1staidANASCI2

Question 1

101. Damage to the medulla would impair function of which cranial nerve nuclei?
     A. V, VII, IX
     B. III, IV, VI
     C. IX, X, XII
     D. X, XI, XII
     E. V, VII, X

Answer 1

C. IX, X, XII

Question 2

102. If one had a malfunction of pancreatic delta
     cells, which of the following would be
     impaired?
     A. Insulin production
     B. Trypsinogen production
     C. Glucagon production
     D. Somatostatin production
     E. Exocrine function

Answer 2

D. Somatostatin production

Question 3

103. Each of the following is an apocrine function
     of sweat glands EXCEPT
     A. involved intimately with regulation of
     body temperature.
     B. produces pheromones.
     C. secretion is via myoepithelial and duct
     cells.
     D. strictly serous fluid secretion.
     E. cells receive sympathetic adrenergic
     innervation

Answer 3

A. involved intimately with regulation of
body temperature

Question 4

104. Which of the following portions of the female
     reproductive tract is the site of fertilization?
     A. Uterus
     B. Endometrium
     C. Ovary
     D. Cervix
     E. Ampulla

Answer 4

E. Ampulla

Question 5

105. Which of the following provides localized
     attachment of epithelium to connective
     tissue?
     A. Hemidesmosome
     B. Zonula adherens
     C. Zonula occludens
     D. Desmosome
     E. Gap junction

Answer 5

A. Hemidesmosome

Question 6

106. A-gamma fibers function in
     A. touch sensation.
     B. muscle spindle apparatus.
     C. pressure sensation.
     D. temperature sensation.
     E. sharp pain sensation

Answer 6

B. muscle spindle apparatus.

Question 7

107. The most inferior portion of the trachea, the
     carina, divides into
     A. bronchioles.
     B. segmental bronchi.
     C. main stem bronchi.
     D. alveoli.
     E. lobar bronchi.

Answer 7

C. main stem bronchi.

Question 8

108. Hilar lymph nodes are located
     A. in the lateral thoracic cavity.
     B. superior to the clavicle and surrounding
     the carotid sheath.
     C. along the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
     D. at the root of the lungs.
     E. at the posterior base of the skull.

Answer 8

D. at the root of the lungs.

Question 9

109. The submaxillary ganglion receives presynaptic
     efferent innervation from which nerve?
     A. Inferior alveolar
     B. Facial
     C. Buccinator
     D. Maxillary
     E. Lingual

Answer 9

E. Lingual

Question 10

110. Rivian ducts allow drainage from which of
     the following glands?
     A. Parotid
     B. Sebaceous
     C. Lacrimal
     D. Sublingual
     E. Mammary

Answer 10

D. Sublingual

Question 11

111. Each of the following is true regarding the
     embryological growth of the kidney EXCEPT
     A. the ureteric bud contributes to the adult
     kidney.
     B. the mesonephros gives rise to the ureteric
     bud and mesonephric duct.
     C. the pronephros ultimately forms the
     epididymis and ductus deferens.
     D. the mesonephros forms before the
     metanephros.
     E. the kidney initially forms in the pelvis

Answer 11

C. the pronephros ultimately forms the
epididymis and ductus deferens.

Question 12

112. Of the following structures, the Wolffian duct
     ultimately aids in development of the
     A. epididymis.
     B. ureter.
     C. collecting tubules.
     D. ovaries.
     E. uterus.

Answer 12

A. epididymis.

Question 13

113. Neuroepithelial cells (of the fetal neural
     tube) give rise to each of the following
     EXCEPT
     A. ependymal cells.
     B. leptomeninges.
     C. astrocytes.
     D. neuroblasts.
     E. oligodendrocytes

Answer 13

B. leptomeninges.

Question 14

114. Which of the following is the correct sequence
     of zygotic cell cleavage?
     A. zygote, morula, blastula, blastomere
     B. morula, zygote, blastula, blastomere
     C. blastula, blastomere, morula, zygote
     D. zygote, blastomere, morula, blastula
     E. blastula, morula, blastomere, zygote

Answer 14

D. zygote, blastomere, morula, blastula

Question 15

115. After what stage of zygote development does
     the zona pellucida disintegrate?
     A. First cleavage division
     B. Two-cell stage
     C. Blastula
     D. Late morula
     E. Early morula

Answer 15

C. Blastula

Question 16

116. Which of the following locations would
     NOT be considered a location of ectopic
     pregnancy?
     A. uterus
     B. ovary
     C. fallopian tube
     D. cervix
     E. abdomen

Answer 16

A. uterus

Question 17

117. Meiosis II of sperm development MOST
     LIKELY occurs
     A. in the uterine tube.
     B. in the epididymis.
     C. in the ejaculatory duct.
     D. in the testes.
     E. in the vagina.

Answer 17

A. in the uterine tube.

Question 18

118. Each of the following muscles receives motor
     innervation from the facial nerve EXCEPT
     A. risorius.
     B. masseter.
     C. orbicularis oris.
     D. mentalis.
     E. buccinator

Answer 18

B. masseter.

Question 19

119. The jaw-jerk reflex involves efferent signals
     from which of the following cranial nerves?
     A. V-1
     B. V-3
     C. VII
     D. V-2
     E. IX

Answer 19

B. V-3

Question 20

120. Each of the following is TRUE with regard to
     the carotid sheath EXCEPT

A. the sternocleidomastoid muscle lies
medial to it in the cervical region.
B. it lies anterior to the scalene musculature
in the cervical region.
C. it lies anterior to the thyroid gland.
D. it contains the vagus nerve, jugular vein,
and common carotid artery.
E. it is associated with the carotid sinus
nerve, sympathetic nerves, and lymph
nodes.

Answer 20

C. it lies anterior to the thyroid gland.

Question 21

121. Suppose you are told that a patient has
     received damage to structures, which are contained
     in the submandibular triangle. Which
     of the following would you NOT consider to
     be affected?
     A. CN XII
     B. Nerve to mylohyoid
     C. Lingual artery
     D. CN X
     E. Submandibular gland

Answer 21

D. CN X

Question 22

122. If a patient is suffering from referred pain to
     the T4 dermatome, it will be felt at the
     A. xiphoid.
     B. umbilicus.
     C. nipple.
     D. inguinal ligament.
     E. neck.

Answer 22

C. nipple.

Question 23

123. If a patient is unable to close his eyes (among
     other symptoms), one must consider damage
     to which of the following cranial nerve
     nuclei?
     A. Main motor nucleus of VII
     B. Nucleus of the solitary tract (of VII)
     C. Spinal trigeminal nucleus of V
     D. Mesencephalic nucleus of V
     E. Motor nucleus of V

Answer 23

A. Main motor nucleus of VII

Question 24

124. Each of the following is TRUE of nystagmus
     EXCEPT
     A. irritation to the cerebellum and cerebral
     cortex can cause it.
     B. it is defined as a rapid, involuntary movement
     of the eyes.
     C. the caloric test using warm water will initiate
     nystagmus to the contralateral side.
     D. the caloric test examines the vestibuloocular
     reflex.
     E. it involves CN VIII lesions

Answer 24

C. the caloric test using warm water will initiate
nystagmus to the contralateral side.

Question 25

125. Movement of the head would be damaged in a patient with damage to which of the following spinal cord tracts? A. Lateral spinothalamic B. Tectospinal C. Vestibulospinal D. Reticulospinal E. Anterior spinothalamic

Answer 25

B. Tectospinal

Question 26

126. Which of the following structures are involved in steroid synthesis and lipid/glycogen metabolism? A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B. Lysosomes C. Peroxisomes D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. Mitochondria

Answer 26

A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 27

127. Parafollicular cells are located within the A. cortical bone. B. kidney. C. small intestine. D. thyroid gland. E. parathyroid gland

Answer 27

D. thyroid gland.

Question 28

128. The esophagus normally contains which type of epithelium? A. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous. B. Columnar. C. Keratinized stratified squamous. D. Cuboidal. E. Pseudostratified squamous.

Answer 28

A. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous.

Question 29

129. Sperm is stored in the A. epididymis. B. urethra. C. testis. D. seminiferous tubules. E. prostate gland.

Answer 29

A. epididymis

Question 30

130. Each of the following is a function of skin EXCEPT A. sensation of touch, pain, and pressure. B. synthesis of vitamin E from ultraviolet light. C. excretion via sweat glands. D. homeostatic regulation of body temperature. E. protection against physical and chemical stresses.

Answer 30

B. synthesis of vitamin E from ultraviolet light.

Question 31

131. The sphincter of Boyden is located at the A. ampulla of Vater. B. lower portion of the esophagus. C. common bile duct. D. rectum. E. opening of the duodenum

Answer 31

C. common bile duct.

Question 32

132. The posterior 1/3 of the tongue drains directly into the A. deep cervical nodes. B. submental nodes. C. submandibular nodes. D. rectopharyngeal nodes. E. supraclavicular nodes.

Answer 32

A. deep cervical nodes.

Question 33

133. Damage to the gastric cardiac glands would affect which type of exocrine gland? A. Coiled B. Tubular C. Tubuloacinar D. Acinar E. Apocrine

Answer 33

D. Acinar

Question 34

134. Which of the following is FALSE regarding bone marrow of the maxilla and mandible? A. It is contained within the medullary spaces of spongy bone. B. Red marrow contains fatty cells and is the predominant marrow type in the mandibular ramus and condyles. C. Red marrow contains hematopoietic cells. D. Yellow marrow contains fatty cells. E. Yellow marrow is the predominant marrow type in the maxilla and mandible

Answer 34

B. Red marrow contains fatty cells and is the predominant marrow type in the mandibular ramus and condyles.

Question 35

135. Which of the following combinations of epithelium is contained in the nasal cavities? A. Stratified squamous, pseudostratified ciliated columnar, olfactory B. Simple squamous, olfactory, simple columnar C. Stratified squamous, olfactory, stratified columnar D. Simple cuboidal, simple squamous, simple columnar E. Stratified columnar, simple squamous, simple columnar

Answer 35

A. Stratified squamous, pseudostratified ciliated columnar, olfactory

Question 36

Suppose a patient presents to you after having been struck in the chin. Upon examination, you note a laceration of the anterior portion of their tongue accompanied with profuse bleeding. 136. Each of the following supply blood to the tongue EXCEPT A. facial artery. B. ascending pharyngeal artery. C. lingual artery. D. superior laryngeal artery. E. external carotid artery.

Answer 36

D. superior laryngeal artery.

Question 37

137. Each of the following muscles could possibly be damaged in this situation EXCEPT A. longitudinal. B. styloglossus. C. hyoglossus. D. transverse. E. palatoglossus.

Answer 37

E. palatoglossus.

Question 38

138. Which of the following combinations of cranial nerves provide motor innervation to the tongue? A. VII, X B. X, XII C. VII, XII D. V, XII E. VII, IX

Answer 38

B. X, XII

Question 39

139. Which type of taste would most likely be altered if the entire tip of the tongue were damaged? A. Sweet B. Salt C. Bitter D. Sour E. None of the above

Answer 39

A. Sweet

Question 40

140. Relative to fetal development, sclerotome cells form A. vertebrae and ribs. B. skeletal muscle within body. C. connective tissue of skin. D. skeletal muscle within limbs. E. skeletal muscle of the body wall.

Answer 40

A. vertebrae and ribs.

Question 41

141. Formation of which of the following is NOT altered in complete bilateral palatal clefting? A. Lip B. Primary palate C. Alveolar process D. Inferior nasal turbinate/concha E. Secondary palate

Answer 41

D. Inferior nasal turbinate/concha

Question 42

142. Which of the following is a characteristic of the eruptive stage of a tooth? A. Elongation of cervical loop and formation of HERS B. Fusion of the REE and oral epithelium C. Disappearance of the enamel knot D. Formation of the enamel organ E. Merging of the OEE with the IEE

Answer 42

B. Fusion of the REE and oral epithelium

Question 43

143. Which of the following is FALSE regarding cartilage? A. It is vascularized. B. It contains lacunae C. Chondrocytes comprise a large portion of it. D. It is specialized in areas such as the bronchi, Eustachian tube, and knee menisci. E. It can grow both appositionally and interstitially.

Answer 43

A. It is vascularized.

Question 44

144. Suppose a patient presents with altered hemostasis. Malfunction of which of the following may be the cause? A. Monocytes B. B cells C. Megakaryocytes D. Erythroblasts E. Granulocytes

Answer 44

C. Megakaryocytes

Question 45

145. If a patient has high levels of bile pigment excreted by the liver, increased destruction of which of the following may be the causative factor? A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Erythrocytes D. Platelets E. Macrophages

Answer 45

C. Erythrocytes

Question 46

146. Which of the following regarding gingival crevicular fluid is TRUE? A. It is comprised mostly of PMNs and leukocytes. B. It lacks plasma proteins and epithelial cells. C. It is contained mostly within the vestibule of the buccal mucosa. D. It lacks function in immune defense. E. It is not located within the gingival sulcus.

Answer 46

A. It is comprised mostly of PMNs and leukocytes.

Question 47

147. The most likely diagnosis for a young patient presenting with brownish pigmentation and mottling of his dentition would be A. congenital syphilis. B. nutritional deficiency. C. fluorosis. D. hypocalcification. E. hypomineralization

Answer 47

C. fluorosis.

Question 48

148. Malfunction of which cranial nerve would affect the efferent output of the gag reflex? A. CN XII B. CN V C. CN IX D. CN VII E. CN X

Answer 48

E. CN X

Question 49

149. Each of the following carries deoxygenated blood EXCEPT A. hepatic vein. B. superior vena cava. C. inferior vena cava. D. pulmonary vein. E. coronary sinus.

Answer 49

D. pulmonary vein.

Question 50

150. The gastroepiploic artery forms an anastomosis between which two arteries? A. Right gastric and hepatic proper B. Left gastric and right gastric C. Right gastric and short gastric D. Splenic and gastroduodenal E. Hepatic proper and splenic

Answer 50

D. Splenic and gastroduodenal