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1staidMicro1 Flashcards

1
Q

30-year-old male presents to your office for routine
dental care. The patient complains of frequent
night sweats and generalized malaise. On physical
exam, you note multiple enlarged, swollen, rubbery
nodes upon palpation of the cervical and submandibular
regions. After weeks of increase in size
of the affected nodes, you decide to refer the
patient for a nodal biopsy.

  1. Which of the following diseases show the
    presence of Reed-Sternberg cells on cytological
    exam?
    A. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
    B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
    C. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
    D. Hodgkin lymphoma
    E. Multiple myeloma
A

D. Hodgkin lymphoma

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2
Q
  1. Each of the following are signs/symptoms one
    would find in a patient with non-Hodgkin
    lymphoma EXCEPT
    A. night sweats.
    B. malaise.
    C. fatigue.
    D. weight gain.
    E. solid tumor masses.
A

D. weight gain.

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3
Q
  1. Each of the following regarding Burkitt lymphoma
    is true EXCEPT
    A. close association with Epstein Barr virus.
    B. high-grade T-cell malignancy.
    C. cytogenic chromosomal change seen is
    t(8; 14).
    D. it is a form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
    E. lymph nodes are often spared
A

B. high-grade T-cell malignancy.

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases show Pautrier
    microabscesses on histological exam?
    A. Ewing sarcoma
    B. Osteosarcoma
    C. Mycosis fungoides
    D. Multiple myeloma
    E. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
A

C. Mycosis fungoides

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5
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of cell-mediated
    immunity EXCEPT
    A. it is responsible for type IV hypersensitivity
    reactions.
    B. it defends against parasites.
    C. it is important in transplant rejection.
    D. it involves NK cells and macrophages.
    E. it involves predominantly B cells.
A

E. it involves predominantly B cells.

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6
Q

A 17-year-old male presents to your office for
extraction of all four third molars. The patient
denies any significant medical history, and you proceed
with the procedure. While starting an intravenous
line, the patient’s arm is accidentally cut,
and he begins bleeding excessively.

  1. Which of the following secondary hemostatic
    disorders is this patient MOST likely affected
    by
    A. von Willebrand disease
    B. Hemophilia A
    C. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
    D. Thrombocytopenia
    E. Hemophilia C
A

B. Hemophilia A

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7
Q
  1. Each of the following with regard to von
    Willebrand disease is correct EXCEPT
    A. it is a qualitative platelet defect.
    B. vWF allows adhesion of platelets to
    collagen.
    C. it affects both the platelet plug and coagulation
    cascade.
    D. vWF functions independent of factor VIII.
    E. it is an autosomal dominant disorder.
A

D. vWF functions independent of factor VIII.

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    vitamin K deficiency?
    A. Increased activity of clotting factors II,
    VII, IX, X
    B. Decreased PT
    C. No change in PTT
    D. Caused by malabsorption of fat
    E. Abnormal platelet count
A

D. Caused by malabsorption of fat

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9
Q
  1. Each of the following regarding wound repair
    is true EXCEPT
    A. secondary intention wound healing
    occurs when a sizeable gap exists between
    margins.
    B. a large extraction socket heals by primary
    intention.
    C. the inflammatory stage occurs immediately
    after tissue injury.
    D. contact inhibition occurs when migrating
    epithelial wound margins meet.
    E. healing by primary intention occurs at a
    faster rate than secondary intention.
A

B. a large extraction socket heals by primary
intention.

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10
Q
  1. Each of the following is a topical antibiotic
    EXCEPT
    A. neomycin.
    B. bacitracin.
    C. polymyxin B.
    D. ofloxacin.
    E. all of the above are topical antibiotics
A

D. ofloxacin.

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following bacteria is a grampositive
    cocci that commonly causes skin
    infection and abscess formation?
    A. Staphylococcus aureus
    B. Streptococcus bovis
    C. Streptococcus viridans
    D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
    E. Actinomyces israelii
A

A. Staphylococcus aureus

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12
Q
  1. Each of the following antibiotics is correctly
    matched with its mode of action EXCEPT

A. macrolide—inhibits protein synthesis by
binding 50S ribosomal subunit.

B. cephalosporin—inhibits cell wall synthesis
by blocking peptidoglycan crosslinking.

C. penicillin—inhibits cell wall synthesis by
blocking peptidoglycan cross-linking.

D. tetracycline—inhibits protein synthesis by
binding 30S ribosomal subunit.

E. clindamycin—inhibits DNA gyrase

A

E. clindamycin—inhibits DNA gyrase

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    the viral growth curve?

A. Eclipse period is when both virions and
nucleic acid grow exponentially.
B. Virions and viral nucleic acid have nearly
an identical growth curve during the rise
period.
C. The rise period occurs first once a virus
enters a cell.
D. One virus normally takes days to double.
E. During the rise period, there is a
decreased number of virions.

A

B. Virions and viral nucleic acid have nearly
an identical growth curve during the rise
period.

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following bacteria is most
    strongly associated with sex-steroid-induced
    gingivitis?
    A. Lactobacillus casei
    B. Prevotella intermedia
    C. Streptococcus mutans
    D. Actinomyces viscosus
    E. Lactobacillus acidophilus
A

B. Prevotella intermedia

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following components of the
    complement system mediates opsonization?
    A. C5a
    B. C6
    C. C8
    D. C9
    E. C3b
A

E. C3b

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16
Q

A 55-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of burning mouth, dry eyes, and a rash on her midface. On exam, you note multiple carious
lesions and a lack of saliva. You decide to order a
blood draw and labs for certain immunologic
markers prior to beginning routine dental care.

  1. Suppose that lab results show the presence of
    antinuclear antibodies. Which of the following
    diseases would one expect this to be
    indicative of?
    A. Reiter syndrome
    B. Behcet syndrome
    C. Scleroderma
    D. Ankylosing spondylitis
    E. Sjögren syndrome
A

E. Sjögren syndrome

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17
Q
  1. What is the most common autoimmune disorder
    in the United States?
    A. Sjögren syndrome
    B. Rheumatoid arthritis
    C. Lupus
    D. Polyarteritis nodosa
    E. Dermatomyositis
A

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE with regard
    to the Stephan curve?
    A. Nonfermentable carbohydrates cause a
    rapid decrease in salivary pH.
    B. It takes up to 40 minutes to recover normal
    salivary pH after eating sugar.
    C. Sucrose ingestion can greatly affect
    salivary pH.
    D. Normal salivary pH is around 7.0.
    E. Enamel begins to demineralize at a pH of 5.5.
A

A. Nonfermentable carbohydrates cause a
rapid decrease in salivary pH.

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following plaque control agents
    has the highest alcohol content?
    A. Total (sodium fluoride triclosan)
    B. Gel-Kam (stannous fluoride)
    C. Listerine (phenolic/essential oil
    compound)
    D. Peridex (chlorhexidine gluconate)
    E. Scope (cetylpyridinium chloride
A

C. Listerine (phenolic/essential oil
compound)

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE about the
    bacterial growth curve?
    A. Cell growth plateaus during the stationary
    phase.
    B. The initial phase is signified by increased
    cell death.
    C. There is an exponential increase in bacterial
    growth during the log phase.
    D. There is increased metabolic activity
    during the lag phase.
    E. The lag phase is characterized by a lack of
    required bacterial nutrients.
A

B. The initial phase is signified by increased
cell death.

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21
Q

Suppose a patient presents to you with tall and
thin stature, abnormally long legs and arms, and
spiderlike fingers. They also mention that they suffer
from cystic medial necrosis of the aorta.

  1. Which of the following diseases does this
    patient most likely have?
    A. Cystic fibrosis
    B. von Hippel-Lindau disease
    C. Tay-Sachs disease
    D. Fabry disease
    E. Marfan syndrome
A

E. Marfan syndrome

22
Q
  1. Which of the following genes would you suspect
    to be mutated with this condition?
    A. VHL
    B. Fibrillin
    C. BRCA-1
    D. N-myc
    E. BRCA-2
A

B. Fibrillin

23
Q

A 20-year-old male presents as a referral for extraction
of a necrotic tooth. You decide that the tooth
cannot be immediately extracted due to an active
infection, and you place the patient on a regimen
of penicillin for 1 week. The patient calls your
office the next day complaining of a bulls-eye rash
on the back of his hand and forearm.

  1. What do you believe this patient is suffering
    from?
    A. Impetigo
    B. Type IV hypersensitivity
    C. Bullous pemphigoid
    D. Pemphigus vulgaris
    E. Erythema multiforme
A

E. Erythema multiforme

24
Q
  1. What type of hypersensitivity reaction do you
    believe this lesion to be from?
    A. Type I
    B. Type II
    C. Type III
    D. Type IV
    E. Not a hypersensitivity reaction
A

C. Type III

25
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid?
    A. Both lesions have very different clinical
    presentations.
    B. They are both mediated by IgM.
    C. Histology is of no diagnostic help when
    differentiating between the two.
    D. Only pemphigus vulgaris has Tzanck
    cells.
    E. Immunofluorescence shows the same
    features between the two.
A

D. Only pemphigus vulgaris has Tzanck
cells.

26
Q
  1. Which of the following bacteria possesses
    hyaluronidase and is known to cause glomerulonephritis?
    A. Bordetella pertussis
    B. Streptococcus pyogenes
    C. Haemophilus influenzae
    D. Helicobacter pylori
    E. Francisella tularensis
A

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

27
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding
    bacterial classification?
    A. Gram-positive microorganisms contain
    LTA in their cell walls.
    B. Obligate anaerobes typically grow well in
    oxygenated environments.
    C. Spores are produced by gram-positive
    rods only.
    D. Only one bacterium is differentiated by
    the acid-fast stain.
    E. Bacteria designated as cocci are microscopically
    round.
A

B. Obligate anaerobes typically grow well in
oxygenated environments.

28
Q

Questions 28-32 pertain to the following clinical
vignette:
A 12-year-old male presents to your office for regular
dental cleanings. While taking a health history,
his mother tells you that he had a “bad sore throat
which went away, then a fever returned a few
weeks with small bumps on his knee and wrist.”
You are suspicious of this illness, and decide to further investigate via physician referral.

  1. Upon receiving physician workup, you see
    that (more specifically) the patient experienced
    polyarthritis, erythema marginatum,
    chorea, carditis, and subcutaneous nodules.
    What illness are these symptoms indicative of?
    A. Rheumatic fever
    B. Measles
    C. Pneumonia
    D. Mumps
    E. Parvovirus
A

A. Rheumatic fever

29
Q
  1. Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions
    occur with this illness?
    A. Type I
    B. Type II
    C. Type III
    D. Type IV
    E. Not a hypersensitivity reaction
A

C. Type III

30
Q
  1. Each of the following are included in the
    grouping of Aschoff bodies EXCEPT
    A. Anitschkow cells.
    B. multinucleated giant cells.
    C. Aschoff myocytes.
    D. focal interstitial myocardial inflammation.
    E. lines of Zahn.
A

E. lines of Zahn.

31
Q
  1. Which of the following Streptococcal strains
    are seen in rheumatic fever?
    A. Group A beta-hemolytic
    B. Group C
    C. Group B beta-hemolytic
    D. Alpha-hemolytic
    E. Group D beta-hemolytic
A

A. Group A beta-hemolytic

32
Q
  1. According to the Jones Criteria, how many
    major and minor criteria are met from the
    following symptoms—arthritis, fever, ECG
    changes, arthralgias?
    A. 3 major, 1 minor
    B. 2 major, 2 minor
    C. 1 major, 3 minor
    D. 4 major
    E. 4 minor
A

C. 1 major, 3 minor

33
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE concerning
    necrotic changes?
    A. Ischemia is seen with coagulative necrosis.
    B. Fatty acids are released with liquefactive
    necrosis.
    C. Myocardial infarcts cause liquefactive
    necrosis.
    D. Caseous necrosis is seen in tuberculosis
    infection.
    E. Granulomas are considered as being
    characteristic of caseous necrosis.
A

C. Myocardial infarcts cause liquefactive
necrosis.

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is secreted by B cells?
    A. IL-4
    B. INF-γ
    C. IL-2
    D. TGF-β
    E. TNF-α
A

D. TGF-β

35
Q
  1. Each of the following cellular injuries is
    matched up correctly with its causative
    chemical EXCEPT
    A. methanol—blindness.
    B. cyanide—renal tubular necrosis.
    C. lead—basophilic stippling of red blood
    cells.
    D. mercury—pneumonitis.
    E. carbon tetrachloride—fatty liver
A

B. cyanide—renal tubular necrosis.

36
Q
  1. Each of the following is true regarding periodontal
    health EXCEPT
    A. the epitactic concept states that calculus
    formation is independent of proteins.
    B. materia alba is largely composed of
    desquamated cells and is easily washed
    away.
    C. subgingival plaque is largely composed of
    gram-negative bacteria.
    D. chlorhexidine gluconate is the most effective
    antiplaque mouthrinse.
    E. supragingival plaque is largely composed
    of gram-positive bacteria.
A

A. the epitactic concept states that calculus
formation is independent of proteins.

37
Q
  1. Which of the following types of periodontal
    disease commonly presents with punched-out
    interproximal papillae, fetor oris, and marginal
    gingival pseudomembrane formation?

A. Chronic periodontitis
B. Aggressive periodontitis
C. Plaque-induced gingivitis
D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
E. Candidiasis

A

D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

38
Q

A patient presents to you for extraction of several
teeth. Upon examining intraorally, you notice diffuse
mucosal pigmentation of the gingiva, tongue,
hard palate, and buccal mucosa. When questioning
the patient, he mentions that he has been fatigued lately and very weak. You decide to send
for a physician’s consultation on the patient as well
as labs prior to treatment.

  1. The above symptoms coupled with the following
    labs (decreased cortisol, increased
    serum sodium, increased serum potassium),
    you would expect which of the following?
    A. Cushing disease
    B. Addison disease
    C. Primary hyperparathyroidism
    D. Cushing syndrome
    E. Plummer disease
A

B. Addison disease

39
Q
  1. What does the ACTH stimulation test
    accomplish?
    A. Differentiates between primary and secondary
    hyperparathyroidism
    B. Differentiates between hyper- and
    hypothyroidism
    C. Differentiates between Cushing disease
    and syndrome
    D. Differentiates between primary and secondary
    Addison disease
    E. Differentiates between acromegaly and
    dwarfism
A

D. Differentiates between primary and secondary
Addison disease

40
Q
  1. Which of the following would be an adequate
    treatment for Addison disease?
    A. Administer cortisol
    B. Administer aldosterone
    C. Administer androgens
    D. Administer growth hormone
    E. Administer parathyroid hormone
A
41
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases presents with
    cystic bone lesions, nephrocalcinosis, and
    metastatic calcifications?
    A. Hyperparathyroidism
    B. Grave disease
    C. Hyperthyroidism
    D. Hypoparathyroidism
    E. Addison disease
A

A. Hyperparathyroidism

42
Q
  1. Chvostek and Trousseau sign test for which of
    the following?
    A. Chronic hypocalcemia
    B. Acute hypercalcemia
    C. Acute hypocalcemia
    D. Acute hypercalcemia
    E. Hyperphosphatemia
A

C. Acute hypocalcemia

43
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of adrenal gland
    neoplasia EXCEPT
    A. pheochromocytoma causes an increase in
    catecholamine release.
    B. eurofibromatosis and von Hippel-Lindau
    disease are related to neuroblastoma.
    C. the N-myc gene is found mutated in
    neuroblastoma.
    D. metastatic spread to the liver is a sequelae
    of neuroblastoma.
    E. the symptoms of pheochromocytoma
    include paroxysmal HTN and
    hyperglycemia.
A

B. eurofibromatosis and von Hippel-Lindau
disease are related to neuroblastoma.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following endogenous pigments
    is formed via auto-oxidation, accumulates
    in Kupffer cells, and is indicative of
    hepatocellular injury?
    A. Ceroid
    B. Lipofuscin
    C. Hemosiderin
    D. Melanin
    E. Bilirubin
A

A. Ceroid

45
Q
  1. Each of the following are true regarding
    immune defense EXCEPT
    A. acquired immunity includes cell- and
    antibody-mediated defense.
    B. innate immunity exhibits immunological
    memory.
    C. active and passive defense are different
    ways to classify acquired immunity.
    D. lysozymes are an example of innate
    immunity.
    E. B lymphocytes are an example of
    acquired immunity.
A

B. innate immunity exhibits immunological
memory.

46
Q
  1. Each of the following is found within the
    PMNs cytoplasmic granules EXCEPT
    A. neuraminidase.
    B. hydrolase.
    C. myeloperoxidase.
    D. lactoferrin.
    E. interferon.
A

E. interferon.

47
Q
  1. A young patient presents to you with the following
    symptoms: multiple white lesions on
    the buccal mucosa and a nonpruritic maculopapular
    brick-red rash. Which family of
    viruses do you believe to be suspect?
    A. Rhabdovirus
    B. Paramyxovirus
    C. Papovirus
    D. Reovirus
    E. Calicivirus
A

B. Paramyxovirus

48
Q
  1. Each of the following is an RNA enveloped
    virus EXCEPT
    A. poliovirus.
    B. rubella virus.
    C. human T-cell leukemia virus.
    D. human immunodeficiency virus.
    E. hepatitis C virus.
A

A. poliovirus.

49
Q
  1. Each of the ADA-standardized guidelines for
    antibiotic prophylaxis below are correct
    dosages EXCEPT

A. adult unable to take oral medication:
ampicillin 2 g IM or IV 30 minutes prior
to procedure.

B. children allergic to penicillins:
cephalexin 50 mg/kg PO 1 hour prior to
procedure.

C. adults allergic to penicillins: clindamycin
2 g PO 1 hour prior to procedure.

D. adult standard prophylaxis: penicillin 2 g
PO 1 hour prior to procedure.

E. children allergic to penicillin:
clindamycin 20 mg/kg PO 1 hour prior to
procedure.

A

C. adults allergic to penicillins: clindamycin
2 g PO 1 hour prior to procedure.

50
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding
    bacterial vaccines?
    A. Antitoxin vaccine is a form of active
    immunity.
    B. Immunity from cholera is provided via
    killed vaccine.
    C. Active immunity includes whole bacteria,
    capsular polysaccharides, or toxoids.
    D. Antitoxin vaccine contains antibodies to
    bacterial exotoxins.
    E. Passive immunity includes preformed
    antibody preparations which elicit
    immunity.
A

A. Antitoxin vaccine is a form of active
immunity.

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE with regard
    to cellular dysplasia?
    A. It is nonmalignant cellular growth.
    B. It involves atypical cells with invasion.
    C. It is disorganized and structureless maturation
    and spatial arrangement of cells.
    D. It can be caused by chronic irritation.
    E. There is increased mitosis and
    pleomorphism.
A

B. It involves atypical cells with invasion.

52
Q
  1. Each of the tumor markers are correctly
    matched to their associated cancer EXCEPT
    A. CEA—adenocarcinoma.
    B. LSA—lymphomas.
    C. AFP—neuroblastoma.
    D. hCG—choriocarcinoma.
    E. desmin—rhabdomyosarcoma.
A

C. AFP—neuroblastoma.

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