SeeyuProsthoDM Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
- An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar compared with a narrow bar is that the wide bar:
A. is more stable C. can be rigid with
less bulk
B. is easier to polish
D. is less irritating to the soft tissue
A
C. can be rigid with
less bulk
2
Q
- When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric relation, but does not contact in one or more of the eccentric movements, grinding should be performed on:
A. both the cusp and the opposing area
C. the opposing fossa or the marginal ridge
B. the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact
D. the opposing areas in eccentric positions.
A
the opposing fossa or the marginal ridge
3
Q
- Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is provided primarily by the;
A. convex surface of the labial flange
D.. rounded contours of interdental papillae
B. proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds E. thickness of the border in the vestibule
C .facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached gingiva.
A
facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached gingiva.
4
Q
In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base, which of the following is on the posterior border?
A. Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
B. Hamular process D. vibrating line
E. pterygomandibular raphe
A
A. Hamular notch
4
Q
- Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?
A. Xerostomia D. Air chamber in midpalate
B. Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased salivary film thickness
C. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa
A
C. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa
5
Q
- Which of the following design characteristics of a partial denture is most important to oral health?
A. Bracing B. support
C. stability D. retention
A
B. support
6
Q
- The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of porcelain is the;
A. fusion temperature C. uniformity of particle size
B. ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness of condensation
A
D. thoroughness of condensation
6
Q
To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be so formed that it;
A. extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
B. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
C. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
D. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area
A
D. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area
7
Q
- An abutment tooth exhibiting an unfavorable survey line should;
A. be restored
C. have unfavorable contours improved
B. be by-passed in the framework design
D. receive only a rest and not be clasped
A
C. have unfavorable contours improved
8
Q
Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not sweets occurs. The most likely cause is;
A. gingival recession
D. unseating of the bridge
B. deflective occlusal contact
E. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
C. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth
A
B. deflective occlusal contact
9
Q
- The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder
C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height
D. increasing the gap
A
B. increasing its height
10
Q
- A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve embrasure contours
B. stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing
A
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load
11
Q
- A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct the centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this dentist do?
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
B. Make a new face bow and centric record
C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients
A
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
12
Q
- Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces
A
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
13
Q
- In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this pontic?
A. The length of the pontic.
B. The masticatory force of the patient.
C. The position of the opposing contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.
A
C. The position of the opposing contact areas.
14
Q
- The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is;
A. moisture contamination
C. excessive condensation of the porcelain
B. excessive firing
D. inadequate condensation of the porcelain
A
D. inadequate condensation of the porcelain
15
Q
On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;
A. horizontal guidance
C. mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee
B. same as the condylar guidance
D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.
A
D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.
16
Q
- A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because;
A. it is stronger
C. better esthetics can be achieved
B. it can be treated as an independent abutment D. less chair time is required in its fabrication
A
B. it can be treated as an independent abutment
17
Q
- The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that;
A. it is a dul knife edge.
C. its position be supragingival
B. Its position be subgingivall
D. its position be easily discernible
A
D. its position be easily discernible
18
Q
Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a FPD?
A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown
A
D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown
19
Q
- In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred over a lingual bar connector?
A. When more rigidity is required.
B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
C. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.
A
D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.
20
Q
- Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over the ascending area of the mandible?
A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture.
A
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture.
21
Q
- Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
A. unseating of the denture C. greater retention
B. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging
A
A. unseating of the denture
22
Q
- For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
B. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central fossae
A
B. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps
23
25. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the situation?
A. Moving the anterior teeth facially.
C. Increasing the interocclusal distance
B. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension D. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension
D. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension
24
26. In a complete maxillary denture, accurate adaptation of the border of the maxillary facial flange affects which of the following the most?
A. Speech B. support C. stability D. esthetics
D. esthetics
25
27. The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should receive special attention. Which of the following anatomical structures might cause soreness if the denture is overextended?
A. Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
B. Buccinator D. internal pterygoid
E. lateral tendon of the temporal
A. Masseter
26
28. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension partial denture. The recommended procedure is to
A. make impression of both simultaneously
B. start first on the maxillary complete denture
C. start first with the least stable prosthesis
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame
27
29. Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount of adjustment of a base metal removable clasp arm?
A. Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D. tensile strength
C. elongation
28
30. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension partial denture. The recommended procedure is to
A. make impression of both simultaneously
B. start first on the maxillary complete denture
C. start first with the least stable prosthesis
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame
29
31. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
A. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
B. junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
C. level of the free gingival margin
D. occlusal one third of the clinical crown
A. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
30
32. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
A. “s” sounds C. “t” and “th” sounds
B. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds
A. “s” sounds
31
33. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the remaining supporting tissues?
A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth
B. Preserving denture base support
32
34. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:
A. increased rigidity C. increased durability
B. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface
D. conservation of tooth surface
33
35. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:
A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
B. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
D. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture
C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
34
36. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned repeatedly for adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
B. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
C. The loss of even centric relation contacts.
D. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension
C. The loss of even centric relation contacts.
35
37. The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure hinging movements is possible is:
A. centric occlusion C. postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension)
B. retruded contact position D. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position)
D. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position)
36
38. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing point are in contact and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
A. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
B. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension E. occlusal vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension
37
39. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial denture? Plastic teeth are:
A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin
D. retained well in acrylic resin
38
40. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine needs an immediate maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient is best treated by:
A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
B. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
C. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
D. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.
A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
39
41. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most esthetic?
A. A bar clasp
C. an intracoronal attachment
B. A circumferential clasp
D. a round, wrought-wire clasp
C. an intracoronal attachment
40
42. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to mount a patient’s casts on the true hinge axis?
A. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
B. When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
C. When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension through restorations.
D. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-cusped teeth on a fully adjusted articulator.
C. When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension through restorations.
41
43. In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regulate/s the paths of the condyles in mandibular movements?
A. the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
B. The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap.
C. The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and muscular influence.
D. The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of compensating curve
C. The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and muscular influence.
42
44. Which of the following best explains why the dentist should provide a postpalatal seal in a complete maxillary denture? The seal will compensate for:
A. errors in fabrication
C. polymerization and cooling shrinkage
B. tissue displacement D. deformation of the impression material
C. polymerization and cooling shrinkage
43
45. For complete dentures, which of the following three factors affect the correct positioning of lips?
A. Face-bow transfer, position of teeth, and correct rest vertical dimension.
B. Face-bow transfer, thickness of the anterior border, and correct occlusal vertical dimension.
C. Correct rest vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of teeth.
D. Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of teeth
D. Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of teeth
44
46. In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily oxidized minor components of the alloy is to;
A. Improve bonding
B. Decrease porosity
C. React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal
D. Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain
A. Improve bonding
45
Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when
A. air fired C. tempered after firing
B. under compression
D. fired several times before completion
B. under compression
46
48. The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under varying light conditions is;
A. metamerism C. transmittance
B. translucency D. opacification E. refractive optics
A. metamerism
47
Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on short molars can be enhanced by;
A. using zinc phosphate cement
C. placing several vertical groove
B. using a full shoulder finish line
D. minimizing the depth of occlusal carving
C. placing several vertical groove
48
The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion rim by paralleling the rim with the;
A. ala-tragus plane C. tragus-canthus plane
B. ala-canthus plane D. ala-external auditory meatus plane
A. ala-tragus plane
49
51. Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for setting both the medial and superior condylar guides on an arcon articulator?
A. Intercuspation
C. lateral interocclusal records
B. Centric relation
D. protrusive interocclusal records
C. lateral interocclusal records
50
52. An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a patient to overclose and to have a poor facial profile. To correct this problem, the dentist should do which of the following?
A. increase the rest vertical dimension and increase the interocclusal distance
B. decrease the rest vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance
C. decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and increase interocclusal distance
D. increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance
D. increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance
51
53. Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if occlusal vertical dimension is increased?
A. The closing muscles may become strained
B. The opening muscles may become strained
C. The closing muscles may become too relaxed
D. Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth.
A. The closing muscles may become strained
52
54. A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular residual ridge. In fabricating a complete denture for this patient, a dentist should consider which of the following?
A. Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of occlusion over a greater area.
B. Minimal extension of the denture- to limit tenderness to a smaller area.
C. Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease biting forces
D. A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact in eccentric jar relations
A. Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of occlusion over a greater area.
53
55. Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for which of the following reasons?
A. To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.
B. To help mount the cast on the articulator
C. To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator
D. To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor.
D. To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor.
54
56. In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what direction?
A. Out, back and up
C. down, forward and medially
B. Up, back and down
D. down, forward and laterally E. none of the above.
C. down, forward and medially
55
The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that has been worn for a long time is:
A. epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
B. pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma
A. epulis fissuratum
56
The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal direction is:
A. support B. pressure C. esthetics
D. stability
D. stability
57
59. Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best avoided by:
A. Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal attachments
B. Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth contours
C. clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support
E. altering tooth contours
58
Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is due primarily to:
A. occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal conditioner
B. improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed framework
D. an inadequately designed framework
59
A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble pronouncing the letter “t”. This is probably caused by:
A. too thick a palatal seal area
B. too thick a base in the mandibular denture
C. incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors
D. improper positioning of mandibular incisors
C. incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors
60
The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a complete denture is limited by the action of the:
A. stylohyoid muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle
B. medial pterygoid muscle D. superior constrictor muscle
D. superior constrictor muscle
61
In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:
A. aid in balancing occlusion
B. assure predictable clasp retention
C. from right angles to the occlusal plane
D. eliminate the necessity for precision attachments
E. eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp
B. assure predictable clasp retention
62
When the path of dislodgement is not controlled and rotational dislodgement of extension bases occurs, remotely located vertical metal stops placed in prepared seats can be used to enhance the effectiveness of retentive clasps. The vertical metal stops are:
A. indirect claps C. indirect retainers
B. remote retainer D. forward retainers
E. passive retainers
C. indirect retainers
63
Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in
A. poor denture retention C. increased interocclusal distance
B. drooping of the corners of the mouth E. creases and wrinkles around the lip
C. trauma to underlying supporting tissues
C. trauma to underlying supporting tissues
64
66. Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe bilateral tuberosity undercuts is to:
A. remove both tuberosity undercuts
C. reduce the tissue bilaterally
B. reduce the tissue on one side , if possible D. none of the above. No treatment is necessary
B. reduce the tissue on one side , if possible
65
67. Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs;
A. on closing from centric relation
C. on initial opening from centric relation
B. in the upper compartment of the TMJ
D. in the lower compartment of the TMJ
B. in the upper compartment of the TMJ
66
When the posterior maxillary buccal space is entirely filled with the denture flange, interference may occur with movement of the;
A. masseter muscle B. coronoid process C. condyloid process D. zygomatic process
B. coronoid process
67
A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal extension RPD. This is probably caused by:
A. deflective occlusal contacts
C. thin flanges on acrylic bases
B. passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth
D. insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth
A. deflective occlusal contacts
68
70. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the distance between occluding surfaces of maxillary and mandibular teeth or occlusion rim is;
A. centric occlusion C. interocclusal distance
B. vertical dimension D. vertical dimension of rest
C. interocclusal distance
69
The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of;
A. silica B. carbon C. gypsum
D. alumina
C. gypsum
70
The property that most closely describes the ability of a cast gold inlay to be burnished is;
A. elastic limit C. percentage elongation
B. ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience E. modulus of elasticity
C. percentage elongation
71
Creep of a metal indicates that the metal;
A. lacks edge strength
D. has insufficient retention
B. has excessive flexibility
E. will deform under static load
C. has insufficient crushing strength
E. will deform under static load
72
The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the retainer in function is called;
A. tripoding B. reciprocation C. stress-breaking D. indirect retention
B. reciprocation
73
The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;
A. lateral movements C. opening movements
B. protrusive movements D. closing movements
A. lateral movements
74
The face-bow is used to record;
A. centric relation
C. relation of the mandible to the maxilla
B. relation of the maxilla to the TMJ
D. relation of the mandible to the TMJ
B. relation of the maxilla to the TMJ
75
The function of the compensating curve is;
A. to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is protruded.
B. To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
C. The same as the function of the curve of Spee
D. None of the above.
A. to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is protruded.
76
78. The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular complete denture is the;
A. labial border
B. buccal border
C. distolingual border
D. anterior lingual border
D. anterior lingual border
77
79. Which of the following describes a material with high compressive strength but low tensile strength?
A. Tough B. brittle C. ductile
D. malleable E. resilient
B. brittle
78
Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and, therefore, the most difficult to remove from the mouth?
A. Polyether C. Addition silicone
B. Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible hydrocolloid
A. Polyether
79
Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol materials, except:
A. They provide an excellent marginal seal.
B. They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
C. They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin
D. They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.
D. They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.
80
82. Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging them into an acid bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal
C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting
D. surface roughness of the restoration
C. warpage of the restoration
81
83. Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a base-metal alloy in numerical value?
A. Hardness C. casting shrinkage
B. Specific gravity D. fusion temperature
E. modulus elasticity
B. Specific gravity
82
Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a condensation impression material as soon as possible?
A. The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is initially high and then decreases with time.
B. Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of the set material.
C. If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands as they absorb water from air.
D. Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer of the impression tray and cause distortion.
B. Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of the set material.
83
85. A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
A. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
B. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
C. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during polymerization
D. an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the mouth
C. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during polymerization
84
86. The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on the surface of a dental amalgam restoration is most likely;
A. mercury
B. a sulfide
C. gamma-2
D. copper oxide
B. a sulfide
85
87. Which of the following is a problem with the polyether impression materials?
A. Low modulus of elasticity
B. Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
C. dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
D. consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid
C. dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
86
The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bonding and glazing agents, and resin cements for orthodontic bonds is;
A. inorganic filler
C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
B. benzoyl methyl ether
D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate
D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate
87
89. Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;
A. Shear B. impact C. tension D. compression
D. compression
88
90. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage of using polyether elastomeric impression materials?
A. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
B. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate E. have longer working time
C. are much stiffer
89
An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is that polysulfide impression material;
A. will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
B. is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is present.
C. requires less armamentarium
90
In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:
A. silver
B. nickel
C. cobalt
D. Chromium E. Tungsten
D. Chromium
91
93. Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily in;
C. crystal structure
B. Chemical formula D. solubility in water
A. Density
92
Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc phosphate cement?
A. Longer working time
C. increased compressive strength
B. Lower film thickness
D. superior biologic compatibility
Lower film thickness
93
95. Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indicates that it has been;
A. cold worked C. stress relief annealed
B. recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment
A. cold worked
94
Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;
A. degree of translucency
C. degree of saturation of the hue
B. combined effect of hue and value
D. all of the above
C. degree of saturation of the hue
95
97. Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid restoration for frameworks of the same dimension?
A. Wrought gold
C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
B. Palladium alloys
D. partial denture casting gold in the hardened condition
C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
96
Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function of the ;
A. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C. percent composition by weight of water
B. concentration of potassium sulfate
D. temperature
D. temperature
97
99. Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after fabrication in order to minimize changes in shape caused by;
A. Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax components
B. Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of the wax
E. relaxation of internal stresses
E. relaxation of internal stresses
98
Which of the following properties of dental materials is time-dependent?
A. Creep C. elastic limit
B. Resilience D. ultimate strength E. compressive strength
A. Creep
