
Q

A leader who believes people must be coerced, controlled, directed, or threatened is using which of the following leadership theories?

A. W
B. X
C. Y
D. Z

A

B. X

182
Q

Immediate compliance to orders, tight job control, and numerous detailed reports on jobs are characteristics of which of the following leadership styles?

A. Coach
B. Coercer
C. Affiliatior
D. Pacesetter

A

B. Coercer

183
Q

Which of the following definitions identifies the authoritarian style of leadership?

A. Negative feedback is given and name calling is frequent
B. Motivation is generated through threats of discipline or punishment
C. Rewards are given for personal characteristics and punishment is rare
D. Clear direction is given with no doubt about who makes the final decisions

A

D. Clear direction is given with no doubt about who makes the final decisions

184
Q

Leaders who would rather do the job themselves, set high standards, expect self-direction, and have trouble fleeting authority, exercise which of the following leadership styles?

A. Affiliator
B. Pacesetter
C. Democratic
D. Coach

A

B. Pacesetter

185
Q

A democratic leadership style would be particularly harmful in a drill or battle condition for which of the following reasons?

A. It requires time for meetings
B. The leader lacks control of the group
C. Both A & B above
D. It takes authority away from subordinates

A

C. Both A & B above

186
Q

What leadership style is well suited to a counselor but would have a negative effect on a work center operating on a tight schedule?

A. Authoritarian
B. Affiliator
C. Democratic
D. Coach

A

B. Affiliator

187
Q

When you prepare your work center for inspection by incorporating preparation for inspection into the daily routine, you are demonstrating which of the following management skills?

A. Concern for standards
B. Concern for efficiency
C. Planning and organizing
D. Supervising for effective performance

A

B. Concern for efficiency

188
Q

You would exhibit the leadership skill “commitment to the command’s mission” by taking which of the following actions?

A. Seeing yourself as a leader
B. Making yourself available to answer questions
C. Using threats or your authority to influence others
D. Acting with the best interest of the command in mind

A

D. Acting with the best interest of the command in mind

189
Q

Which of the following statements describes the action you should take in developing others?

A. Use the proper setting and timing for optimum impact
B. See yourself as someone who makes things happen
C. Provide constructive feedback to subordinates
D. See yourself as a leader

A

C. Provide constructive feedback to subordinates

190
Q

Which of the following personal characteristics is defined as confronting issues directly and insisting others recognize your place in the chain of command?

A. Concern for achievement
B. Analytical problem solving
C. Persisitence
D. Assertiveness

A

D. Assertiveness

191
Q

Which of the following personal characteristics is defined as being a self-starter, seeing problems, and taking action to correct the problems without being told?

A. Interpersonal awareness
B. Assertiveness
C. Persisitence
D. Initiative

A

D. Initiative

192
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of Total Quality Management (TQM)?

A. Increased pride of workmanship among individual workers
B. Improved sustainability caused by extended time between equipment failures
C. Streamlined maintenance and production processes
D. Each of the above

A

D. Each of the above

193
Q

What are the four types of measurable control?

A

POA&M
Gantt Chart
PERT
CPM

194
Q

Order of Authority

A

CHAIN OF COMMAND

195
Q

Order of Control

A

UNITY OF COMMAND

196
Q

Refers to the ideal number of people one person can effectively supervise

A

SPAN OF CONTROL (3-7)

197
Q

Refers to the division of work

A

SPECIALIZATION

198
Q

What are the 6 types of power?

A
REWARD
COERCIVE
LEGITIMATE
INFORMATIONAL
REFERENT
EXPERT
199
Q

What 6 tasks must leaders always perform?

A
LISTEN
SET GOALS
GIVE DIRECTION
PROVIDE FEEDBACK
REWARD/DISCIPLINE
DEVELOPS SUBORDINATES
200
Q

What are the 6 different leadership styles?

A
COERCER
AUTHORITARIAN
AFFILIATOR
DEMOCRATIC
PACESETTER
COACH
201
Q

Name 5 management and supervisory skills.

A
  1. CONCERN FOR STANDARDS
  2. CONCERN FOR EFFICIENCY
  3. PLANNING AND ORGANIZING
  4. SUPERVISING FOR EFFECTIVE PERFORMANCE
  5. MONITORING
202
Q

What are the 6 skills effective leaders have in common?

A
  1. COMMITMENT TO COMMAND’S MISSION
  2. SELF-IMAGE AS A LEADER
  3. COMMUNICATION
  4. INFLUENCING
  5. DEVELOPMENT OF OTHERS
  6. CONCERN FOR SUBORDINATES
203
Q

Effective personal characteristics include (6):

A
CONCERN FOR ACHIEVEMENT
ANALYTICAL PROBLEM SOLVING
INTERPERSONAL AWARENESS
INITIATIVE
PERSISTENCE
ASSERTIVENESS
204
Q

What is the bottom line of TQM?

A

“More bang for the buck.”

205
Q

Preparing and submitting a budget request is what form of planning?

A. Long-range
B. Medium-range
C. Short-range
D. Micro

A

A. Long-range

206
Q

Who develops the budget resolution each year?

A. The President
B. Congress
C. The General Accounting Office
D. The Office of Management and Budget

A

B. Congress

207
Q

When forecasting your yearly budget, the period of 1 October to 30 September can be viewed with a great deal of uncertainty.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

208
Q

When purchasing a ship, the Navy uses what type of budgeting to figure the cost?

A. Incremental
B. Zero-based
C. Both A and B above
D. Additional

A

B. Zero-based

209
Q

Supply facilities established to support public works departments or ground electronics shops are called:

A. stock control branches
B. self-service stores
C. shop stores
D. rapid communication and delivery

A

C. shop stores

210
Q

Which of the following supply establishments is responsible for expediting material from outside sources?

A. Rapid communication and delivery systems
B. Retail issue organizations
C. Material division
D. Receipt control branch

A

D. Receipt control branch

211
Q

Which of the following items is considered equipage?

A. Electronic computer
B. Missile launcher
C. Diesel engine
D. Anchor

A

D. Anchor

212
Q

You could figure the three-month usage rate for fast-moving items by using which of the following formulas?

A. Multiplying last month’s usage by 2
B. Dividing last month’s usage by 2
C. Multiplying last month’s usage by 3
D. Dividing last month’s usage by 3

A

C. Multiplying last month’s usage by 3

213
Q

Which of the following terms applies to specific repair parts intended to be used when troubleshooting electronic equipment?

A. Ready service parts
B. Maintenance assist modules
C. Maintenance repair modules
D. Operating space repair spares

A

B. Maintenance assist modules

214
Q

What officer assigns the force activity designator?

A. Supply officer
B. Department head
C. Fleet Commander
D. Commanding officer

A

C. Fleet Commander

215
Q

Who is responsible for assigning the correct urgency-of-need designator (UND) to a material request?

A. Material officer
B. Executive officer
C. Department head
D. Supply officer

A

C. Department head

216
Q

An authorized coordinated shipboard allowance list reactor part would have which of the following urgency of need designators (UND) assigned?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A

B. B

217
Q

Which is the highest UND?

A. D
B. C
C. A
D. B

A

C. A

218
Q

Who is responsible for inspecting items purchased from a commercial source prior to payment being made?

A. Division chief
B. Supply officer
C. Division officer
D. Department head

A

B. Supply officer

219
Q

What person must sign the copy of the purchase document stamped “received, inspected, and accepted?”

A. Division officer
B. Department head
C. Division chief
D. Supply officer

A

B. Department head

220
Q

The supply officer has which of the following types of control over consumables and repair parts that are stowed in departmental spaces?

A. Stock record control
B. Inventory control
C. Stowage control
D. Use control

A

A. Stock record control

221
Q

The recording of receipts, expenditures, and inventories of spare parts and consumables within a department is the direct responsibility of which of the following persons?

A. Senior CPO of the department
B. Division officer
C. Designated custodian
D. Department head

A

C. Designated custodian

222
Q

What is the purpose of using dunnage under material being stowed on deck?

A. To protect against excessive shock
B. To provide more economical use of space
C. To protect against moisture
D. To aid in handling

A

C. To protect against moisture

223
Q

In the physical arrangement of material for stowage, which of the following factors should you give primary consideration?

A. Suitability for issue and inventory
B. Size and weight distribution
C. Stock number sequence
D. Orderliness

A

A. Suitability for issue and inventory

224
Q

Which of the following precautions should be observed when handling and stowing hazardous materials?

A. Ventilate adequately
B. Provide separate stowage areas to prevent mixing of materials
C. Allow only authorized personnel in stowage area
D. Each of the above

A

D. Each of the above

225
Q

Who generally has custodial responsibility for binoculars?

A. The leading quartermaster
B. The senior signalman
C. The operations department head
D. The executive officer

A

C. The operations department head

226
Q

For signature-required items of controlled equipage in the custody of a department, which of the following persons should sign (a) the custody records and (b) the duplicate custody records?

A. CO; Department head
B. Department head; Actual custodian
C. Department head; Division officer
D. CO; Supply officer

A

B. Department head; Actual custodian

227
Q

Which of the following persons is/are authorized to convert non signature-required items to signature-required items?

A. The actual custodian
B. The type commander only
C. The commanding officer only
D. The commanding officer and the type commander

A

D. The commanding officer and the type commander

228
Q

Which of the following circumstances requires the use of the DD Form 200 (Report of Survey)?

A. When circumstances warrant
B. When gross negligence is evident
C. When criminal activity is indicated
D. Each of the above

A

D. Each of the above

229
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring proper tests and inspections are completed before the acceptance of work by outside activities?

A. The work center supervisor
B. The division officer
C. The department head
D. The 3-M coordinator

A

A. The work center supervisor

230
Q

Counseling is an important responsibility. Which of the following statements best describes the most important aspect of supervisor counseling?

A. To provide guidance to your average performer
B. To provide support to a person having problems
C. To provide professional guidance to a superior performer
D. To provide professional assistance to a personal problem

A

B. To provide support to a person having problems

231
Q

Counseling is divided into which of the following types?

A. Situational and conditional
B. Directive and non-directive
C. Military and paramilitary
D. Personal and clandestine

A

B. Directive and non-directive

232
Q

The process of listening to a person’s problems, then encouraging and motivating that person to solve them, accomplishes which of the following counseling functions?

A. Reorientation
B. Reassurance
C. Advice
D. Both B and C above

A

D. Both B and C above

233
Q

Trying to change the person rather than dealing with the immediate problem is an example of which of the following types of counseling?

A. Non-directive
B. Professional
C. Military
D. Directive

A

A. Non-directive

234
Q

The major objective in interviewing your subordinates is to accomplish which of the following results?

A. To discover special characteristics, aptitudes, or skills
B. To show a personal interest in the subordinate
C. To establish your position of leadership
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

235
Q

The primary purpose of the military briefing is to accomplish which of the following functions?

A. To teach
B. To inform
C. To entertain
D. To allow the person presenting the brief to express his or her opinion

A

B. To inform

236
Q

Which of the following persons is in the best position to notice if the SORM needs updating?

A. The CO
B. The XO
C. The department head
D. The LCPO

A

D. The LCPO

237
Q

You should conduct career information interviews with junior personnel for which of the following purpose?

A. To inform them about the Navy
B. To inform them of their benefits
C. Both A and B above
D. To meet the requirements of the career retention program

A

C. Both A and B above

238
Q

Which of the following types of reenlistment applies to personnel who desire to convert to a critically undermanned rating?

A. Regular
B. Guard III
C. STAR
D. SCORE

A

D. SCORE (Selective Conversion and Reenlistment Program)

239
Q

Which of the following reenlistments offers career designation to first term personnel?

A. Regular
B. Guard III
C. STAR
D. SCORE

A

C. STAR (Selective Training and Reenlistment Program)

240
Q

Which of the following types of reenlistment offers guaranteed advancement to petty officer second class for qualified personnel after completion of class C school?

A. STAR
B. SCORE
C. Both A and B above
D. Guard III

A

C. Both A and B above

241
Q

When, if ever, does SGLI coverage terminate after separation from active duty?

A. 120 days
B. 180 days
C. 360 days
D. Never

A

A. 120 days

242
Q

Which of the following organizations offers the only supplemental insurance endorsed by the Navy?

A. American Red Cross
B. Navy Mutual Aid Society
C. Navy League
D. Navy Relief Society

A

B. Navy Mutual Aid Society

243
Q

When, if ever, are you allowed MALT payments?

A. When you use government transportation
B. When you travel by privately owned vehicle during a PCS move
C. When you travel by privately owned vehicle while on TAD orders
D. Never

A

B. When you travel by privately owned vehicle during a PCS move

244
Q

What is MALT?

A

Monetary Allowance in lieu of Transportation

245
Q

If you die on active duty, your spouse would receive a lump sum payment of up to $3000 in which of the following payments?

A. Death gratuity
B. SGLI
C. DIC
D. Social Security

A

A. Death gratuity

246
Q

A person who has 5 years and 11 months of active military service reenlists for a period of six years. This person could reenlist for an SRB Zone B bonus at the end of his/her obligated service.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

247
Q

Which of the following educational programs provides seventy-five percent of the tuition cost for active duty personnel, regardless of rank, pay grade, or leith of service?

A. SOC
B. SOCNAV
C. DANTES
D. TA

A

D. TA

248
Q

Which of the following programs enables personnel to achieve journeyman status in recognized civilian trades?

A. National Apprenticeship Program (USMAP)
B. Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support (DANTES)
C. Service members Opportunity College (SOC)
D. Program for Afloat College Education (PACE)

A

A. National Apprenticeship Program (USMAP)

249
Q

A chief petty officer serving on active duty with 17 years of service is eligible for which of the following officer programs?

A. LDO (Limited Duty Officer program)
B. CWO (Chief Warrant Officer program
C. BOOST (Broadened Opportunity for Officer Selection and Training program)
D. All of the above

A

B. CWO (Chief Warrant Officer program

250
Q

What’s the TIS or age cut-off for each of the following:

A. LDO
B. CWO
C. BOOST
D. USNA

A

A. LDO = 10-14 years
B. CWO = 12-24 years
C. BOOST = 17-max per each designator
D. USNA = 17-22 years old

251
Q

A married 20 year old petty officer second class, with 12 years of education, is eligible for which of the following officer programs?

A. Direct Commission
B. USNA
C. BOOST
D. LDO

A

C. BOOST

252
Q

A dependent parent of an active duty Sailor qualifies for CHAMPUS benefits.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

253
Q

What is CHAMPUS?

A

Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services

254
Q

A dependent parent in-law of an active duty service member qualifies for treatment under the Uniformed Services Health Benefits Program.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

255
Q

The maximum CHAMPUS deductible a service member with a wife and 6 children would have to pay is which of the following amounts?

A. $150 per person
B. $300 per person
C. $150 per family
D. $300 per family

A

D. $300 per family

256
Q

Which of the following amounts is the CHAMPUS catastrophic cap for retired service members?

A. $150
B. $300
C. $1,000
D. $10,000

A

D. $10,000

257
Q

Which of the following levels of chief petty officer is considered to be the senior technical supervisor within a rating?

A. Chief
B. Senior chief
C. Master chief
D. Command master chief

A

B. Senior chief

258
Q

Which of the following personnel would have performance evaluations filmed into their microform records?

A. E-3 and below
B. E-4 and below
C. E-5 and above
D. Each of the above

A

C. E-5 and above

259
Q

Which of the following categories of retirement is applicable to Reserve personnel who have completed 20 years of active military service?

A. Fleet Reserve
B. Retired Reserve
C. Regular Navy Retired List
D. Naval Reserve Retired List

A

A. Fleet Reserve

260
Q

Service members who have a permanent physical disability and are temporarily unable to perform their duties are transferred to which of the following retired lists?

A. Regular Navy Retired List
B. Naval Reserve Retired List
C. Temporary Disability Retired List
D. Permanent Disability Retired List

A

C. Temporary Disability Retired List

261
Q

The Survivor Benefit Plan allows you to designate your permanently disabled children to receive a portion of your retirement for life provided the child’s disability occurs before age 18 (or age 22 if attending school full time).

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

262
Q

You may select only one beneficiary option under the Survivor Benefit Plan.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

263
Q

To transfer to the Fleet Reserve, you must complete which of the following requirements?

A. 2 years at your current duty station
B. Submit NAVPERS 1830/1
C. Submit NAVPERS 1070/621 or NAVPERS 1070/622
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

264
Q

Which of the following is NOT an element of an effective training program

A. Analysis
B. Advice
C. Instruction
D. Compatibility

A

B. Advice

265
Q

Correspondence courses, onboard training packages, and computer-aided training belong to which of the following categories?

A. Classroom
B. Self-study
C. Team training
D. On-the-job training

A

B. Self-study

266
Q

Ensuring persons giving lectures and signing qualifications can communicate well with others is what element of an effective training program?

A. Dynamic instruction
B. Positive leadership
C. Quality control
D. Personal interest

A

B. Positive leadership

267
Q

Technical support is defined as testing individuals or having them demonstrate the knowledge they are credited with having.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

268
Q

Who should ensure a junior officer is trained to have a positive attitude toward the chief petty officer community?

A. The CO
B. The XO
C. The department head
D. The chief

A

D. The chief