2

Question 1

Dynamic Hydroplaning occurs as a result of the combination of:
a. Aircraft weight and a wet runway.
b. Aircraft speed, weight and a wet runway.
c. Aircraft speed, tyre pressure and a wet runway.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Powered control systems require an artificial feel system to simulate air loads as feedback for the pilot. A common system uses ‘Q’ Feel, which is a function of:
a. Air speed.
b. Control input force.
c. Centre of pressure movement.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Large transport jet aircraft use flight spoilers for:
a. Pitch control.
b. Yaw control.
c. Roll control.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

On an EADI the ATT flag appears, other affected elements of the display are:
a. Pitch and roll and flight director bars.
b. Pitch and roll information.
c. Pitch and roll information, flight director bars and glideslope and localiser deviation.

Answer 4

A

Question 5

Blocker doors in a turbofan engine reverse thrust system are used to divert the -
a. cooling air
b. cold stream
c. hot stream
d. bleed air

Answer 5

B

Question 6

The least advisable combination of autopilot/flight director modes is -
a. to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot off
b. to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot on
c. to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot off
d. to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot on

Answer 6

C

Question 7

Compressor overboard bleed valves are open when there is:
a. An increase in airflow in the forward stages of the compressor at low RPM.
b. A decrease in airflow in the forward stages of the compressor at low RPM.
c. An increase in airflow in the forward stages of the compressor at high RPM.

Answer 7

A

Question 8

The battery of a large aircraft is being recharged in flight. The method would be:
a. Constant voltage with a reducing current.
b. Constant voltage and current.
c. Constant current with reducing voltage.

Answer 8

A

Question 9

For measurement of gas temperature in the turbine section of a gas turbine engine, multiple thermocouples are used, and are connected:
a. In series and indicate maximum temperature.
b. In parallel and indicate average temperatures.
c. In parallel and indicate maximum temperature.

Answer 9

B

Question 10

With reference to an auto-brake system, which of the following would provide maximum braking?
a. Max auto.
b. Manual braking.
c. R.T.O.

Answer 10

C

Question 11

If the SPD annunciation of the EADI is extinguished:
a. The auto pilot has disconnected.
b. The required speed has been captured, and the AT will maintain selected speed.
c. The auto throttle has disconnected.

Answer 11

C

Question 12

If the aircraft DME is not locked on and interrogating a ground station, the display will show:
a. All zeros.
b. All dashes.
c. Rolling digits.

Answer 12

B

Question 13

Regarding the gas flow in the combustion section of an ideal gas turbine engine:
a. Pressure and temperature increase.
b. Pressure and temperature decrease.
c. Pressure is constant and temperature increases.

Answer 13

C

Question 14

The combination of flight director/autopilot modes not selectable together is -
a. HDG SEL and HDG HOLD.
b. HDG SEL and V/S
c. HDG SEL and ALT HOLD
d. HDG HOLD and LOC

Answer 14

A

Question 15

The item of jet engine performance that remains constant in a climb if the thrust lever position remains unchanged is -
a. N1 RPM
b. EGT
c. EPR
d. Fuel Flow

Answer 15

A

Question 16

Regarding inner and outer loops of automatic flight control systems -
a. outer loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Inner loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
b. inner loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Outer loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
c. inner loops control the aircraft in pitch while outer loops control the aircraft in roll and yaw
d. inner loops control the aircraft based on air data such as airspeed and barometric altitude
and rate gyro error sensing with feedback to maintain attitude. Outer loop control inputs are pilot inputs from the autopilot panel

Answer 16

B

Question 17

The means by which 115V AC is converted to 28V DC in a large aircraft electrical system is a:
a. CSD.
b. CDU.
c. TRU.

Answer 17

C

Question 18

Regarding the influence of RAM effect on gas turbine engine thrust output:
a. RAM results in a partial recovery as A/C forward speed increases.
b. RAM results in a full recovery of thrust as forward speed increases.
c. RAM does not influence thrust because of temperature in cruise at the inlet.

Answer 18

A

Question 19

On the MAP mode of the B767-300ER EHSI display the track trend vector shows -
a. the angle of bank required for a rate one turn based on current airspeed
b. the recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern (direct, offset, parallel) based on track crossing the holding fix
c. the predicted path of the aircraft over the ground based on current bank angle and groundspeed using segments representing 30, 60 and 90 second time intervals.
d. the recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern (direct, offset, parallel) based on heading crossing the holding fix

Answer 19

C

Question 20

The Flight Management Computer of a large transport category jet aircraft does not provide -
a. fuel monitoring
b. navigational information
c. aircraft systems warnings and cautions.
d. descent planning

Answer 20

C

Question 21

The angle of attack of compressor blades in a gas turbine engine depends primarily on -
a. compressor outlet pressure, air temperature and density
b. true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure
c. compressor inlet pressure, indicated airspeed and RPM
d. compressor inlet temperature, indicated airspeed and RPM

Answer 21

B

Question 22

Gas turbine engine mass air flow is governed primarily by -
a. the number of combustion chambers, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature
b. the RPM, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature
c. the turbine inlet temperature, the RPM and the number of combustion chambers
d. the RPM, the airspeed and the air density

Answer 22

D

Question 23

The CSD of a large jet aircraft electrical system is required to control -
a. DC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity
b. AC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity
c. AC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency
d. DC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency

Answer 23

C

Question 24

In an aircraft equipped with an autoland system incorporating three autopilots, the maximum number of autopilot failures which may be sustained without losing autoland capability is -
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. None

Answer 24

A

Question 25

The item of information not displayed on the Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI) of a B767 300 ER is
a. groundspeed
b. Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
c. heading
d. AFDS pitch mode annunciation

Answer 25

C

Question 26

In an axial flow compressor, the blades experiencing the greatest air loads are -
a. the stators
b. the large front rotors
c. the small rear rotors
d. the inlet guide vanes

Answer 26

C

Question 27

In the turbine of an air cycle machine, bleed air supplied from engines undergoes -
a. an increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
b. an increase in pressure and an increase in temperature
c. a decrease in pressure and a decrease in temperature
d. a decrease in pressure and an increase in temperature
e. a decrease in pressure and no change in temperature

Answer 27

C

Question 28

In a supersonic air stream, the static pressure behind the expansion wave -
a. decreases
b. increases
c. experiences no change
d. increases then decreases
e. increases to ambient static pressure

Answer 28

A

Question 29

If an aircraft is flown with the centre of gravity ahead of the forward limit, it would display
a. enhanced elevator authority
b. degraded elevator authority
c. improved lateral stability
d. decreased lateral stability

Answer 29

B

Question 30

If the Angle of Attack is increased on a swept wing compared with an unswept wing of similar area and aspect ratio, the swept wing will produce -
a. less lift and more drag
b. less lift and less drag
c. more lift and more drag
d. more lift and less drag

Answer 30

A

Question 31

In high speed flight, aileron effectiveness may be reduced because of shock wave formation near the ailerons or wing twisting.
To overcome these problems, most jet airliners incorporate -
a. powered flight controls
b. spoilers to assist roll control
c. automatic coupling of rudder with aileron input
d. a moderate degree of sweepback

Answer 31

B

Question 32

In an aircraft flying beyond MCRIT, turbulence felt through the elevator controls is likely to be due to -
a. high speed stall
b. high speed buffet
c. symptoms of MMO
d. Mach tuck

Answer 32

B

Question 33

On a large jet transport aircraft, the Leading Edge Devices cannot be deployed. The aircraft should approach at –
a. higher than normal speed and lower angle of attack
b. lower than normal speed and angle of attack
c. higher than normal speed and angle of attack
d. lower than normal speed and higher angle of attack

Answer 33

A

Question 34

The system used in large aircraft to prevent over stressing of the trailing edge flaps is the
a. flap load relief system
b. flap lockout system
c. flap synch system
d. flap asymmetry system
e. flap brake

Answer 34

A

Question 35

If wing sweepback is increased for the same wing area, wing section and aspect ratio, for a given angle of attack -
a. lift coefficient will decrease, drag will increase
b. lift coefficient will increase, drag will decrease
c. lift coefficient and drag will both increase
d. lift coefficient and drag will both decrease

Answer 35

D

Question 36

On the CDU of an FMC some pages contain lines for data entry by the crew to programme the FMC for the flight under the prevailing conditions of weather and gross weight
Concerning the entry of data into the CDU
a. data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by boxes on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by dashed lines
b. data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by dashed lines on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by boxes
c. all crew data inputs to the FMC are mandatory for the computation of flight plan performance
d. the FMC is able to perform all functions without any crew data inputs, however data input by crew members will enhance FMC flight performance efficiency

Answer 36

A

Question 37

In a turbo jet, the right engine fails after takeoff in IMC. The pilot maintains balance control of the aircraft with rudder input and 5 degrees bank towards the live engine. The bank minimises the -
a. weight side force
b. asymmetric thrust
c. side slip force
d. torque effect

Answer 37

C

Question 38

A B767 aircraft is in cruise with the L autopilot engaged and the FMC is commanding the autopilot with LNAV and VNAV engaged. The auto-throttle is engaged in SPEED mode.
If the pilot wished to fly the aircraft manually and deselected the auto-throttle, FMC, and autopilot, the correct statement concerning the IAS/MACH speed selector and display window is -
a. the window would be blanked
b. the window would show the FMC flight plan speed and could not be changed unless VNAV was again selected
c. the window would show the current speed and could only be changed by entering the new speed on the CDU
d. the window would show the speed at the time VNAV was deselected and could be used to control the command airspeed bug on the ASI

Answer 38

D

Question 39

A control surface activated by a main control linkage with a hinge moment causing deflection of the primary control surface is called a -
a. trim tab
b. spring loaded tab
c. servo tab
d. lagging tab

Answer 39

C

Question 40

You are descending at 3000 ft/min in V/S with the autopilot and auto-throttle engaged to the pre-selected altitude of 9000 ft.
As you approach this altitude -
a. the VS light will come on and the alt hold light will extinguish
b. the VS digital display will change to zero
c. the GPWS will advise you aurally that the desired altitude is approaching
d. the VS enunciator will go out and the ALT CAP then ALT HOLD enunciator will come on

Answer 40

D

Question 41

In a turboprop powered aircraft, the pilot controls the engine power output in flight -
a. by direct CSU control
b. by varying the fuel flow via the fuel control unit
c. by increasing prop RPM
d. by varying the prop blade angle directly

Answer 41

B

Question 42

The incorrect statement regarding the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is -
a. to act as a pressure reservoir
b. to reduce peak pump demand
c. to smooth out system pressure variation
d. to act as a fluid reservoir

Answer 42

D

Question 43

Reverse thrust is not used at low forward aircraft speed because -
a. of excessive vibration
b. it is too effective at low speeds
c. hot or turbulent air can lead to engine damage through the ingestion of foreign objects
d. it is a waste of fuel

Answer 43

C

Question 44

Comparing a swept wing aircraft and a straight wing aircraft both with an increasing angle of attack -
a. the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase
b. the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a greater lift increase
c. the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a greater lift increase
d. the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a lesser lift increase

Answer 44

A

Question 45

The function of the follow up linkage in the nose wheel landing gear system of a jet transport category aircraft is -
a. to prevent nose wheel shimmy
b. to hold the nose wheel steering at the correct angle
c. to stop tyre scuffing
d. to permit the tiller to turn the nose wheel

Answer 45

B

Question 46

Conditional waypoints are shown on the Legs Page of the CDU
a. in italics
b. within parentheses
c. in bold type
d. in reverse video (highlighted)

Answer 46

B

Question 47

The input not used by the auto-throttle system of a large jet transport category aircraft is -
a. N1
b. EGT
c. INS
d. AIR/GROUND LOGIC

Answer 47

C

Question 48

The function of a pressure relief valve in an aircraft pneumatic system is to -
a. prevent pump cavitation
b. prevent seals from blowing
c. preserve accumulator pressure
d. ensure pump supply at all times

Answer 48

B

Question 49

In an aircraft equipped with a Flight Management Computer (FMC), a holding pattern programmed into the FMC LNAV active route will command the holding pattern track taking account of -
a. the wind in the CASA wind model
b. the forecast wind
c. the actual wind
d. nil wind

Answer 49

C

Question 50

The thrust output of a turbojet powered aircraft be greatest -
a. on the brakes on the runway at full thrust
b. between V1 and VR on the runway during the takeoff roll
c. on climb at maximum thrust
d. at VMO/MMO

Answer 50

A

Question 51

x is the speed for max L/D. What speed would you fly at for best angle of climb in an aircraft with a pure turbo jet?
a. x.
b. Greater than x.
c. Less than x.

Answer 51

A

Question 52

A jet flying at the appropriate speed for max L/D will achieve best performance for:
a. Angle of climb and endurance.
b. Angle of climb and range.
c. Rate of climb and range.

Answer 52

A

Question 53

In a turbo jet, the right engine fails after takeoff in IMC. The pilot maintains balance control of aircraft with rudder input and 5 degrees bank towards live engine. The bank minimises:
a. Weight side force.
b. Asymmetric thrust.
c. Side slip force.
d. Torque effect.

Answer 53

C

Question 54

VMCA of a twin-engine turbo prop aircraft is determined on control after engine failure under a number of conditions, one of which is CG position which shall be:
a. Most forward.
b. Mid range.
c. CP position.
d. Most rearward.

Answer 54

D

Question 55

A swept wing stalls at a higher speed than an equivalent un-swept wing due to -
a. decreased spanwise flow
b. increased chordwise flow
c. increased spanwise flow
d. increased CL Max

Answer 55

C

Question 56

Why is stalling speed relatively higher for an aircraft with wing sweep? Because of the effective:
a. Increase in chord-wise airflow.
b. Decrease in chord-wise airflow.
c. Decrease in span-wise airflow.
d. Increase in span-wise airflow.

Answer 56

B

Question 57

A problem associated with NICAD aircraft batteries is
a. thermal runaway
b. low current at the end of the charge cycle
c. acid spillage.
d. low storage capacity

Answer 57

A

Question 58

The purpose for a large commercial turbo jet aeroplane extending leading edge slats during approach is to increase:
a. CD by controlling chord-wise airflow over the wings.
b. CL by controlling chord-wise airflow over the wings.
c. CD by controlling span-wise airflow over the wings.
d. CL controlling span-wise airflow over the wings.

Answer 58

B

Question 59

A typical flight control system as in the B767-300ER uses 3 separate and independent hydraulic systems to power flight controls, all functions are normal, which systems are pilot controls powered from?
a. All systems at all times.
b. One system at a time.
c. Two systems at all times.
d. The system with highest pressure.

Answer 59

A

Question 60

The unsafe takeoff configuration warning system on a large jet transport will activate when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff and an incorrect selection is made on the -
a. flaps and spoilers, stabiliser trim or brakes
b. flaps, elevator trim, brakes or flight director
c. spoilers, stabiliser trim or GPWS
d. EADI, EHSI, auto throttle or stabiliser trim

Answer 60

A

Question 61

A ground proximity warning system (GPWS) has different modes of operation to protect an aircraft from premature or unintentional ground contact. The aural messages provided under various circumstances could often be either a soft warning or a hard warning, depending on the seriousness of the situation and the speed of response required for corrective action.
An example of a soft warning and a hard warning respectively are -
a. ‘whoop whoop, pull up’, and ‘don’t sink’
b. ‘too low flap’ and ‘too low gear’
c. ‘terrain’, and ‘whoop whoop, pull up’
d. ‘whoop whoop, pull up’, and ‘too low flap’.

Answer 61

C

Question 62

A central air data computer (CADC) fitted to an aircraft receives -
a. static and pitot pressure from the pitot head and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
b. electrical signals from the pitot head and converts this data into static and pitot pressure for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
c. static and pitot pressure from the instrument display and converts this data into electrical signals for the pitot head and use by the flight management system
d. static and pitot pressure from the flight management system and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the pitot head

Answer 62

A

Question 63

Modern airline aircraft have tubeless tyres fitted with fusible alloy plugs. What is the function of the plug?
a. Emergency plug for puncture inflicted on landing.
b. Pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat.
c. Temperature cooling valves during conditions of excessive tyre heat.
d. Indicators of excessive hard braking during landing.

Answer 63

B

Question 64

Which component in the hydraulic system can prevent excessive hydraulic fluid loss?
a. Shuttle valve.
b. In line check valve.
c. No such device.
d. Hydraulic fuse.

Answer 64

D

Question 65

Stator vanes in an axial flow compressor convert airstream velocity into pressure by use of:
a. Divergent passages.
b. Axial force.
c. Air foil sections.
d. Convergent passages.

Answer 65

A

Question 66

Why is it necessary to use cross over tubes (inter-connectors) in can and can-annular combustion chamber systems?
a. Pressure to equalise and fuel to propagate through all flame tubes.
b. Temperature to equalise and combustion to propagate through all flame tubes.
c. Pressure to equalise and combustion to propagate through all flame tubes.
d. Temperature to equalise and flame to propagate through all flame tubes.

Answer 66

C

Question 67

In gas turbine engines, effective power in reverse thrust is less than forward thrust for the same throttle angle because during reverse:
a. Exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited.
b. Engine is rpm limited.
c. Turbine is not as effective due to build up of back-pressure.
d. Ingestion of exhaust gas causes loss of engine efficiency.

Answer 67

A

Question 68

What are some warning flags that appear on a conventional ADI?
a. GS, gyro and computer.
b. GS, VOR/LOC and computer.
c. VOR/LOC, compass and computer.
d. Gyro, compass and computer

Answer 68

A

Question 69

Which performance speed in a jet aircraft is not controlled by the auto throttle?
a. Vertical speed.
b. Approach speed.
c. Descent speed.
d. Engine rotation speed.

Answer 69

A

Question 70

In a free power turbine engine, the free power turbine is :
a. Connected to the high-pressure compressor.
b. Connected to the low-pressure compressor.
c. Not connected to any compressor.

Answer 70

C

Question 71

In a steady climb, an increase in headwind component will:
a. Increase rate and angle of climb.
b. Increase angle of climb.
c. Decrease rate of climb.
d. Not change angle or rate of climb.

Answer 71

B

Question 72

In an aircraft without a digital data bus, the autopilot altitude information for altitude hold mode taken from:
a. The captain’s altimeter.
b. Co pilot’s altimeter/
c. The Air Data Computer (ADC)
d. The autopilot aneroid.

Answer 72

D

Question 73

In a B767-300ER with 3 autopilots, for a fail operational auto-land approach, the number of separate electrical systems required to power the autopilots is:
a. 1 AC/DC system.
b. 2 AC/DC systems.
c. 3 AC/DC systems.
d. 4 AC/DC systems.

Answer 73

C

Question 74

A digital flight data recorder provides a record of -
a. airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude information and ADC data
b. airspeed, altitude, heading, and cockpit voices
c. airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude, ADC data, and cockpit voices
d. control positions, airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude and ADC data

Answer 74

D

Question 75

A typical EHSI displays heading and track information. If the Heading reference switch is selected on NORMAL, and the aeroplane is flying from Melbourne to Darwin, which of the following EHSI modes will NOT display magnetic track UP?

a. PLAN
b. VOR
c. MAP

Answer 75

B

Question 76

A typical FMS incorporates two FMCs and two EHSIs. The pilot both have the MAP mode displayed on their respective EHSIs but have different range scales selected. The left FMC suddenly fails but the crew does NOT intervene with any manual corrective action. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the display on the left EHSI after the failure?
a. It will be totally blank.
b. It will switch to the display currently existing on the right EHSI.
c. It will be unaffected.
d. It will display MAP failure flag.

Answer 76

D

Question 77

Hot air for engine and nacelle anti-icing is normally obtained from the:
a. High pressure compressor stages.
b. Low pressure compressor stages.
c. Turbine outlet.
d. Compressor outlet

Answer 77

A

Question 78

One advantage of Ni-Cad batteries compared to lead acid batteries is:
a. Shorter charge time.
b. Less corrosive
c. Does not required venting
d. Higher load carrying capacity

Answer 78

A

Question 79

As altitude increases, the indicated minimum control speed airborne VMCA with the critical engine inoperative and the other engine(s) at maximum continuous thrust, will -
a. increase as directional stability decreases
b. remain constant
c. increase or decrease, depending on aircraft and engine type
d. decrease up to the altitude where the stall speed becomes the limiting factor

Answer 79

D

Question 80

What environmental effect will increase VMCA in a multi-engine aeroplane? An increase in:
a. Temperature.
b. Density.
c. Pressure altitude.
d. Aerodrome altitude.

Answer 80

B

Question 81

To achieve max angle of climb to achieve obstacle clearance after takeoff a jet aircraft must climb at:
a. Min drag speed with zero flap.
b. Min drag speed with takeoff flap.
c. Min safe speed with zero flap.
d. Min safe speed with takeoff flap.

Answer 81

A

Question 82

A large jet transport aircraft is in cruise at high altitude with stabiliser trim set correctly, the position of the elevator would be:
a. Up.
b. Down,
c. Faired.

Answer 82

C

Question 83

The Right engine fails after takeoff with IMC. With no corrective action the balance ball will:
a. Move left.
b. Move right.
c. Stay centred.

Answer 83

A

Question 84

On the EADI, brown and blue colours disappear because:
a. Overhead lights are too bright.
b. The screens are overheating.
c. The power source has failed.
d. The symbol generator has failed.

Answer 84

B

Question 85

To achieve maximum endurance when holding in an aircraft fitted with a pure turbo jet. The ideal altitude should be:
a. As high as possible.
b. As low as possible.
c. Lower rather than higher.
d. Higher rather than lower.

Answer 85

D

Question 86

An aircraft has 2 FMC’s which the pilots access through 2 control display units (CDU’s), the CDU’s will NOT allow the pilot’s to:
a. Simultaneously enter inputs to the FMC’s subsystems.
b. Enter the fuel on board and the required flight fuel reserves.
c. Input the AUW and CG position.
d. Change the original entered flight plan while in-flight.
e. Specify ETA’s for destination and en-route waypoints.

Answer 86

A

Question 87

In the auto mode of most pressurisation systems the required inputs from the pilot pre-flight are:
a. Landing airfield elevation and cabin rate of change.
b. Cabin altitude and cruise altitude.
c. Required differential pressure and landing altitude.
d. Cruise altitude and destination elevation

Answer 87

D

Question 88

An increase in gross weight will cause the position of the total drag curve to move:
a. Up and left.
b. Up and right.
c. Down and left.
d. Down and right.

Answer 88

B

Question 89

The deployment of spoilers will cause the position of the total drag curve to move:
a. Up and left.
b. Up and right.
c. Down and left.
d. Down and right.

Answer 89

A

Question 90

The extension of landing gear will cause the position of the total drag curve to move:
a. Up and left.
b. Up and right.
c. Down and left.
d. Down and right.

Answer 90

A

Question 91

The failure of the bleed valve to close in gas turbine engine after start will result in:
a. EGT rise.
b. Compressor surge.
c. Compressor stall.
d. Thrust increase.

Answer 91

A

Question 92

In a flight management system, conditional waypoints may be used when programming a flight.
The term conditional waypoint refers to -
a. a waypoint defined by an event or a condition which does not relate to a fixed geographical location
b. a manually entered waypoint without a name
c. a waypoint constructed by the crew which is not in the data base of the FMC
d. a waypoint which will only be overflown if certain in flight conditions are met

Answer 92

A

Question 93

Under normal pressurisation what will the position of the outflow valve be from takeoff to cruise?
a. Fully closed until the desired cruise altitude is reached.
b. Automatically controlled by the cabin pressure controller.
c. Fully closed until the desired cabin altitude is reached.
d. Pilot selects position with outflow valve knob.

Answer 93

B

Question 94

The high pressure turbine on a turbofan, compared to a turbojet of the same thrust output would be:
a. Larger because of the smaller mass air flow.
b. Larger because of the larger mass air flow.
c. Smaller because of the smaller mass air flow.
d. Smaller because of the large mass air flow.

Answer 94

C

Question 95

In large jet aircraft, aeration in the fuel lines is prevented by:
a. Engine driven pumps.
b. The hand pump.
c. Boost pumps.
d. The Accumulator.

Answer 95

C

Question 96

With regard to the operation of powered controls in an aircraft with 3 independent hydraulic systems such as a 767-300 ER
a. all three systems supply the flight controls at all times providing automatic backup
b. only one system supplies the flight controls at any one time with the other systems providing backup automatically
c. the third standby system only operates when selected to supply the flight controls in the event of a failure of one of the other systems
d. one system supplies the ailerons, one supplies the elevator and another supplies the rudder

Answer 96

A

Question 97

High energy capacitor discharge igniter plugs as used in the ignition system of a gas turbine engine are used to provide -
a. a hot (high value) spark at high voltage
b. a cool (low value) spark at low voltage
c. a hot (high value) spark at low voltage
d. a cool (low value) spark at high voltage

Answer 97

A

Question 98

The reason for the use of oil/fuel heat exchangers in the fuel system of a large turbine powered aircraft is -
a. to prevent fuel vaporisation
b. to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel lines
c. to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel filter
d. to heat the oil and prevent excessive viscosity

Answer 98

C

Question 99

The component of an aircraft electrical system providing the initial excitation field for a constant speed PMG type alternator is -
a. the permanent magnet generator or pilot exciter
b. the main exciter
c. the static inverter
d. there is no initial excitation required with an alternator

Answer 99

A

Question 100

In an aircraft with powered flight controls, the component which is always part of the system is -
a. manual reversion
b. hydraulics.
c. artificial feel
d. pneumatics

Answer 100

C

Question 101

Primary control rate of climb is achieved through variations in:
a. Angle of attack
b. Power or thrust
c. Forward speed
d. The wing camber
e. The wing area

Answer 101

B

Question 102

An aircraft has a tendency to stay in a spin. This shows:
a. A lack of directional stability
b. To much directional stability compared to lateral stability
c. That the tail fin is too small
d. That ventral strakes and/or a dorsal fin extension is required
e. That the aircraft needs anhedral or less dihedral

Answer 102

B

Question 103

The compressor primarily converts:
a. Kinetic energy to potential energy
b. Kinetic energy to pressure energy
c. Potential energy into kinetic energy
d. Pressure energy into kinetic energy

Answer 103

B

Question 104

In which of the situations would you expect the strength of wing tip vortices to be the greatest?
a. At high speed with leading and trailing edge high lift devices fully extended
b. At low speed, clean configuration, high gross weight
c. At low speed, landing flap selected, high gross weight
d. At low speed with leading and trailing edge high lift devices fully extended, low gross weight

Answer 104

B

Question 105

Turbulent wake in the form of wing tip trailing vortices behave in what manner?
a. Flow down at about 1000 fpm, leveling off about 500 ft below the aircraft
b. Flow up at about 300-500 fpm, leveling off about 500 ft above the aircraft
c. Flow down at about 300-500 fpm, leveling off about 1000 ft below the aircraft
d. Flow down at about 700-80 fpm, leveling off about 1000 ft below the aircraft

Answer 105

C

Question 106

Which of the following is NOT an input into a modern auto-throttle system?
a. N1
b. EGT
c. IRS
d. CADC
e. Airspeed Fast/Slow indicator

Answer 106

C

Question 107

On a large jet transport aircraft, extending the trailing edge flaps alone could cause:
a. No pitch changes
b. Pitch up
c. Pitch down

Answer 107

C

Question 108

The ‘ram ratio’ in a gas turbine engine is defined as the ratio of -
a. total pressure to static pressure at the air intake
b. total pressure to dynamic pressure at the air intake
c. total pressure to static pressure in the compressor
d. total pressure to dynamic pressure in the compressor

Answer 108

A

Question 109

On a large air transport jet aircraft, over pressure protection to pneumatic user systems is provided by:
a. An accumulator
b. Pump speed variation
c. A pressure reduction valve
d. Negative pressure relief valve

Answer 109

C

Question 110

Extension of trailing edge slotted fowler flaps could see the:
a. Centre of gravity move forwards
b. Aircraft pitch up
c. Centre of pressure move aft

Answer 110

C

Question 111

Out of the items listed below, which is NOT an input to a modern Auto-throttle system?
a. Flap position
b. ILS localiser
c. Airspeed/Mach AFDS selection
d. Angle of Attack (AoA) sensor
e. Air temperature

Answer 111

B

Question 112

During an auto-land 3 operation, an autopilot system failure occurs but leaves the overall system functioning without performance degradation. This initial auto-land status is referred to as?
a. Fail soft
b. Fail passive
c. Fail operational
d. Fail proof

Answer 112

C

Question 113

In which way do the “safety valves”, (also known as “Fluid Transfer Valves”) in the nose wheel steering system act in the event of total hydraulic failure?
a. Place the nose wheel into castor mode
b. Allow the nose wheel to be steered by differential braking
c. Lock the nose wheel straight ahead

Answer 113

A

Question 114

The auto-throttle and flight director are engaged and the autopilot is off during cruise. ALT HOLD is the pitch mode. SPD is the auto-throttle mode.
In this case -
a. the autothrottle will adjust thrust to hold a steady IAS while the flight director command bars command pitch to hold the reference altitude
b. the system is inoperable
c. the flight director will not engage in this situation
d. the flight director command bars will be hidden in this situation

Answer 114

A

Question 115

An affect of extending slats on approach is to:
a. Increase to co-efficient of drag and re-energise span-wise flow
b. Increase the co-efficient of drag and re-energise chord-wise flow
c. Increase the co-efficient of lift and re-energise chord-wise flow
d. Increase the co-efficient of drag and re-energise chord-wise flow

Answer 115

C

Question 116

In a gas turbine engine at engine design RPM -
a. an OAT decrease leads to thrust decrease
b. an OAT increase leads to thrust decrease
c. an OAT increase leads to thrust increase
d. humidity increase leads to thrust increase

Answer 116

B

Question 117

Thermal runaway of a nickel cadmium battery is caused by:
a. Overcharging
b. Insufficient cooling
c. Under-charging

Answer 117

A

Question 118

The purpose of the water separator in an ACM air-conditioning unit is to:
a. Prevent ice build-up in the expansion turbine
b. Prevent ice blockage of the condenser
c. Stop mist coming into cabin

Answer 118

C

Question 119

With regard to the cancellation of warnings and cautions in the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) of a jet transport aircraft -
a. warnings and cautions can both be cancelled regardless of system status by using the cancel button
b. warnings are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but cautions may be cancelled using the cancel button
c. warnings and cautions may only be cancelled if the associated fault no longer exists
d. cautions are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but warnings may be cancelled using the cancel button

Answer 119

B

Question 120

In a typical aircraft pressurisation/air cycle machine system, how many water separators are provided per pack?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Answer 120

A

Question 121

In the B767 FMS, the pitch mode in the FMA that is displayed when in a steady descent with auto-throttle engaged and conforming to a FMS planned descent path is:
a. VNAV PATH
b. VNAV SPD
c. FLCH
d. IDLE
e. THR HOLD

Answer 121

A

Question 122

The component of the autopilot system which monitors the gyro sensing signal and ensures that the correct attitude reference is being maintained is -
a. the feedback comparator
b. the servomotor
c. the control surface
d. the artificial feel

Answer 122

A

Question 123

In a air conditioning system featuring an “air cycle machine” (ACM), how does the turbine affect
the temperature and pressure of air arriving from the engine bleed ducts?
a. Temperature is reduced/Pressure is reduced
b. Temperature is reduced/Pressure is increased
c. Temperature is increased/Pressure is reduced
d. Temperature is increased/Pressure is increased

Answer 123

A

Question 124

Regarding aileron reversal -
a. aileron reversal can be reduced by increasing airspeed
b. aileron reversal can be reduced by the use of inboard ailerons
c. aileron reversal can be aggravated by increasing wing stiffness
d. aileron reversal can be aggravated by the use of spoilers

Answer 124

B

Question 125

A typical FMS incorporates 2 FMC’s and 2 EHSI’s. If both pilots have MAP mode selected on the EHSI screens and the left FMC suddenly fails, without any corrective action the left EHSI will:
a. Be unaffected
b. Be totally blank
c. Display a MAP failure flag
d. Switch automatically to the display mode showing on the right EHSI

Answer 125

C

Question 126

On an EHSI if the heading reference switch is set to ‘NORMAL’, and the aircraft is flying between Adelaide and Brisbane, then which of the modes listed would NOT display magnetic track UP digital numerical value?
a. Plan mode
b. VOR mode
c. Map mode

Answer 126

B

Question 127

For the B767 featuring 3 autopilot’s conducting a ‘FAIL OPERATIONAL’ auto-land ILS approach, after ‘bus isolation occurs’ the minimum number of separate electrical supply systems required is:
a. 1AC/1DC supply
b. 2AC/2DC supply
c. 2AC/1DC supply
d. 4AC/2DC supply

Answer 127

C

Question 128

The hydraulic reservoir in a jet aircraft hydraulic system is pressurised by bleed air to -
a. ensure a positive fluid supply to the pumps at all times
b. reduce foaming as altitude increases
c. maintain hydraulic fluid temperature at the required level
d. pressurise the supply lines to the using systems

Answer 128

A

Question 129

The correct procedure to follow in the event of a hot start to prevent torching in a gas turbine engine is to -
a. motor the engine with the fuel supply cut off
b. gradually open the throttle to richen the mixture and cool the combustion temperatures
c. open the bleed valves to increase the mass air flow through the compressor
d. close the bleed valves to decrease mass flow through the compressor

Answer 129

A

Question 130

If the drag spoilers are deflected up in flight, the position of the total drag curve moves:
a. Right and downwards
b. Right and upwards
c. Left and downwards
d. Left and upward

Answer 130

D

Question 131

A swept wing jet flying at L/D max would achieve best performance for:
a. Rate of climb and best range
b. Angle of climb and best range
c. Angle of climb and best endurance

Answer 131

C

Question 132

The stall speed of an aircraft at a particular gross weight will be highest with -
a. a forward centre of gravity
b. a rearward centre of gravity
c. low altitude
d. power on

Answer 132

A

Question 133

In a jet transport aircraft, which items is NOT controlled by the auto-throttle?
a. Engine RPM
b. Vertical speed
c. Approach speed

Answer 133

B

Question 134

A twin jet aircraft suffers a complete and sudden failure of the right engine shortly after lift-off.
The pilot maintains balance with rudder, and a 5o bank toward the live engine is adopted. The bank angle reduces:
a. Torque effect
b. Asymmetric thrust
c. Weight side force
d. Slide-slip force

Answer 134

D

Question 135

In the event of the nose-wheel steering failure, the safety valves will:
a. Centre the nose-wheel
b. Restrict the degree of nose-wheel deflection possible
c. Prevent extreme nose-wheel shimmy
d. Allow the nose-wheel to swivel

Answer 135

D

Question 136

The power response of a turbojet engine compared to a turboprop at various RPM settings is -
a. faster at high RPM
b. faster at both high and low RPM
c. slower at low RPM
d. slower at high RPM

Answer 136

C

Question 137

Various chemical methods are used in large jet aircraft to improve forward visibility in rain.
a. only in conjunction with windshield wipers
b. only in light rain
c. prior to entering rain
d. periodically in heavy rain

Answer 137

D

Question 138

An increase in which environment factor will increase VMCA in an aircraft featuring wing mounted pod engines?
a. Aerodrome altitude
b. Pressure altitude
c. Density
d. Temperature
e. Density altitude

Answer 138

C

Question 139

In order to delay flow separation on an aerofoil at the stall, the characteristics of the boundary layer should ideally be -
a. laminar due to the reduced surface friction
b. turbulent due to the increased surface friction
c. laminar due to the minimum boundary layer depth
d. turbulent due to the higher velocities at the wing surface

Answer 139

D

Question 140

Large transport category aircraft are often fitted with several artificial devices to provide protection against various undesirable flight characteristics. The yaw damper is one such device designed to prevent the development of uncommanded yaw at high altitude and speed by automatic rudder input controlled by a gyro stabilised feedback system. There are two main types of yaw dampers in common use today, the parallel type and the series type.
The statement which correctly describes the difference between these two types of yaw damper is –
a. the parallel type yaw damper operates in parallel with the autopilot’s or pilot’s rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The series type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight
b. the parallel type yaw damper uses two independent circuits to provide redundancy and both circuits operate simultaneously in normal operation. The series type yaw damper uses one circuit at a time with manual switching required to activate the backup in the event of a failure
c. the series type yaw damper uses two independent circuits to provide redundancy and both circuits operate simultaneously in normal operation. The parallel type yaw damper uses one circuit at a time with manual switching required to activate the backup in the event of a failure
d. the series type yaw damper operates in series with the autopilot’s or pilot’s rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The parallel type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight

Answer 140

A

Question 141

With regard to jet transport electrical systems -
a. with a split bus system the generators are always paralleled
b. with a parallel bus system the generators are paralleled
c. with a split bus system the generators are connected in series
d. with a parallel bus system the generators are connected in series

Answer 141

B

Question 142

With regard to the thrust output of a jet engine, the highest 30% of thrust is produced?
a. It is linear throughout all RPM ranges
b. Above 75% RPM
c. Below 75% RPM
d. Above 90% RPM

Answer 142

D

Question 143

Increased range of a turbine-powered aircraft would result with which of the following:
a. 1 litre of Avtur
b. 1 kilogram of Avtur
c. Use of Avgas
d. The same unit of volume or weight equally

Answer 143

B

Question 144

Which item is a performance and loading factor in a flying tail?
a. Trim
b. C of G position
c. Weight
d. Speed

Answer 144

B

Question 145

When should rain repellent be used?
a. Any time the wipers are working
b. To clear a dirty windscreen
c. Periodically in heavy rain when wipers are working

Answer 145

C

Question 146

Which position is used to determine VMCA of a twin turbo-prop aircraft?
a. The most forward of the C of G range
b. The most rearward of the C of G range
c. The middle of the C of G range
d. The position of the centre of pressure at the minimum steady flight speed

Answer 146

B

Question 147

The TCAS system fitted to the modern jet transport category of aircraft is able to provide two main types of messages to alert crew to the presence of traffic in the area. These messages are traffic advisories (TA’s) and resolution advisories (RA’s).
The statement correctly listing the differences between TA’s and RA’s is -
a. traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
b. resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
c. resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
d. traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced

Answer 147

D

Question 148

In a steady climb and increase in headwind component will:
a. Not change angle or rate of climb
b. Increase climb rate but not climb angle
c. Increase climb rate and climb angle
d. Increase climb angle but not climb rate

Answer 148

D

Question 149

On a conventional Machmeter/ASI (MASI), a masked Mach speed display indicates that
a. the instrument has failed
b. the Mach number is below M 0.6
c. the power supply to the instrument has been interrupted
d. the data from the CADC is unreliable

Answer 149

D

Question 150

The factor most significantly affecting the cockpit cut off angle is -
a. the instrumentation placement
b. the pilot’s posture
c. VREF
d. the pilot’s eye position and seat height

Answer 150

D

Question 151

High energy capacitor igniter plugs are used in the ignition system of a turbine engine, provided:
a. A high value spark at high voltage.
b. A high value spark at low voltage.
c. A low value spark at high voltage.

Answer 151

A

Question 152

The most critical factors in determining the relight capability of a turbine engine are:
a. Fuel pressure and altitude.
b. Altitude and airspeed.
c. Igniter energy and fuel pressure.

Answer 152

B

Question 153

Dynamic hydroplaning may occur at:
a. A maximum speed of 9 √ tyre pressure.
b. A minimum speed of 7.7 √ tyre pressure.
c. A minimum speed of 9 √ tyre pressure.

Answer 153

C

Question 154

In a TCAS 11 equipped aircraft with TA only mode selected, RA’s will appear as:
a. Be displayed as in RA mode.
b. Be inhibited and appears as TA’s.
c. Will not display RA’s.

Answer 154

B

Question 155

In steady asymmetric flight in a twin piston engine aircraft:
a. Zero bank at zero sideslip is possible.
b. Bank is used to balance the drag of the failed engine.
c. Bank and rudder are normally used to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine.

Answer 155

C

Question 156

The effect of a VR overspeed on lift off speed and distance and second segment climb gradient is:
a. Increase increase increase.
b. Decrease increase decrease.
c. Decrease increase decrease.

Answer 156

A

Question 157

The C of G is near its forward envelope limit. Which statement is most correct?
a. Less elevator force is required to change the pitch attitude than with an aft C of G position.
b. Greater elevator force is required to change the pitch attitude than with an aft C of G
position.
c. The same force is required to change the pitch attitude as with an aft C of G position.

Answer 157

B

Question 158

An excessively aft C of G when on approach to land will cause?
a. Heavy elevator control forces, and decreased pitch stability.
b. No difference in elevator forces, and no change in pitch stability.
c. Light elevator control forces, and decreased pitch stability

Answer 158

C

Question 159

A number of swept wing jet transport aircraft have a limitation such that flap extension at high altitudes (typically above FL200) is prohibited. This is because?
a. The aircraft may under certain conditions become unstable in yaw whilst banking.
b. The high IAS at such altitude can exceed that of the flap restricting Mach number.
c. Stall warning and flap fatigue life may be compromised.

Answer 159

B

Question 160

As the speed of a large jet aircraft increases from a stall speed up to cruise speed, the power required to fly straight and level will:
a. Increases.
b. Increase and then decrease.
c. Decrease and then increase.

Answer 160

C

Question 161

If the angle of attack is increased on a swept wing compared to a straight wing of similar aspect ratio and area, the swept wing will produce:
a. Less lift more drag.
b. More lift less drag.
c. Less lift less drag.

Answer 161

A

Question 162

Powered controls uses ‘Q’ feel to provide artificial feel which is a function of:
a. Control input force.
b. Airspeed.
c. Centre of pressure movement

Answer 162

B

Question 163

The highest gas pressure in a gas turbine engine is found:
a. At the nozzle guide vanes.
b. In the exhaust duct.
c. At the combustion chamber entry

Answer 163

C

Question 164

As the speed of a large transport aircraft increases from low speed stall to MMO, the power requirements during this phase can best be described as?
a. An increase then a decrease.
b. Decrease then increase.
c. Non-linear increase.

Answer 164

B

Question 165

The main advantage of kerosene to wide cut fuel used in a gas turbine engine is:
a. Lower volatility and higher flash point.
b. Lower volatility and lower flash point.
c. Higher volatility and lower flash point.

Answer 165

A

Question 166

An aircraft accelerates beyond Mcrit. If NOT corrected by the Mach Trimmer, it can display a nose-down tendency. This is due to?
a. The wingtips stalling first, as tends to happen on rearward swept wings at high speed.
b. The forward movement of the C of P due to the shockwave attaching to the leading edge.
c. The rearward movement of the Centre of Pressure, and reduced tailplane down-load.

Answer 166

C

Question 167

In an aircraft equipped with an FMC, a holding pattern programmed into the active route will command the holding track using the:
a. The forecast wind.
b. The actual wind.
c. The wind in the computer program.

Answer 167

B

Question 168

Gas turbine mass air flow is governed primarily by:
a. The RPM, the number of compressor stages and turbine inlet temperature.
b. The RPM, airspeed and the air density.
c. Turbine inlet temperature, and RPM.

Answer 168

B

Question 169

Capacitor type fuel quantity gauges on transport type aircraft may use compensators. The compensators are designed to correct for variations on fuel:
a. Temperature.
b. Density.
c. Volatility.

Answer 169

A

Question 170

An aircraft landing gear tyre replacement is essential with:
a. A worn tread.
b. A deep cut in the tyre.
c. A bulge in the side wall.

Answer 170

C

Question 171

Which item of jet engine performance remains constant in a climb, if the thrust lever remains unchanged:
a. EGT
b. EPR
c. N1 RPM

Answer 171

C

Question 172

The manoeuvre envelope defines?
a. The gust responses by the particular aircraft when in turbulent conditions.
b. The speed/load factor limits within which the aircraft is to be operated.
c. Airline policy for bank angle maximums to be used when carrying Pax or Freight, and must by law be incorporated in the Aircraft Operating Manual (AOM)?

Answer 172

B

Question 173

Conditional waypoints are entered into the FMC via the:
a. Route legs page.
b. Departures or arrivals page.
c. Init/Ref page.

Answer 173

B

Question 174

In a full power turbo prop aircraft, the free power turbine is:
a. Connected to the HP compressor.
b. Connected to the LP compressor.
c. Not connected to any other turbine shaft

Answer 174

C

Question 175

During the “rollout” sub mode of an auto land, the idle mode of the auto throttle will be:
a. Engaged until 5 feet radio altitude.
b. Disengaged 5 seconds after touch down.
c. Disconnected when selecting reverse.

Answer 175

C

Question 176

The B767–300ER incorporates a typical Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS).When an ILS is being flown, with the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’, and ‘APPROACH’ modes selected, which statement best represents the actions that follow ?
a. The system is armed to capture the glide-slope, and ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ will automatically cancel when this occurs.
b. The AFDS will maintain the selected altitude, and fly a Localiser only approach until the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ function is manually de-selected, then it will fly the glide-slope also.
c. The system can NOT be armed for the approach until the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ function is manually selected off at or before glide-slope capture.

Answer 176

A

Question 177

Shock waves can form at a true Mach number below Mach 1.0. This is because?
a. The airflow around the wing tips is accelerated to greater than free stream Mach number when the aircraft is in a turn.
b. Because curved surfaces in various parts of the aircraft accelerate the air to greater than free stream Mach number.
c. The speed of sound is lower at high altitude.

Answer 177

B

Question 178

The use of sweepback on a transport aircraft wing will result in:
a. A decrease in MCDR.
b. An increase in MCDR.
c. An increase in lift.

Answer 178

B

Question 179

Which answer best describes the disadvantage of a turboprop engine, compared to a turbojet engine ?
a. Turboprops have higher SFC at low altitudes than do turbojets.
b. Less effective reverse thrust capability during landing operations.
c. Lower propulsive efficiencies at high subsonic Mach numbers.
d. Turboprop less capable of lifting heavy loads off short runways.

Answer 179

C

Question 180

Which of the following switches must be closed before a generator can be connected to the synchronising bus?
a. The generator circuit breaker switch.
b. The bus tie-breaker switch
c. The generator control relay switch.
d. The generator field switch.

Answer 180

B

Question 181

An aircraft is flying with its CG at the forward limit. How would the fuel burn be affected?
a. It would be less
b. It would be greater
c. It wouldn’t change

Answer 181

B

Question 182

Flap should not be lowered at high flight levels. One reason for this is -
a. the possibility of CAT
b. flap extension speed may be below the aircraft stall speed at high altitude
c. the increased effective wing camber would lead to early shockwave formation
d. the flap mechanism is disabled above FL150

Answer 182

B

Question 183

You are about to descend through cloud containing heavy freezing rain.
The best descent configuration to minimise the risk of airframe ice in these conditions is -
a. engine RPM at idle and speedbrakes out
b. engine RPM at idle and speedbrakes in
c. engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes in
d. engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes out

Answer 183

D

Question 184

In an aircraft equipped with three autopilots, the C autopilot fails.
Assuming all autopilots were engaged on a coupled approach, the failure would be indicated by -
a. all control panel lights extinguishing
b. both autopilots disconnecting completely
c. a synthetic voice warning
d. a change in the auto-land status enunciator (ASA) from LAND 3 to LAND 2

Answer 184

D

Question 185

Most large jet transport category aircraft have electrical windshield heating as an anti-ice and anti-fog system, and to increase resistance to bird-strike impact.
Concerning electrical windshield heating -
a. some arcing is normal
b. the system may not be operated on the ground
c. the window may appear tinted when viewed with reflected light
d. the system is only installed on the captains front windshield and side windows

Answer 185

C

Question 186

In comparison to an unswept wing, a swept wing will have a -
a. lower MAX CL only at subsonic speeds
b. lower MAX CL at subsonic and supersonic speeds
c. higher MAX CL only at subsonic speeds
d. higher MAX CL only at supersonic speeds

Answer 186

B

Question 187

The purpose of a restrictor valve in the undercarriage hydraulic system of a large aircraft is -
a. to prevent the undercarriage from extending past the stop position and to hold the undercarriage in the up position when pressure is removed from the system
b. to limit the maximum PSI in the system
c. to prevent hammering in the lines
d. limit the speed of operation of the system and prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension

Answer 187

D

Question 188

The component used for converting 28 volts DC to 115 VAC at 400 Hz in large modern jet transport category aircraft is -
a. the static rectifier
b. the static (fullwave) inverter
c. the rotary inverter
d. the transformer-rectifier (TR)

Answer 188

B

Question 189

A flap load relief system (flap limiter) on a large jet aircraft operates whenever
a. the flap load limit is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever moving automatically and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded
b. the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever moving automatically and staying at the new setting
c. the flap load limit is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps staying at the new setting
d. the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded

Answer 189

D

Question 190

Concerning a jet transport aircraft flying below the speed of sound
a. there is no possibility of shockwave formation on the wings or fuselage of an aircraft in subsonic cruise
b. shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air
c. shockwaves are present at all times on an aircraft in subsonic cruise
d. shockwaves maybe present on the wings at any speed below MCRIT

Answer 190

B

Question 191

In an aircraft equipped with two flight management computers and the EHSI’s selected to map mode, a failure of the Captain’s (L) FMC will cause -
a. the Captain’s Map display on the EHSI to be supplied automatically from the opposite side FMC, with an FMC FAIL message on the EHSI
b. the Captain’s Map display to show a map flag, with an FMC FAIL message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) FMC switch, which feeds the Captain’s map display from the opposite side FMC
c. the Captain’s Map display to show an FMC FAIL flag, with an FMC fail message on the CDU. The map display is automatically restored by data from the opposite side FMC
d. the Captain’s Map display to go blank, with a map fail message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) map switch, which feeds the Captain’s map display from the opposite side EHSI

Answer 191

B

Question 192

A variable incidence tail-plane with stabiliser trim, as an alternative to a conventional elevator with trim -
a. is required to cope with high altitude and high gross weights
b. can produce excessively high control forces if out of trim
c. has very limited control authority
d. reduces residual control forces

Answer 192

B

Question 193

As an aircraft Mach Number increases from subsonic, through M 1.0 to low supersonic speeds,
the drag coefficient of the aircraft -
a. increases steadily
b. decreases steadily
c. remains approximately constant
d. increases, then decreases

Answer 193

D

Question 194

As the speed of a large jet transport aircraft increases from the stall speed flaps up to the maximum allowable cruise speed, the power required to fly straight and level will -
a. increase
b. decrease
c. increase then decrease
d. decrease then increase

Answer 194

D

Question 195

The last minute addition of 1000 kg of fuel to a large transport category aircraft before take off will most seriously affect -
a. the take off distance required
b. the climb speed
c. the cruise altitude
d. the landing distance available

Answer 195

A

Question 196

The auto pilot depends on devices to measure aircraft attitude changes so that information may be used to achieve controlled flight. Accelerometers assist in a -
a. coordinated turn
b. set rate of climb and descent
c. coordinated climb and descent
d. level turn

Answer 196

B

Question 197

The device that controls the direction of movement of a hydraulic actuating unit, is called the?
a. Sequencing valve.
b. Flow control valve.
c. Pressure relief valve.
d. Selector valve.

Answer 197

D

Question 198

Assuming a constant speed drive is disconnected in flight when, and under what circumstances can it be re-connected ?
a. Anytime when in-flight
b. Automatically, when the undercarriage air/ground logic switch has weight on it.
c. Electrically, when the undercarriage air/ground logic switch has weight on it.
d. Mechanically, when the aircraft is on the ground.

Answer 198

D

Question 199

Assuming the aircraft is within the various radio altitude envelope bands, in which of the following scenarios will the flight crew receive a warning ?-
a. When 1 dot or more below the glide-slope.
b. During a slow descent over flat terrain, whilst in the correct landing configuration.
c. When an unsafe radio height is reached, with the aircraft NOT in the landing configuration.
d. With an excessive closure rate when approaching a near vertical cliff.

Answer 199

C

Question 200

Assuming the same degree of trailing edge flap deflection, which answer best describes the primary advantage of slotted flaps, compared to fowler flaps ?
a. Greater flap area.
b. Longer effective chord length.
c. Improved boundary layer airflow over flaps.
d. Increased camber occurs.

Answer 200

C

Question 201

The primary purpose of a supercritical wing section is to:
a. Decrease the critical drag, rise number
b. Provide a greater lift at a given angle of attack
c. Shorten the take off roll of an aircraft
d. Prevent tip stalling on swept wing aircraft
e. Increase the critical drag rise number

Answer 201

D

Question 202

When considering pilot related operating techniques to get the greatest braking effort from an anti-skid system, the pilot should:
a. Release brake pressure if he suspects the tyres may be locking up
b. Release brake pedal pressure if it appears the tyres are locking up
c. Maintain constant brake pedal pressure, and let the anti-skid do the work
d. Pump the brake pedal

Answer 202

C

Question 203

Coffin corner is best described as the situation where an aircraft is operating at such high altitude that the difference between high and low speed buffet is only a few knots. Which statement is correct?
a. It is not effected by aircraft weight
b. It is not effected by aircraft weight or “G” load factors
c. It is effected by aircraft weight and load factors

Answer 203

C

Question 204

Which answer best describes the purpose of the transformer rectifier unit (TRU)?
a. It converts AC power to DC power, and steps up the voltage
b. It converts AC power to DC power, and steps down the voltage
c. It prevents battery “thermal runaway”
d. It prevents reverse current flow, thereby preventing one generator powering another generator which is shut down

Answer 204

B

Question 205

The term “fail passive” autopilot system is used to describe:
a. An autopilot system that comprises 3 autopilots, and should one fail, it will be isolated, the other two continuing to fly the landing approach, in a “fail passive” mode
b. An autopilot system comprising 2 autopilots. If one fails it will be isolated, and the remaining autopilot will automatically conduct a missed approach procedure
c. An autopilot system comprising 2 autopilots. Should one fail both will disconnect, leaving the aircraft in a “passive” state of trim. It must then be flown manually

Answer 205

C

Question 206

Shortly after take off your heavy jet aircraft encounters severe vertical windshear. You should:
a. Lower the angle of attack to maintain a climb airspeed
b. Select the autopilot on in speed hold
c. Disconnect the autopilot (if ON) and increase the angle of attack to just above the stickshaker values

Answer 206

C

Question 207

Spiral stability:
a. Opposes oscillatory stability, and gets better with increased altitude
b. Works in conjunction with oscillatory stability, and gets better with altitude
c. Oppose oscillatory stability and gets worse with increased altitude

Answer 207

A

Question 208

Which statement is most correct about the updating of NAV and PERFORMANCE FMC databases?
a. Both are updated every 28 days
b. The performance database is updated every 28 days, whereas Nav
c. The nav database is updated every 28 days. The performance database may be updated at the same time as the nav database, or at some other times as appropriate

Answer 208

C

Question 209

Which EHSI mode(s) do NOT give track information?
a. Plan mode
b. Plan and expanded VOR/ILS modes
c. Map mode
d. All modes
e. Full ILS and Full VOR modes

Answer 209

E

Question 210

Use of auto-brakes:
a. Can only be cancelled by turning the auto-brake selector to “OFF”
b. Can only be cancelled by the application of the parking brake
c. Can be cancelled by the pilot applying a certain amount of pressure on the pedal brakes
d. Can only be cancelled by the pilot either select the auto-brakes to “Arm” or “Off”

Answer 210

C

Question 211

The total loss of system ‘A’ and system ‘B’ hydraulic systems in a 767-300 ER aircraft including their respective electrically driven pumps, means that hydraulic power is limited to supplying:
a. The rudder, ailerons, elevator, No’s 1 and 2 thrust reversers, and leading edge flaps and slats
b. The rudder, ailerons and elevator only
c. The rudder only
d. The primary flight controls, leading and trailing edge flaps
e. The rudder, No’s 1 and 2 thrust reversers, and leading edge flaps and slats

Answer 211

D

Question 212

Why is it unnecessary to de-ice axial flow compressor rotor blades?
a. Ice is broken up by the speed of the rotor blades
b. The inlet stator guide vanes are heated and heat the air passing through them toward the compressor
c. The inlet air temperature rise due to compression eliminates the ice

Answer 212

C

Question 213

A TCAS 2 system is being operated in TA mode only. Which statement is correct about displays?
a. Only traffic advisories will be announced visually and aurally, RA’s will appear as a TA
b. Traffic advisories will be announced visually and aurally, RA’s visually only
c. Both TA’s and RA’s will be announced visually and aurally
d. TA’s will be announced visually and aurally, but RA’s will not be announced visually or aurally

Answer 213

A

Question 214

Why are ‘Can Type’ combustion chambers connected by tubes?
a. To equalise the pressure and assist in the propagation of combustion
b. To equalise the pressure and assist in equalising the fuel/air ratio
c. To equalise the temperature and ensure that all cans ignite when starting

Answer 214

A

Question 215

What is the advantage of a tricycle undercarriage wheel arrangement?
a. More powerful braking can be used at high landing speeds
b. Elimination of ground loop tendency due to the centre of gravity being aft of the main wheels
c. Elimination of ground loop tendency due to the centre of pressure being aft of the main wheels

Answer 215

A

Question 216

An aircraft has two hydraulic systems. Which answer is most correct?
a. Both systems power ALL aircraft hydraulic user units
b. No aircraft hydraulic user units are powered by both hydraulic systems
c. Some aircraft hydraulic user units are powered by both systems, and some by only one
d. No aircraft hydraulic user units are powered by both systems, but in an emergency the pilot can manually select supply of hydraulic pressure to any user unit from one hydraulic system to another

Answer 216

C

Question 217

You are programming the FMC for the departure, and the CDU screen shows an annunciation of “NO DATA” when a particular waypoint is entered. Which of the answers below best describes the method(s) by which the waypoint can be manually entered?
a. Latitude/Longitude
b. Place/bearing/distance
c. Place bearing/place bearing
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 217

A

Question 218

Which answer is most correct, about the diffuser?
a. It reduces the pressure and increase gas stream velocity
b. It reduces the pressure and gas stream velocity
c. It is divergent duct, reducing stream velocity, and increasing the pressure
d. It is a convergent duct, reducing gas stream pressure and increasing the velocity

Answer 218

C

Question 219

The purpose of the “swirl vanes” is to:
a. Accelerate the air entering the combustion chamber to increase compression ratio
b. Increase the axial velocity of air entering the primary combustion zone to increase mass flow
c. Divert cooling air from the primary combustion zone to the diffusion zone
d. Guide high velocity air leaving the combustion chamber onto the turbines at the optimum angle
e. Reduce the axial air velocity, and anchor the flame in the primary zone

Answer 219

E

Question 220

‘Annular’ combustion chamber types, when compared with “can annular” types have the advantage of being more space efficient, suffer less pressure loss, and can be shorter in length:
a. True
b. False

Answer 220

A

Question 221

Nozzle guide vanes (NGV’s):
a. Always increase the gas stream velocity
b. Are designed to guide the gas stream on to the turbine blades at the optimum angle
c. Spin in the opposite direction to the turbine wheel they precede
d. Spin in the same direction as the turbine wheel they precede

Answer 221

B

Question 222

‘Honey comb shrouds’, and ‘knife edge seals’:
a. Straighten the gas path leaving the turbine blades
b. Reduce turbine tip air leakage
c. Assist in cooling the turbine blades
d. Reduce the angle of attack of the gas stream on the turbine blades

Answer 222

B

Question 223

The turbine ‘shroud ring’:
a. Reduces blade vibration by stiffening the blade tip
b. Reduces the gas loads on the blade tip
c. Reduces blade vibration by stiffening the blade root
d. Does not require any cooling air supply

Answer 223

A

Question 224

Which statement is most correct about turbine blade creep stress values with time in service?
a. Initially the blade stretches very little, but creep stress values increase at a linear rate up to blade failure
b. Initially the blade stretches considerably during the “primary stage”, but at approximately linear rate during the “tertiary” creep stage
c. Initially during the “primary” stage, and finally in the “tertiary” stage blade stretching is significant, being less between these stages

Answer 224

C

Question 225

Which statement is most correct regarding Avtur?
a. It has a lower specific gravity than Avgas
b. It does not contain wax, or hold water in suspension
c. It weighs more per unit volume than Avgas
d. It has a lower fire-point than Avgas
e. It does not support microbial infestation, Avgas does

Answer 225

C

Question 226

Which statement is most correct regarding fuel quantity readings taken using drip-sticks and/or magna-sticks?
a. Readings do not need to be corrected
b. Readings need to be corrected for any wing low condition
c. Readings need to be corrected for wing low, and tail high/low conditions

Answer 226

C

Question 227

The engine is said to have ‘stabilised’ after start when:
a. The N2 RPM reaches 10-15%
b. The N2 RPM reaches 35%
c. N2 RPM peaks and reduces to stabilise at about 55-60% RPM
d. The EGT peaks, reduces and stabilises, with an N2 speed of about 55% RPM

Answer 227

D

Question 228

When a turbofan powered aircraft accelerates from approximately 80 knots to 250 knots, thrust:
a. Initially increases, then decreases
b. Initially decreases then steadies
c. Decreases at a reducing amount as speed increases
d. Decreases at a steady rate throughout

Answer 228

C

Question 229

Which answer best represents the display characteristics of the ‘Expanded ILS mode’?
a. Weather radar returns cannot be displayed, orientation is track up
b. Weather radar returns can be displayed, orientation is heading up. Aircraft is at the centre of a 360 degree compass rose
c. Weather radar returns can be displayed, orientation is heading up. Aircraft is displayed as a white triangle at the bottom of the display. Compass arc shown is 70 degrees

Answer 229

C

Question 230

Which one of the answers listed below best represents the display of active waypoints and
active routes?
a. Active waypoints are displayed in white, and tracks as dashed white lines
b. Active waypoints are displayed in magenta and tracks as dashed white lines
c. Active waypoints are displayed in blue and tracks as dashed white lines
d. Active waypoints are displayed in magenta and tracks as solid magenta lines

Answer 230

D

Question 231

Provisional or modified routes are displayed as:
a. A dashed magenta line
b. A solid magenta line
c. A dashed white line
d. A solid white line

Answer 231

C

Question 232

The FMC uses what wind to fly the holding pattern?
a. The MET wind
b. The actual current wind
c. No wind is used

Answer 232

B

Question 233

The aircraft is cruising at FL310 in VNAV with the auto-throttle and autopilot engaged approaching the FMC predicted Top of Descent point. The MCP altitude window value is 35,000 ft. What will happen as the aircraft reaches Top of Descent?
a. The aircraft will enter the descent as commanded by the FMC
b. The aircraft will continue to cruise at FL310 and VNAV will disengage
c. The aircraft will step climb to FL350

Answer 233

B

Question 234

Which answer is most correct regarding ‘conditional waypoints’?
a. They are at a position geographically fixed by latitude/longitude, and can NOT be displayed on an EHSI
b. They are geographically fixed by reference to a VOR radial and DME distance
c. They are not a geographically fixed position, can be defined as a heading, radial, DME distance, altitude or intercept, and only the altitude conditional waypoints are displayed on the EHSI

Answer 234

C

Question 235

Which answer listed below is most correct?
a. TCAS 1 cannot identify non-transponder equipped target, but TCAS 2 can
b. TCAS 1 and TCAS 2 both provide “Resolution Advisories” (RA’s)
c. A yellow circle is linked to a ‘Traffic, Traffic’ aural message in a TCAS 2 equipped aircraft
d. A proximity target is shown as a red square

Answer 235

C

Question 236

Which of the answers listed best represents a disadvantage of the older TCAS 2 fitted to a B767-300ER?
a. It may cause a disastrous ‘descend’ RA message when the aircraft is within 400 ft of the ground
b. It may issue an RA with a climb rate in excess of the aircrafts ability, if one engine is shut down
c. An RA may override and mask a GPWS warning

Answer 236

B

Question 237

Which one of the answers best describes the effect of rain on aircraft operations?
a. Reduced visibility, possibility of runway overshoot, but no loss of lift
b. Reduced visibility, increased drag, and runway may appear closer than it actually is, possible overshoot
c. Increased drag, decreased lift, possibility of runway overshoot, and runway may appear closer than actual
d. Decreased lift, increased drag, runway lights may appear further away than actual, and possibility of undershoot due to ‘prismatic effect’

Answer 237

D

Question 238

When comparing the properties of pneumatic vs hydraulic systems?
a. Pneumatics great advantage is that air is considered to be incompressible
b. Pneumatic systems do NOT suffer from moisture in the system,
c. Pneumatic can provide greater control power.
d. Pneumatics do not require return lines, whereas hydraulic systems do

Answer 238

D

Question 239

Which answer best describes the effect of a blocked pitot during a climb?
a. The airspeed indicator could over-read
b. The airspeed indicator would still read correctly
c. The airspeed indicator will under-read due to compressibility effects in the static port

Answer 239

A

Question 240

The B767 – 300ER EICAS system indicates that there is a duct leak in the left wing anti-ice. Which answer best describes your correct actions, if any?
a. Shut down the left engine to stop bleed air flow
b. Take no action, as it is only an advisory message, and no damage would result
c. Shut off the left wing anti-ice selector valve to prevent damage to aircraft structure

Answer 240

C

Question 241

Hydraulic fluid has which of the following properties?
a. Resistance to expansion when heated
b. It is almost incompressible
c. It is easily compressed, giving more positive control responses.
d. It can maintain a constant temperature under adverse high temperature operating environments.

Answer 241

B

Question 242

Which statement is most correct regarding lubricating oil types?
a. Synthetic oils contain undesirable impurities (minerals) such as harmful chemical components
b. Synthetic oils are less likely to produce carbon deposits
c. Synthetic oils and petroleum oils can be mixed without harming engine components
d. Oils used in gas turbine engines are thicker than those used in 4 cycle piston engines as they must lubricate the external gearbox in addition to the engine bearings

Answer 242

B

Question 243

Apart from bracing the exhaust area and supporting the turbine shaft(s), the exhaust struts:
a. Reduce gas stream velocity
b. Increase gas stream velocity
c. Straighten the gas flow making it more axial in nature
d. Provide a measure of back pressure essential to combustion chamber operation

Answer 243

C

Question 244

Stators in an axial flow compressor:
a. From convergent ducts which decelerate the airstream, and increase the air pressure
b. Form convergent ducts which accelerate the airstream, and increase the air pressure
c. Form divergent ducts which accelerate the airstream, and increase the air pressure
d. Form divergent ducts which decelerate the airstream, and increase the air pressure

Answer 244

D

Question 245

Large transport jet aircraft use:
a. Air starters
b. Electrical starters
c. Kick starters
d. Starters/generators

Answer 245

A

Question 246

A thinner wing section:
a. Lowers the critical drag rise number
b. Increases the critical drag rise number
c. Has no effect on the critical drag rise number

Answer 246

B

Question 247

A wing reaches its critical Mach number. Continued acceleration will have what effect on the positions of the shockwave, centre of pressure, and lift:
a. Centre of pressure will move forward, the shockwave will move rearward, and lift will increase
b. Centre of pressure will move forward, the shockwave will move forward, and lift will increase
c. Centre of pressure and shockwave will both move rearward, and lift will decrease
d. Centre of pressure and shockwave will both move forward, and lift will decrease

Answer 247

C

Question 248

Blockage of the EPR intake probe could cause:
a. Over-reading of the engine EPR gauge
b. Under- reading of the engine EPR gauge
c. No effect to the accuracy of readings taken off the EPR gauge

Answer 248

A

Question 249

Under which of the following conditions is it necessary to incorporate cabin air humidifiers, in an aircraft air conditioning system ?
a. When operations are at low altitudes/low temperatures.
b. At all altitudes, when air temperature is low.
c. At high altitudes, at all times.
d. At low altitudes, at any temperature.

Answer 249

C

Question 250

Which one answer best describes a reason vortex generators are fitted?
a. To provide a more abrupt and easily recognised stall
b. To decrease the critical drag rise number
c. To de-couple the boundary layer from the free stream airflow, and thereby lower the drag
d. To re-energise the boundary layer, and reduce the drag caused by shockwaves

Answer 250

D

Question 251

What is the purpose of the shuttle valve in the hydraulic system of a large jet transport aircraft?
a. To allow hydraulic pressure from the alternate system to pressurise the lines in the event of a failure of the normal system
b. To vent excess hydraulic system pressure back to the reservoir during periods of low demand
c. To allow two separate hydraulic systems to simultaneously supply pressure to services to provide redundancy

Answer 251

A

Question 252

The fuel flow transmitter in the fuel system of a large jet transport category aircraft is located:
a. At the outlet from the high pressure pump
b. At the inlet to the fuel control unit
c. At the outlet from the fuel control unit

Answer 252

C

Question 253

The operation of the main landing gear doors on a large jet during landing gear retraction is controlled by:
a. Sequencing valves
b. The gear lever in the cockpit
c. Shuttle valves

Answer 253

A

Question 254

The function of positive pressure relief valves in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport aircraft is to:
a. Limit the cabin altitude to a value below or equal to the aircraft altitude
b. Limit the cabin pressure to a value above the outside ambient pressure at all times
c. Limit the maximum positive pressure differential

Answer 254

C

Question 255

The function of negative pressure relief valves in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport aircraft is to:
a. Limit the cabin altitude to a value below or equal to the aircraft altitude
b. Limit the cabin pressure to a value above the outside ambient pressure at all times
c. Limit the maximum positive pressure differential

Answer 255

A

Question 256

The function of the mixing valves in the air conditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to:
a. Blend ram air with bleed air to control cabin temperature
b. Mix dry air with humidified air to provide a comfortable cabin environment
c. Regulate the mixture of cold and hot air for distribution into the passenger and crew cabins

Answer 256

C

Question 257

The purpose of the cabin compressor in a light pressurised twin engined aircraft is to:
a. Pressurise the cabin air
b. Ventilate the cabin
c. Warm the cabin air

Answer 257

A

Question 258

Which of the following components of a hydraulic system in a large jet transport category aircraft acts as a surge suppressor?
a. The reservoir
b. The accumulator
c. The pressure relief valve
d. The check valve
e. The pressure regulator

Answer 258

B

Question 259

In blow back valve (as an alternative to airspeed sensing) for over-speed protection, what mechanism prevents the pilot from over-speeding the flaps when the aircraft is flying well in excess of the flap limit speed?
a. The flap lever is locked in the up position by the hydraulic pressure
b. The flaps can be selected, but if an over-speed exists, the excessive air loads will cause hydraulic pressure in the flap circuit to rise and be relieved through the blow back valve, allowing the air loads to drive the flaps to a retracted position
c. The protection circuit is dependent on correct positioning of the flap limit speed bug on
the ASI

Answer 259

B

Question 260

Centring the nose wheel steering system operates to straighten the nose wheel:
a. After landing gear retraction
b. During landing gear retraction
c. Before landing gear retraction
d. Before landing gear extension

Answer 260

C

Question 261

Which valve in the air conditioning and pressurisation system in a large jet transport aircraft controls the cabin pressure?
a. The ram valve
b. The inflow valve
c. The positive pressure relief valve
d. The outflow valve

Answer 261

D

Question 262

In cruise at high thrust settings, bleed air for air conditioning is normally supplied by the:
a. The LP bleed
b. The HP bleed
c. Both the LP and HP bleeds
d. Either the LP or HP bleeds, depending on demand.

Answer 262

A

Question 263

Which of the following components is not common to both hydraulic and pneumatic systems?
a. A filter
b. An accumulator
c. A pressure regulator
d. A restrictor valve
e. A shuttle valve

Answer 263

B

Question 264

Which component controls the operation of the outflow valve in the normal mode of operation
in the air conditioning and pressurisation system of a jet transport category aircraft?
a. The cabin altitude selector
b. The pressure controller
c. The aircraft altitude selector
d. The cabin differential pressure selector

Answer 264

B

Question 265

Which of the following is the most important parameter to monitor in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport category aircraft?
a. Cabin altitude
b. Minimum cabin differential pressure
c. Minimum cabin altitude rate of change
d. Aircraft altitude

Answer 265

A

Question 266

What is the primary advantage of AC over DC electrical generation types ?
a. Savings in space and weight.
b. It is easier to convert AC to DC, than DC to AC.
c. Separate bus systems are not required with AC systems.
d. Circuits of AC are less complicated than DC.

Answer 266

A

Question 267

An aircraft is fitted with Ni-cad batteries, and the crew get a “High Battery Temp” warning light. This situation was probably caused by?
a. The electrical load on the Ni-cad battery was too high.
b. The battery discharge rate was too high.
c. The rate of charging was too high.

Answer 267

C

Question 268

After a WET START in a turbine engine, what precautions should be taken to prevent a future engine malfunction?
a. Use a cross-bleed start to prevent starter motor overheating.
b. Use a cross-bleed start to prevent a hot start.
c. Motor-over using the starter motor to prevent a hung start.
d. Motor over to prevent torching when re-starting.

Answer 268

D

Question 269

The purpose of a cabin pressure relief valve is to automatically open when?
a. The cabin rapidly depressurises, such as in an explosive decompression.
b. Cabin pressure reaches a pre-set value.
c. Rate of cabin pressure rise is too great.
d. Cabin differential pressure reaches a pre-set value.

Answer 269

D

Question 270

Which one of the answers listed, best describes the Constant Speed Drive (CSD)?
a. The CSD transformers DC to AC power, and steps down the voltage
b. The CSD transformers DC to AC power, and steps up the voltage
c. The CSD maintains a constant frequency power supply to the power distribution system, irrespective of engine speed

Answer 270

C

Question 271

Which answer is most correct regarding the Boeing 767 FMC navigation data base?
a. There is one FMC navigation data base, and it is updated every week
b. There is one FMC navigation data base, and it is updated every 30 days
c. There are two sets of FMC navigation data bases, updated every 28 days
d. There are three sets of FMC navigation data bases, updated every 28 days

Answer 271

C

Question 272

Which answer best describes the method by which a turboprop “Negative Torque Sensing” system (NTS) operates, if a negative torque is sensed?
a. It increases the propeller blade angle
b. It decreases the propeller blade angle
c. It reduces the amount of fuel being delivered to the engine

Answer 272

A

Question 273

Which answer best describes an advantage of a ‘free turbine’ turbo prop engine, compared to a ‘fixed shaft type’?
a. Less fuel consumption
b. Prop tip speeds are less
c. Better scavenging of unburnt fuel particles
d. Less power required during starting than that required for a “fixed shaft” engine

Answer 273

D

Question 274

At glideslope capture during operations in VNAV on a B767 aircraft:
a. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation disappears and is replaced by a white “G/S” annunciation
b. The white EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation is replaced by a green G/S annunciation
c. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation disappears and is replaced by a green “G/S” annunciation
d. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation disappears and is replaced by a green “ILS” annunciation

Answer 274

C

Question 275

The cabin negative pressure relief valve will open if ?
a. The cabin pressure exceeds the ambient outside air pressure.
b. The aircraft reaches maximum differential pressure.
c. The ambient outside pressure exceeds the cabin pressure.

Answer 275

C

Question 276

Which statement is INCORRECT regarding a ‘vapour cycle’ air conditioning system ?
a. Fluid/gas flow rate through the system is affected by modulation of the expansion valve.
b. The thermostatic regulator controls expansion valve movements.
c. The primary purpose of the boot-strapped compressor is to separate high and low system pressures.
d. The expansion valve allows low pressure fluid to be released into the evaporator at higher pressure, which in turn causes the fluid to revert to vapour.

Answer 276

D

Question 277

What is the primary function of an hydraulic reservoir ?
a. To provide a reserve of fluid in case of system leakage.
b. To contain enough fluid for all system user units to be operated simultaneously.
c. To provide a reserve of pressure at times when the pump cannot cope with demand.
d. To retain excess fluid when the demand on the pump is less than pump output maxima.

Answer 277

B

Question 278

Within a hydraulic system, a check valve ?
a. Assist in trapping solid particles, in association with filters and sumps.
b. Ensure fluid reversal does not occur.
c. Provide a timing device, whereby certain units operate in a certain order.
d. Provide an alternative fluid pressure source to supply key units, without manual selection being required.

Answer 278

B

Question 279

In an air cycle machine, which device ensures that air entering the system for processing, is cooled to an acceptable temperature ?
a. The expansion valve.
b. A heat exchanger.
c. The expansion turbine.
d. The mixing valve.

Answer 279

B

Question 280

Artificial feel ?
a. Only operates in the low speed flight regime, around approach speeds.
b. Provides a measure of feedback to the pilot as to the loads being imparted on the controls, and senses dynamic pressures.
c. Only operates at high Mach numbers, and automatically provides a nose up trim to prevent Mach tuck.

Answer 280

B

Question 281

Which statement is most correct about the rudder ?
a. Inputs from the pilot are not modified as speed varies, as the “Q” feel system
b. automatically compensates.
c. Inputs from the pilot are modified for speed, such that at low speed, rudder deflection is limited.
d. Pilot inputs to the rudder are modified using signals from the CADC to prevent over-stress

Answer 281

D

Question 282

In a supersonic air-stream, the static pressure behind an ‘expansion wave’ would?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain unchanged

Answer 282

B

Question 283

Landing flap overload occurs. The observations are ?
a. The flap remains at it’s present position, but the flap lever in the cockpit moves to lesser values.
b. The flap retracts to a lesser setting, the cockpit flap lever does NOT move, and the flap remains at the reduced setting despite speed reduction to less than limit speed.
c. The flap retracts to a lesser setting, the cockpit flap lever does NOT move, and the flap returns to the original setting as speed reduces to less than limit speed.

Answer 283

C

Question 284

In a typical EFIS, which display unit advises the pilot of the modes the autopilot is engaged in
a. The EHSI.
b. The CDU.
c. The AFDS panel.
d. The EADI

Answer 284

D

Question 285

In a typical EFIS, which display unit can display both current airspeed and Mach number?
a. The EADI
b. The EHSI
c. The AFDS speed window

Answer 285

A

Question 286

During high speed flight, the aileron lockout fail message appears. This means ?
a. That only inboard ailerons will continue move with control yoke roll inputs at high speed.
b. That one or both outboard ailerons will continue move at high speeds, with control yoke inputs.
c. That a return to low speed flight would see the outboard ailerons NOT respond to control yoke roll inputs, leaving only inboard ailerons and roll spoilers to effect roll.

Answer 286

B

Question 287

During return to low speed flight, the aileron “lockout fail” message appears. This means that?
a. All ailerons will continue move, with control yoke roll inputs.
b. All inboard ailerons will no operate during the approach.
c. One or both outboard ailerons will not operate during the approach.
d. The inboard ailerons will NOT deflect as flaps, when flaps are lowered.

Answer 287

C

Question 288

If all other pre-conditions are met, and spoiler lever set to DOWN position, what factor would see lift dumpers deploy
a. Wheel brakes applied.
b. Reverse thrust selected.
c. Nose gear touchdown prior to main wheels.
d. Forward thrust being applied.

Answer 288

B

Question 289

Which statement is most incorrect about the rudder ?
a. During normal operations a speed input from the CADC alters rudder deflection.
b. A ratio changer is incorporated to reduce rudder deflection at low airspeeds.
c. A rudder ratio changer fault causes one of the three hydraulic actuators to the rudder to depressurise to prevent over-stressing at high airspeeds.

Answer 289

B

Question 290

If an aircraft is disturbed in pitch, and it continues to diverge through oscillation over time, from its initial position, this aircraft demonstrates?
a. Positive longitudinal static stability and negative dynamic stability.
b. Negative lateral static stability and positive dynamic stability.
c. Neutral longitudinal static stability and neutral dynamic stability.
d. Positive directional static stability and positive dynamic stability.

Answer 290

A

Question 291

An aircraft with a C of G forward of the centre of lift, that is disturbed positively in pitch, will demonstrate what upon release of the control column ?
a. A continued increase in angle of attack, and positive longitudinal static stability.
b. A decrease in angle of attack, and positive longitudinal static stability.
c. A positive pitching moment, and neutral longitudinal static stability.
d. A negative pitching moment, decreased angle of attack, and static longitudinal instability.

Answer 291

B

Question 292

What factors effect the runway PCN ?
a. Aircraft landing weight only.
b. Aircraft gross weight and tire pressure.
c. The load bearing qualities of the runway surface and sub-grade material
d. The tire pressure, number of tires and the aircraft gross weight.

Answer 292

C

Question 293

Which factor has the least affect in an aircraft which suffers an engine failure after take-off?
a. C of G.
b. Weight
c. Airport altitude.
d. Ground effect

Answer 293

D

Question 294

On conventional flight controls rubber seals were attached to the leading edge of the primary flight controls - this was used to ?
a. Give the pilot a feel for the pressure difference and so reduces control snatch
b. Reduce aerodynamic forces imparted on the hinge.
c. Prevent ice build-up that could lock the control

Answer 294

B

Question 295

To be ‘speed stable’ in a holding pattern the selected airspeed would need to be ?
a. As close to minimum steady flight speed as possible.
b. Less than the speed for minimum fuel flow.
c. At the speed for minimum fuel flow.
d. Faster than the speed for minimum fuel flow.

Answer 295

D

Question 296

In the B767 FMS/autopilot system a ‘fail operational’ ILS approach involves the reliable operation of how many autopilot’s.
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.

Answer 296

C

Question 297

An advantage of a ‘centrifugal’ compressor compared to an ‘axial flow’ compressor is ?
a. Greater thrust can be developed.
b. Higher compression ratios are possible.
c. It is more robust.

Answer 297

C

Question 298

If a gas turbine engine was fuelled with Avgas instead of Avtur the affect on range is to ?
a. Reduce it because Avgas has a lower specific gravity (SG).
b. Make no difference to it as range is not related to SG.
c. Increase it because Avgas has a higher SG.

Answer 298

A

Question 299

In a B767 an airspeed over-speed is announced in the cockpit by which aural?
a. A siren.
b. A bell.
c. A wailer.
d. A beeper.

Answer 299

A

Question 300

In the en route cruise zone of a flight sector the most appropriate EHSI display mode is?
a. Map mode.
b. Expanded VOR mode.
c. Compact VOR mode (VOR rose mode).
d. Plan mode.

Answer 300

A

Question 301

Current TAS can be found where on a B767 FMS/EFIS presentation?
a. The EADI screen.
b. The CDU progress page 2
c. The EHSI screen.
d. The upper EICAS screen.
e. The lower EICAS screen.

Answer 301

B

Question 302

Which of the EHSI display modes listed below can NOT display weather radar returns?
a. Plan mode.
b. Map mode.
c. Expanded ILS mode.
d. Expanded VOR mode.

Answer 302

A

Question 303

Which statement is most correct?
a. Flight at L/D max assures the greatest range is achieved in a power-off descent
b. L/D Max occurs at a fixed airspeed.
c. L/D Max occurs at the same speed irrespective of aircraft gross weight Flow down at about 700-800 fpm, levelling off about 1000ft below the aircraft

Answer 303

A

Question 304

Which factor has the least affect in an aircraft, which suffers an engine failure after take off?
a. CofG
b. Weight
c. Airport altitude
d. Ground effect

Answer 304

D

Question 305

Which wing attributes are best to delay separation?
a. Turbulent with least skin friction.
b. Laminar with least skin friction.
c. Move down and to the left Laminar with thinnest boundary layer.
d. Turbulent with thinnest boundary layer

Answer 305

A

Question 306

On conventional flight controls rubber seals were attached to the leading edge of the primary flight controls – this was used to:
a. Give the pilot a feel for the pressure difference
b. Reduce aerodynamic forces imparted on the hinge
c. Prevent ice build up that could lock the control

Answer 306

B

Question 307

VMCG speed is highest if the C of G?
a. Is at the forward end of the loading envelope.
b. Is in the centre of the loading envelope.
c. Is at the rearward end of the loading envelope.

Answer 307

C

Question 308

In the B767 thrust setting, by which means is speed maintained when in a ‘flight level change’ descent mode?
a. Flight idle/thrust variations.
b. Flight idle/vertical speed variations.
c. Ground idle/pitch variations.
d. Flight idle/pitch variations.

Answer 308

D

Question 309

The CDU line select keys can?
a. Only copy from a line to the scratchpad.
b. Only copy from the scratchpad to a line.
c. Copy a line to/from the scratch pad.

Answer 309

C

Question 310

GPWS warnings are inhibited for what kind of TCAS threat level?
a. Both ‘traffic advisories’ and ‘resolution advisories’.
b. Resolution advisories only
c. None.
d. Traffic advisories only.

Answer 310

C

Question 311

Which is NOT an element of anti-skid?
a. Pneumatic reserve braking.
b. Tyre lockup.
c. Landing protection.
d. Takeoff protection.

Answer 311

A

Question 312

In a Thrust Management System (TMS) the most significant factor for takeoff is?
a. Inlet temperature.
b. Pressure Error.
c. Combustion temperature.
d. Adiabatic compression.
e. EPR or N1 Instrument error.

Answer 312

A

Question 313

In the B767 FMS,after takeoff the minimum height for engagement of VNAV is?
a. 400ft
b. 50ft
c. Zero
d. 1500ft

Answer 313

A

Question 314

In B767 FMS during an autopilot controlled climb in VNAV, selecting a lower than current altitude in the autopilot (MCP) altitude window would see the aircraft?
a. Continue the climb to the VNAV cruise level.
b. Level off at the level the aircraft was at when the MCP altitude window was set
c. Descend to that new level

Answer 314

A

Question 315

The Captain’s EADI horizon is not showing. The F.O’s EADI is showing horizon information. The likely cause is?
a. The EADI screen has suffered an over-temperature condition
b. The Left IRS has not entered “NAV’’ mode.
c. The Left Symbol Generator has failed.
d. All IRS have not completed alignment.

Answer 315

B

Question 316

The TCAS 2 symbology in ascending order of threat is?
a. Open white diamond/solid white diamond/solid yellow circle/solid red square.
b. Solid white diamond/open white diamond/open yellow circle/solid red square.
c. Open white square/solid yellow circle/Solid magenta diamond/open read square.
d. Solid yellow square/solid red circle/open white diamond/solid red square.

Answer 316

A

Question 317

The CDU “UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE” message appears while on climb in VNAV. To achieve the FMS programmed level?
a. The auto throttle will increase thrust automatically
b. The pilot should select vertical speed mode and a vertical speed in excess of the current value.
c. The pilot should manually select a different speed in the MCP speed window that provides a steeper climb angle.

Answer 317

C

Question 318

Turbulent wake in the form of wing tip trailing vortices behave in what manner?
a. Flow down at about 300-500 fpm, levelling off about 1000 ft below the aircraft.
b. Flow up at about 300-500 fpm, levelling off about 500 ft above the aircraft.
c. Flow down at about 1000 fpm, levelling off about 500ft below the aircraft.

Answer 318

A

Question 319

Use of ‘de-rated thrust’ rather than full thrust would affect VMCA speed value how ?
a. It would have no effect on it
b. It would reduce it.
c. It would increase it.

Answer 319

B

Question 320

The auto-brakes are set to position “2”. After touchdown if the thrust reversers are engaged the target rate of deceleration will?
a. Increase to greater than the “2” datum value.
b. Decrease to less than the “2” datum value.
c. Essentially remain at the “2” datum setting.

Answer 320

C

Question 321

Spiral stability is greatest when?
a. Lateral stability is high compared to directional stability.
b. Directional stability is high compared to lateral stability.
c. Directional stability value is essentially the same value as that of pitching stability.
d. Dutch roll tendency is least.

Answer 321

A

Question 322

In which of the situations would you expect the strength of wing tip vortices to be the greatest?
a. At low speed, clean configuration, high gross weight
b. At high speed with leading and trailing edge high lift devices fully extended.
c. At low speed with leading and trailing edge high lift devices fully extended, low
gross weight.
d. At low speed, landing flap selected, high gross weight

Answer 322

A

Question 323

When operating at locations on earth that are outside the B767 FMC navigation database a waypoint can be entered?
a. Only as a latitude and longitude.
b. As either PLACE BEARING/PLACE BEARING” or
PLACE/BEARING/DISTANCE.
c. Only as “PLACE BEARING/PLACE BEARING”.
d. Only as “PLACE/BEARING/DISTANCE”.

Answer 323

A

Question 324

In the B767 the FMC route is cancelled?
a. Automatically after landing as the aircraft groundspeed reduces to 10 kt
b. Automatically when the main gear bogies have both levelled after touchdown.
c. Automatically when the air/ground logic switch registers there is weight on the wheels.
d. Manually by the pilot’s before the engines are shut down.
e. Automatically as the avionics are turned off.

Answer 324

A

Question 325

The source of field excitation current to a three phase alternator in a large jet powered transport aircraft electrical system is?
a. The Pilot Exciter.
b. The voltage regulator.
c. The main exciter.
d. The Permanent Magnetic Generator (PMG).

Answer 325

D

Question 326

Which of the following factors will produce a low thrust value for takeoff ?
a. Low ambient temperatures.
b. High density altitude.
c. High ambient pressure.
d. Low pressure altitude.

Answer 326

B

Question 327

In the B767 FMS, after takeoff the minimum height for engagement of VNAV is:
a. 50 feet
b. Zero feet
c. 1500 feet
d. 400 feet

Answer 327

D

Question 328

To achieve a “fail operational” autopilot coupled ILS approach?
a. Three autopilots engage at 1500ft above sea level.
b. Three autopilots engage at the Top of Descent point
c. Three autopilots engage at 1500ft radio altitude.
d. Two autopilots engage at 300ft above sea level.

Answer 328

C

Question 329

In B767 FMS during an autopilot controlled climb in VNAV, selecting an altitude in the MCP which is currently higher that the current altitude but lower than the FMS altitude would?
a. Immediately level off
b. Continue the climb to the VNAV cruise level
c. Level off at the MCP altitude

Answer 329

C

Question 330

Which answer describes the best C of G position to preserve elevator authority if you are faced with a jammed stabiliser trim whilst in flight:
a. The extreme forward limit allowable.
b. The mid point in the loading envelope.
c. An aft position

Answer 330

C

Question 331

Lift-dumpers (ground spoilers) are most effective if deployed at?
a. As soon as possible after touchdown and before brake application.
b. In flight with the flaps at approach setting.
c. After touchdown and after reverse thrust and wheel brakes have been applied.
d. After touchdown and after brakes are applied.
e. In-flight with the flaps at landing setting.

Answer 331

A

Question 332

The FMC “UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE” message appears while on climb in VNAV. To achieve the FMS programmed level:
a. The auto-throttle will increase thrust automatically
b. The pilot should manually select a different speed in the MCP speed window that provides a steeper climb angle
c. The pilot should select vertical speed mode and a vertical speed in excess of the current value

Answer 332

B

Question 333

To apply the parking brake on a heavy transport aircraft the pilot?
a. First applies toe brake pressure and the pulls the park brake handle.
b. Only needs to pull the park brake handle.
c. Only needs to momentarily depress the brake pedals if the aircraft engines are shut down.
d. First pulls the park brake handle and then applies toe brake pressure.

Answer 333

A

Question 334

Which statement is not correct?
a. Air cycle machine basic advantage is it’s light weight-disadvantage gives a poor ground cooling
b. The lowest temperature achieved in an air cycle machine is at the expansion turbine outlet
c. Pre-cooler cold air is supplied from the expansion turbine. This is called boot-strapping.

Answer 334

C

Question 335

The level or absolute aerodynamic ceiling is reduced as?
a. Gross weight is reduced as fuel is burnt off.
b. Bank angle increases.
c. Severity of turbulence decreases.

Answer 335

B

Question 336

Which statement best represents the effects of severe ice formation on an aircraft structure?
a. Stall speed will be higher, stick shaker stall warning may be compromised, lift reduced, drag increased.
b. No effect on airspeed, thrust reduced, lift increased, communication and navigation equipment operation may be effected.
c. Control problems, no change in stall speed or aircraft weight, stall warning will be compromised.

Answer 336

A

Question 337

Which statement is most correct?
a. Compressor (N2) during high engine rpm.
b. Bleed air source from the engine fan is used during low engine rpm, second stage
c. Bleed air cannot be used for ground operations, only during flight.
d. Bleed air extraction during take-off reduces take off and climb performance.

Answer 337

D

Question 338

Ideal temperature range for humans is about?
a. 28-30°C
b. 15-20°C
c. 18-24°C
d. 5-20°C
e. 10-20°C

Answer 338

C

Question 339

For the same conditions of flight level, gross weight, Mach number and temperature, the most forward allowable C of G position compared to the most rearward C of G position would produce:
a. A lower fuel flow
b. Less up-trim
c. No change in fuel flow
d. A higher fuel flow

Answer 339

D

Question 340

Primary control of rate of climb is achieved through variations in?
a. Angle of attack.
b. Power or thrust
c. Forward speed.
d. The wing camber.
e. The wing area.

Answer 340

B

Question 341

An aircraft has a tendency to stay in a spin.This shows?
a. To much directional stability compared to lateral stability.
b. A lack of directional stability.
c. That the tail fin is too small.
d. That ventral strakes and/or a dorsal fin extension is required.
e. That the aircraft needs anhedral or less dihedral

Answer 341

A

Question 342

Humidity level in a high flying aircraft cabin is about?
a. 30%
b. 100%
c. 0%
d. 20%
e. 90%

Answer 342

A

Question 343

The compressor primarily converts?
a. Kinetic energy to pressure energy
b. Kinetic energy to potential energy.
c. Potential energy into kinetic energy.
d. Pressure energy into kinetic energy.

Answer 343

A

Question 344

Which statement is most correct as speed increases beyond MCRIT?
a. The centre of lift moves forward, lift increases, and the super-stall becomes likely due to the nose-up pitch moment.
b. The centre of lift moves forward, lift reduces, and the adverse couple with the fixed C of G causes the nose-down pitch moment.
c. The centre of lift moves aft, lift reduces, and a nose-down pitch moment occurs (Mac tuck).

Answer 344

C

Question 345

A change in value of which element would increase the amount of thrust available?
a. Temperature decrease
b. Density altitude increase
c. Pressure altitude increase

Answer 345

A

Question 346

In comparing MCRIT and MCDR of a supercriticalwing to a conventional cambered wing?
a. MCRIT is higher, and MCDR lower.
b. MCRIT is lower and MCDR higher.
c. MCRIT and MCDR are both higher.

Answer 346

C

Question 347

Which one is NOT an Air data computer output?
a. Altitude
b. Vertical speed
c. Indicated airspeed
d. Pitch attitude

Answer 347

D

Question 348

An aircraft is on descent with the enunciators as shown. If the SPD enunciator goes blank, the probable cause is:

SPD (green) VNAV PATH (green) LNAV (green) CMD (green)

a. The auto throttle has lost speed data
b. VNAV has disconnected
c. The autopilot has disconnected
d. LNAV has disconnected

Answer 348

A

Question 349

Which statement best represents the effects of severe ice formation on an aircraft structure?
a. No effect on airspeed, thrust reduced, lift increased, communication and navigation equipment operation may be effected
b. Stall speed will be higher, stick shaker stall warning may be compromised, lift reduced, drag increased
c. Control problems, no change in stall speed or aircraft weight, stall warning will be compromised

Answer 349

B

Question 350

A cabin humidifier is incorporated in aircraft with pressurised cabins, and utilised:
a. Only rarely
b. At high altitude
c. At low altitude
d. On the ground in but only at high ambient temperatures

Answer 350

B

Question 351

AC voltage:
a. Is a constant amplitude
b. Varies in amplitude and polarity
c. Varies in amplitude only

Answer 351

B

Question 352

A (115 VAC 400 hz 3 phase) supply has:
a. A capacity of 400,000 watts
b. An impedance of 400 ohms
c. A frequency of 400 cycles per second

Answer 352

C

Question 353

The frequency of aircraft constant frequency AC systems is normally maintained between:
a. 380 and 420 HZ
b. 350 and 450 HZ
c. 395 and 405 HZ

Answer 353

A

Question 354

The output voltage of an AC generator is usually controlled by:
a. Controlling the strength of the magnetic field
b. Changing the number of windings on the armature
c. Changing the number of windings in the field coils
d. Controlling the RPM of the armature

Answer 354

A

Question 355

The output frequency of an AC generator is governed by:
a. Controlling the strength of the magnetic field
b. Changing the number of windings on the armature
c. Changing the number of windings in the field coils
d. Controlling the RPM of the armature

Answer 355

D

Question 356

Single phase 115 VAC 400 HZ equipment may be used with a three phase 115 VAC 400 HZ supply providing it is connected:
a. To the line voltage output terminal of a star wound generator
b. Between any phase and earth
c. To all three output phases of a delta wound generator

Answer 356

B

Question 357

AC generator systems can be connected in parallel for high capacity supply providing:
a. Voltage, frequency and phases are matched
b. Frequency and phase only are matched
c. Voltage and phase only are matched

Answer 357

A

Question 358

The opposing potential in AC circuits (and changing DC circuits) is known as:
a. PD
b. Forward EMF
c. Back EMF

Answer 358

C

Question 359

The field excitation current for AC generators is:
a. DC and may be varied to control output voltage
b. AC and therefore cannot be varied to control output voltage
c. AC and may be varied to control the output voltage

Answer 359

A

Question 360

Frequency wild alternators:
a. Are often connected in parallel
b. Can be connected in either series or parallel
c. Are never paralleled unless an absolute emergency at risk of damaging other equipment

Answer 360

C

Question 361

The normal frequency range of a frequency wild generator (ACW) is between:
a. 0 and 600 HZ
b. 200 and 700 HZ
c. 350 and 500 HZ

Answer 361

C

Question 362

An AC generator driven by a constant speed drive unit:
a. Does not need a voltage controller since the constant speed drive will ensure constant voltage
b. Does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot load under load
c. Requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load

Answer 362

C

Question 363

Frequency, in a constant power generation system, depends upon the:
a. Speed of the engine
b. Electrical load on the generator
c. Speed of the generator drive

Answer 363

C

Question 364

An APU generator is driven
a. By its own dedicated gas turbine
b. By the APU gearbox
c. A ram air turbine

Answer 364

B

Question 365

POWER FACTOR is define as:
a. The sum of true and reactive power
b. The ratio between true power and apparent power
c. The ratio between inductive and capacitive power reactance

Answer 365

B

Question 366

A static inverter is a:
a. Solid state device which converts DC to AC
b. Rotary device which is fixed to the airframe and cannot be moved
c. DC motor turning an AC generator

Answer 366

A

Question 367

An auto-transformer:
a. Varies the turns ratio automatically to maintain a constant output voltage with varying input voltage
b. Has only one coil which is used as both primary and secondary
c. Will maintain a constant output frequency with a varying supply frequency

Answer 367

B

Question 368

Airframe buffet on a jet transport aircraft:
a. Is always as associated with a high angle of attack
b. Is always associated with high Mach number
c. May be caused by high Mach number, high angle of attack, or air flow disturbance by auxiliary controls

Answer 368

C

Question 369

As altitude increases, the indicated control speed airborne VMCA with the critical engine inoperative and the other engine(s) at maximum continuous thrust, will:
a. Increase as directional stability decreases
b. Decrease up to the altitude where the stall speed becomes the limiting factor
c. Remain constant

Answer 369

B

Question 370

The manoeuvre envelope of an aircraft:
a. Define the limits of load factor and speed within which the aircraft is to be flown
b. Define the gust response characteristics of the aircraft
c. States the aerobatic or other manoeuvres the aircraft is cleared to perform
d. Contains company policy on aircraft manoeuvring while carrying passengers

Answer 370

A

Question 371

The pilot of a large heavy aircraft on approach to land with an excessively aft CG will experience:
a. Heavy elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
b. Heavy elevator controls and increased pitch stability
c. Light elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
d. Light elevator controls and increased pitch stability

Answer 371

C

Question 372

Airflow behind a normal (vertical) shockwave compared to a head of the shock will have a decrease in:
a. Static pressure
b. Energy (total pressure)
c. Density
d. temperature

Answer 372

B

Question 373

An aircraft in level flight with a relatively forward centre of gravity, compared to a rear centre of gravity will have:
a. More induced drag
b. Less induced drag
c. Reduced longitudinal stability
d. More parasite drag

Answer 373

A

Question 374

Which of the following items are monitored by take off configuration warning system in a high capacity jet transport aircraft?
a. L/E flap position, undercarriage selector, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position, spoiler lever position and the park brake valve position
b. L/E flap position, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position, spoiler lever position and the cargo doors
c. L/E flap position, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position, spoiler lever position and the park brake valve position

Answer 374

C

Question 375

Subsonic flow through a divergent duct will experience
a. An increase in density, pressure and a decrease in velocity
b. Constant density, an increase in pressure and a decrease in velocity
c. Constant density, and a decrease in velocity and pressure
d. A decrease in density and pressure and increasing velocity

Answer 375

B

Question 376

An aircraft is flying with its CG at the forward limit. Compared with flying the aircraft at it’s aft limit, the induced drag is:
a. Greater
b. Lesser
c. The same
d. Depends on the GW

Answer 376

A

Question 377

In a Turbo Prop Engine, how does the pilot control engine power in the “Alpha Range”?
a. By CSU control
b. By varying the fuel flow
c. By increasing prop rpm
d. By varying the prop blade angle

Answer 377

B

Question 378

How would the nose attitude of an A/C on approach vary with both the L/E and the T/E flaps extended as compared with the only T/E extended?
a. It would be lower
b. It would be higher
c. It would be the same
d. An approach is not possible in this configuration

Answer 378

B

Question 379

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator?
a. To act as a pressure reservoir
b. To reduce peak pump demand
c. To smooth out system pressure variation
d. To act as a fluid reservoir

Answer 379

D

Question 380

Which of the following directly affects hydroplaning speed?
a. Tyre pressure
b. A/C weight
c. Runway surfaces
d. Tyre width
e. Tyre tread

Answer 380

A

Question 381

Which is the maximum altitude a Radio Altimiter will indicate?
a. 20,000 ft
b. 10,000 ft
c. 5,000 ft
d. 2,500 ft

Answer 381

D

Question 382

How are Specific Gravity and Calorific Value related?
a. Not related
b. As SG ↑, CV↓
c. As SG↓, CV↓

Answer 382

C

Question 383

The reflex camber in most supercritical wings is there to:
a. Allow an increase in MCRIT thus allowing a higher cruising speed with no real increase in drag
b. Decrease Mcdr by delaying the onset of shock waves and accelerating the flow at the trailing edge
c. Delay the chord wise drift of the boundary layer
d. Provide lift at the rear of the aerofoil and to assist in stabilising the flow at the trailing edge

Answer 383

A

Question 384

For multi-engine aircraft which have more than 1 battery, how would they be connected:
a. In parallel for greater voltage rating
b. In parallel for greater amp hour rating
c. In series for greater amp hour rating

Answer 384

B

Question 385

In a gas turbine engine, what is the advantage of air-spray fuel nozzles over other type fuel nozzles?
a. Achieve optimum flame propagation
b. Reduce carbon formation
c. To prevent vapour locks in the fuel manifold
d. To better utilise fuel pumps high pressure output

Answer 385

B

Question 386

Which of the following is specific air range?
a. Fuel flow divided by drag
b. Fuel flow divided by TAS
c. TAS divided by SFC
d. Distance to go divided by fuel unavailable

Answer 386

B

Question 387

Which of the following is SFC?
a. Fuel flow divided by thrust
b. Drag divided by fuel flow
c. TAS divided by thrust
d. Distance divided by drag

Answer 387

A

Question 388

Aerodynamic balancing:
a. Permits loads to be removed by trimming
b. Reduces the effort required to move the control
c. Is always concealed by fairings
d. Affects the aerodynamic force and distance from the centre of pressure

Answer 388

B

Question 389

Where is the fuel sensor transmitter located?
a. Before fuel control unit
b. After fuel control unit
c. Before high pressure pump
d. After high pressure pump

Answer 389

B

Question 390

Flashpoint is the temperature at which:
a. There is enough vapour to light momentarily
b. The mixture continues to burn when exposed to a flame
c. Flashing occurs when the fluid is under pressure
d. Chemical breakdown occurs and the mixture thickens

Answer 390

A

Question 391

What is the reason for pressuring a reservoir?
a. To ensure a constant supply of fluid to the pumps under all operating conditions
b. To ensure that sufficient pressure is present to operate services in the event of a pump failure
c. To prevent the fluid boiling when operating a high altitudes
d. To stop excessive movement of the fluid, particularly swirling, during attitude changes and in turbulence

Answer 391

A

Question 392

From the following answers, what is the purpose of an accumulator?
a. To provide electrical impulses to the solenoid operated hydraulic valves
b. To hold a reserve of hydraulic pressure
c. To gather excess fluid bypassed from the pumps during period of low demand
d. To hold a reserve of hydraulic fluid

Answer 392

B

Question 393

What factors will affect the determination of a PCN?
a. Wheel configuration and tyre pressure
b. A combination of weight and the number of bogies
c. An assessment considering ACN
d. The load bearing qualities of the pavement

Answer 393

D

Question 394

An A/C with a normal undercarriage is about to land with the gear down. How could you tell that it has been extended by the alternate system?
a. The gear well doors would still be open
b. The landing gear warning lights would be on approach
c. The A/C would be making a flapless approach
d. There would be a continuous warning horn sounding

Answer 394

A

Question 395

Why is it that in a typical aircraft, the anti-skid system must be serviceable for the auto-brake
system to operate?
a. Because the auto-brake system operates through the anti-skid valves
b. Because the auto-brake receives inputs from wheel transducers
c. Because both the auto-brake and the anti-skid are operated for take-offs and landings

Answer 395

A

Question 396

What is the maximum acceptable cabin altitude for a passenger aircraft operation?
a. 10,000 ft
b. 5,000 ft
c. Sea level
d. 8,000 ft

Answer 396

D

Question 397

How much overpressure must an aircraft be able to withstand?
a. 2 x max differential
b. 2 psi
c. 1.33 x max differential
d. 1.33 psi

Answer 397

C

Question 398

Maintaining a selected pressure differential or rate of climb/descent is achieved by regulating:
a. Bleed air entering the cabin
b. Cabin air at the outflow valve
c. Air pressure with engine speed
d. The cabin dump valve

Answer 398

B

Question 399

In the isobaric range, the pressurisation controller maintains the cabin at a:
a. Constant cabin altitude
b. Constant rate of climb
c. Constant pressure differential
d. Maximum pressure differential

Answer 399

A

Question 400

What is the purpose of the dump switch?
a. To jettison fuel in the event of a pressurisation emergency
b. To divert excess pressure back to the bleed air gallery
c. To drive the outflow valve to the fully open position
d. To manually regulate the cabin pressure differential

Answer 400

C

Question 401

Electrical systems are used for heating pitot and static probes and ports. What kind of electrical redundancy feature is normally found in such system?
a. They have a dual supply
b. They are powered directly from the battery
c. They have dual heating elements
d. They are powered from the emergency electrical buses

Answer 401

D

Question 402

What is the function of a suppressor?
a. It smooths out voltage fluctuations
b. It screens out interference
c. It suppresses any tendency for reverse current flow
d. It protects the generator from becoming a motor

Answer 402

B

Question 403

In a torque synchro of an auto pilot system, current will flow between the transmitter and receiver stators when the rotors are:
a. In alignment
b. At zero potential
c. Out of alignment
d. At maximum potential

Answer 403

C

Question 404

During the conduct of a CAT 3 ILS, the “LAND 2” light illuminates. This indicates:
a. Fail operational; there will be significant deviation from the flight path
b. Fail operational; there will be no significant deviation from the flight path
c. Fail passive; there will be a significant deviation from the flight path
d. Fail passive; there will be no significant deviation from the flight path

Answer 404

D

Question 405

What jet pipe temperature probe would be found in a turbo prop as opposed to a turbo fan?
a. Stagnation probe
b. Rapid response probe
c. Slow temperature rise probe
d. Surface contact thermocouple

Answer 405

B

Question 406

One purpose of a comparator system is:
a. Isolate a system where there is a discrepancy
b. Compare the selected track with the required track
c. Indicate when the altimeter reading differ by more than 100 ft
d. Compare referenced information with displayed information

Answer 406

D

Question 407

A power failure to a CRT will be indicated by:
a. A blank screen
b. An FD flag
c. No symbols displayed
d. The screen colour becoming monochrome

Answer 407

A

Question 408

In relation to FMS, a “blended position” is the result of a comparison of output from the primary navigation reference with:
a. Outputs from FDS
b. Outputs from the other navigation sensors
c. Outputs from the EFIS
d. Outputs from the CDU

Answer 408

B

Question 409

What is the purpose of a transformer?
a. To change AC to DC
b. To change DC to AC
c. To change from on AC voltage to another AC voltage
d. To change a starter to a generator after start

Answer 409

C

Question 410

As viewed from behind, the propellers of a conventional twin turbo-prop run clockwise. Which engine is the critical engine?
a. The left engine
b. Depends upon the angle of attack
c. Neither, as both can induce adverse effects
d. The right engine

Answer 410

A

Question 411

What would be the full hydroplaning speed of a 130 tonne aircraft with tyre pressures of 145psi?
a. 154 kt
b. 108 kt
c. 93 kt
d. 84 kt

Answer 411

B

Question 412

The purpose of the flux valve in a gyro-stabilised heading reference system is to:
a. Align the A/C’s heading in relation to true north via a synchro system
b. Transmit an AC current to the signal transmission system
c. Sense the A/C’s heading relative to the earth’s magnetic field
d. Amplify the signal from the transmitter rotor to position the heading pointer

Answer 412

C

Question 413

Which of the following should be decreased as weight decreases to maintain an optimum best range configuration at a constant altitude?
a. Altitude
b. Angle of attack
c. Engine rpm
d. Speed

Answer 413

D

Question 414

What is the reason for the fuel heater in an engine fuel system?
a. To ensure that the fuel is free of ice crystals
b. To increase the thermal energy of the fuel
c. To ensure that the FCU is operating above freezing level
d. To avoid operation of the filter bypass valve

Answer 414

A

Question 415

When are cascade thrust reversers most effective?
a. At high speed
b. At any speed
c. At low speed

Answer 415

A

Question 416

Of the total airflow through a gas turbine engine approximately what percentage is used in combustion?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 30%
d. 50%
e. 75%

Answer 416

C

Question 417

What is the main advantage of a supercritical wing form?
a. It improves directional stability at supersonic speeds
b. It increases MCDR by delaying the formation of shock waves and thus increasing MCRIT
c. It reduces the tendency for the boundary layer to drift
d. It stabilises the flow around the leading edge

Answer 417

B

Question 418

In fail operation auto-land system:
a. A failure of one autopilot renders the complete system inoperative
b. A failure of two autopilots can be tolerated before the system completely fails
c. A failure of one autopilot causes the system to revert to fail passive

Answer 418

C

Question 419

With regard to the temperature of the gas flow in the turbine section:
a. ITT is the temperature at turbine entry
b. TIT is the temperature between the turbines
c. EGT is the temperature at turbine exit
d. TGT is the temperature at the nozzle guide vanes

Answer 419

C

Question 420

Most landing gear systems in transport a/c have uplocks which are normally released by a hydraulic actuator to permit gear extension. How then is the gear extended in the event of a total hydraulic system failure?
a. By an electrical motor or cables which trip the locking mechanism for each gear
b. By the emergency hydraulic hand-pump
c. By compressed air bottles
d. By exceeding the up-lock break limit (normally about 2g)

Answer 420

A

Question 421

With respect to GPWS, which of the following statements is correct?
a. “TERRAIN, TERRAIN, TERRAIN” is an example of a hard warning
b. Windshear warnings take priority over all other modes
c. A “PULL UP” call will occur if the a/c sinks more than 1.3 dots below glidepath
d. The gear/flap isolation switch renders the excessive terrain closure mode inoperative

Answer 421

B

Question 422

In relation to autopilots, what is meant by the term, ‘coupling’?
a. It means having two autopilots operating in parallel, e.g. during an instrument approach
b. It means that the autopilot is connected to one or more specific sensors to maintain specific parameters
c. It means that the autopilot is operating in two modes at the same time

Answer 422

B

Question 423

Electrical signals from the autopilot signal processor commands the flight control system to move as needed. What stops the controls from moving to full deflection?
a. Mechanical stops limit flight control movement
b. A feedback element produces an opposing signal
c. The control surfaces are balanced by aerodynamic force
d. Hydraulic pressure is gradually reduced to zero in the servos

Answer 423

B

Question 424

Performance feedback is essential for a fully integrated autopilot system to function properly. Which of the following sensors provide navigation track performance feedback?
a. Flight Management System
b. Air data computer
c. Gyro compass and inertial heading reference
d. Encoding altimeter

Answer 424

C

Question 425

An aileron lockout warning occurs as the aeroplane slows to approach speed. In this situation, the pilot should anticipate:
a. Reduced roll rate and potential to over control
b. Reduced roll rate and reduced aileron effectiveness
c. Increased roll rate and difficulty controlling in roll
d. Increased roll rate and more conservative cross wind limitation

Answer 425

B

Question 426

What is the advantage in the use of a free power turbine in a turbo-prop engine?
a. Provides torque mechanically independent of other turbine-compressor shafts
b. Provides drive to the propeller and eliminates the mechanical drag of the reduction gear box
c. To provide the required power with less turbine stages
d. To achieve the instantaneous response of reciprocating engines

Answer 426

A

Question 427

What occurs if the flight level change button is depressed?
a. The aircraft will climb or descend to the altitude set in the window
b. It will do nothing if the auto throttle is switched off
c. It will do nothing if the auto pilot is switched off
d. It will do nothing if the F/D is switched off

Answer 427

A

Question 428

Why should pneumatic de-icing systems not be used as anti-icers?
a. They cause an unacceptable loss in aircraft performance
b. Continuous operation stretches the boots and leads to their early replacement
c. The constant drain on bleed air can lead to pressurisation problems
d. Ice tends to build up over inflated boots rendering them ineffective

Answer 428

D

Question 429

Indications of compressor surge are:
a. Flameout
b. EGT ↑, thrust ↑
c. EGT ↓, thrust ↓
d. EGT ↑, thrust ↓

Answer 429

D

Question 430

The FMC navigation database is updated every?
a. Day
b. Week
c. Month
d. 30 days
e. 28 days

Answer 430

E

Question 431

At any given time the FMC contains how many sets of navigation database(s)?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three

Answer 431

B

Question 432

The B767 has onboard how many FMC(s)?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three

Answer 432

B

Question 433

Should an FMC failure occur, the flight crew will be alerted by?
a. The EADI and EHSI screens going blank
b. The master warning caption illuminating plus a bell aural
c. The master warning caption illuminating plus a voiced aural of “FMC FAIL”
d. The upper EICAS message of “FMC FAIL” and the CDU FAIL light illuminating

Answer 433

D

Question 434

Which one statement below is most correct regarding the seniority given to the FMC’s?
a. The Left FMC (Capt side) is always the master
b. The Right FMC (F.O’s side) is always the slave
c. The left FMC is normally the master, except when it detects a fault within itself. Then the Right FMC becomes the master and the Left the slave

Answer 434

C

Question 435

Which one statement is most correct regarding the failure of the Right FMC?
a. The FO can still display a different EHSI range scale to that of the Captains EHSI
b. The FO’s FMC failure means that his EADI/EHSI screens will become blank, and he will have to scan the standby (conventional) ADI and RMI for attitude and nav guidance information
c. The FO will need to push the alternate FMC button to restore EHSI and EADI displays and accept whatever EHSI range scale and mode the Captain has set on his EHSI
d. The Left FMC will automatically restore information inputs to the Right EADI/EHSI screens, and the FO may select whatever range scale and mode he wishes on his EHSI independently of that displayed on the Captains screen

Answer 435

C

Question 436

Failure of one FMC severely limits functions.
a. True
b. False

Answer 436

B

Question 437

Both CDU’s can input information to the FMC. Which one statement below is most correct?
a. The left CDU is the master and the right the slave
b. Both CDU’s input information to both FMC’s with equal seniority
c. CDU seniority is selectable by alternate pushes of the Captains side FMC button

Answer 437

B

Question 438

Which one statement is most correct regarding the navigation type approval for an aircraft fitted with 2 operational FMC’s and 2 operational CDU’s in association with 2 operational IRS/INS systems?
a. It has approval only to operate in areas where continuous radio updating is available.
b. It has “sole means” approval, being permitted to operate in areas without any radio updates

Answer 438

B

Question 439

With regard to IRS/LOC automatic position updating, which one statement is most correct?
a. The aircrafts height above the localiser station is not a limiting factor
b. Auto updating of the IRS occurs when the aircraft is within 12 nm front course and 20 nm back course of the localiser system
c. The aircrafts heading does NOT limit this type of updating
d. The aircrafts position must be within 25 degrees of the front and back course for auto updates to occur

Answer 439

D

Question 440

Which one statement listed below is most correct regarding a B767 which is operating outside its FMC navigation database?
a. There are no operational differences to operating within the FMC database
b. Airports and navaids not in the route can still be displayed on the EHSI as usual
c. VOR/DME updating to the IRS is not affected
d. The departure and destination airport runways cannot be displayed, and all waypoints must be manually entered by the crew by latitude and longitude

Answer 440

D

Question 441

What is the maximum bank angle when the FMC is flying the aircraft within a holding pattern?
a. 10 degrees
b. 15 degrees
c. 20 degrees
d. 25 degrees
e. 30 degrees

Answer 441

E

Question 442

The FMC uses what wind to fly the holding pattern?
a. The ICAO wind
b. The actual current wind

Answer 442

B

Question 443

Once stabilised in a holding pattern, the aircraft will not depart the ICAO protected airspace as long as the FMC flies the aircraft in LNAV.
a. True
b. False

Answer 443

B

Question 444

If the LNAV’s track is outside the aircraft’s turning radius when the LNAV switch is pushed and the present heading is not going to affect a capture of the LNAV track, a CDU message of “Not on intercept heading” will appear.
a. True
b. False

Answer 444

A

Question 445

FMC waypoint sequencing occurs even when the FMC is flying a “vectors leg” as part of a SID.
a. True
b. False

Answer 445

B

Question 446

Which one of the statements listed below correctly describes the number of characters contained in ICAO reference codes for enroute waypoints which are not situated at navaids?
a. 2 letters
b. 2 letters plus 2 numbers
c. 3 letters
d. 4 letters
e. 5 letters

Answer 446

E

Question 447

The aircraft is on climb in VNAV and the aircraft will not reach the minimum altitude associated with the SID at the next waypoint at the current gradient of climb. Which one statement is most correct?
a. The crew must accept that the aircraft will not reach the altitude restriction and advise ATC accordingly.
b. The aircraft’s autopilot will pitch up at the expense of forward airspeed to ensure the SID altitude is conformed with
c. The crew will be advised of the situation through an EICAS annunciator of “FMC message” along with the CDU message light illuminating, and the CDU scratchpad annunciation of “Unable next alt”

Answer 447

C

Question 448

The aircraft is on climb approaching 6000 ft in VNAV. The MCP altitude window is set to 9000 ft. FMC flight planned cruise altitude is FL310. Which one statement listed below correctly describes the aircraft’s future actions?
a. It will capture and maintain 6000 ft
b. It will capture and maintain 9000 ft
c. It will disregard the value set in the MCP altitude window and continue to climb to FL310

Answer 448

B

Question 449

VNAV engagement is inhibited after takeoff until the aircraft reaches a minimum of?
a. 400 ft amsl
b. 400 ft radio altitude
c. 1000 ft agl
d. 50 ft agl

Answer 449

B

Question 450

A B767 aircraft is on climb to FL330 in VNAV. The MCP alt window is set to 35000 ft. Which one statement listed below is corrected about the aircraft future actions in the climb?
a. The aircraft will capture FL330
b. The aircraft will capture FL 350
c. An EICAS message of “FMC” message will appear, and the CDU scratchpad will display the message “altitude discrepancy”. Additionally, the CDU message light will illuminate

Answer 450

A

Question 451

The B767 is climbing in VNAV. The crew have selected 15000 ft on the MCP altitude window. The auto-throttle is engaged. FMC route flight planned altitude is FL350. The centre A/P is in command. Which statement below is correct?
a. The aircraft will disregard the MCP value of 15000 t and continue on to capture FL350
b. All three A/P’s will engage when FL350 is captured
c. The aircraft will capture FL150, with the EADI annunciations changing from “VNAV PATH” to “ALT HOLD” and N1 changing to “SPD”. The altitude hold light will illuminate also
d. On reaching and capturing FL150, the “Unable next alt” message will appear on the CDU

Answer 451

C

Question 452

The aircraft has been held for some time at FL170 by ATC due to conflicting traffic. Upon further climb clearance being received, which EADI annunciations will appear as the aircraft is released by the crew to climb in VNAV to its FMC VNAV cruise altitude of FL370?
a. ‘VNAV ALT/VNAV SPD/THRUST HOLD’
b. ‘VNAV PATH/VNAV SPD/THRUST HOLD’
c. ‘VNAV ALT/N1’
d. ‘SPD/N1’
e. ‘VNAV SPD/N1’

Answer 452

E

Question 453

The aircraft is being flown in VNAV approaching 5000 ft. The SID being flown has an altitude restriction “Not above 5000 ft until reaching waypoint TIPSI” which is presently 5 nm in front of the aircraft. The MCP altitude value is 35000 ft. There are no other altitude constraints associated with the SID. Which statement best describes the way the FMC will manage the situation?
a. It will level the aircraft at 5000 ft and remain at 5000 ft until released from it by the crew pressing the FLC switch. Thereafter it will climb to FL350
b. It will pass 5000 ft and allow the aircraft to continue climbing to FL350 unless the crew select 5000 ft on the A/P MCP altitude window
c. It will level off at 5000 ft until reaching waypoint “TIPSI”. Thereafter it will automatically re-enter the climb to capture

Answer 453

C

Question 454

The aircraft is climbing in VNAV and conforming to a SID, which has only a maximum speed constraint of 210 KIAS below 10,000 ft. In order to accelerate to economy climb speed after passing 10,000 ft?
a. The auto-throttle will increase thrust to TOGA value
b. The auto-throttle will increase thrust to maximum continuous value and a “-‘THRUST HOLD’ annunciation will appear on the EADI screen
c. The AFDS will lower the aircrafts pitch attitude and thrust will remain at climb value as before

Answer 454

C

Question 455

If the aircraft is cruising in VNAV and LNAV, and the auto-throttle is engaged, other than LNAV and CMD, what EADI annunciations would you expect to see?
a. N1/VNAV SPD
b. THRUST HOLD/NVAV SPD
c. SPD/VNAV SPD
d. SPD/VNAV PATH
e. SPD/ALT HOLD

Answer 455

D

Question 456

The aircraft is cruising at FL310 in VNAV with the auto-throttle and autopilot engaged approaching the FMC predicted Top of Descent point. The MCP altitude window value is 35,000 ft. What will happen as the aircraft reaches Top D?
a. The aircraft will enter the descent as commanded by the FMC
b. The aircraft will continue to cruise at FL310 and VNAV will disengage
c. The aircraft will step climb to FL350

Answer 456

B

Question 457

The aircraft has begun a descent from FL330 in VNAV and the A/T has reduced thrust to flight idle. The MCP altitude window is set to 12,000 ft and the FMC target altitude is 1500 ft. Assuming no action is taken the by the flight crew, which statement best represents the way the FMC will manage the descent?
a. The aircraft will capture 12,000 ft, and the A/T will increase thrust to maintain the speed that was being held in the descent
b. The FMC will disregard the MCP altitude window value, and continue descent to 1,500 ft
c. The crew will be alerted through the upper EICAS annunciation of “FMC message”. The CDU message light will illuminate and the CDU scratchpad message of “Unable next alt” will appear

Answer 457

A

Question 458

During normal VNAV descent, the normal FMC flight planned target speed for reaching the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is?
a. 150 KIAS
b. 170 KTAS
c. 170 KIAS
d. 210 KIAS
e. The value set by the pilot in the MCP speed window

Answer 458

C

Question 459

The aircraft is on descent in VNAV with the auto-throttle engaged and the thrust at flight idle. Due to windshear, the aircraft drifts above the optimum descent profile. Which one statement best describes the FMC’s actions?
a. The FMC will reduce thrust below flight idle and hold the FMC descent speed
b. The FMC will increase thrust and hold the FMC descent speed
c. The FMC will warn the pilots of the situation through an upper EICAS annunciation of ‘FMC message’ in association with the CDU message light illuminating, and the CDU scratchpad message of ‘DRAG REQUIRED’. FMC descent speed will NOT be exceeded
d. The FMC will warn the pilots of the situation through an upper EICAS annunciation of ‘FMC message’ in association with the CDU message light illuminated, and the CDU scratchpad message of ‘DRAG REQUIRED’. FMC descent speed WILL be exceeded

Answer 459

C

Question 460

The aircraft is being guided toward the runway 24 ILS front beam by the pilot using the heading selector knob to conform with radar vectors from ATC. The left A/P is engaged. Which statement is correct?
a. The aircraft will capture the localiser despite “Approach” mode not being selected ON by the pilot
b. The aircraft will pass through the localiser centreline if the pilot does not push the ‘Approach’ mode button on the aircraft MCP

Answer 460

B

Question 461

The pilot is manually flying the aircraft, maintaining FL310. The MCP altitude window value is FL310. Which statement below is the most correct if the pilot deviates from FL310 without resetting the MCP altitude window value accordingly?
a. If the aircraft descends, the voiced aural message of “Altitude” will sound in the cockpit
b. If the aircraft climbs 31,300 ft or more the altitude light will extinguish. If the aircraft continued to climb to 31,900 ft, the altitude light would illuminate. No EICAS messages would have appeared
c. If the aircraft descended to 30,700 ft the altitude light and the master caution would illuminate. Also the EICAS message of “Altitude Alert” would appear, along with a caution aural in the cockpit. Descending further to 30,100 ft, the EICAS message would disappear, the master caution and altitude lights would extinguish, and no aurals will occur

Answer 461

C

Question 462

The aircraft has to be guided around a storm, by the pilot using the heading selector knob on the MCP. Once past the storm the aircraft on a heading of 030M, the pilot pushes the LNAV button to return the original LNAV of 360M track. Which statement is most correct?
a. If the LNAV track is displaced beyond the aircrafts turn radius, the aircraft cannot capture the LNAV track and a CDU message of “Not on intercept heading” will appear
b. If the LNAV track is within the turning radius of the aircraft, it cannot capture the LNAV track

Answer 462

A

Question 463

Fail Passive’ is an approach mode associated with the use of?
a. One autopilot
b. Two autopilots
c. Three autopilots

Answer 463

B

Question 464

Refer to the accompanying diagram when answering this question. Which answer is most correct?

SPD (green) VNAV PATH (green) LNAV (green) CMD (green)
GS (white) LOC (white)

a. The armed modes appear in green lettering below the white active modes
b. The pilot is currently using the header selector knob to capture the localiser
c. The armed mode is localiser and the aircraft is conducting a localiser only approach (i.e. no glide-slope guidance)
d. The aircraft is following LNAV and VNAV FMC tracks toward the localiser for an ILS approach

Answer 464

D

Question 465

Refer to accompanying diagram when answering this question. Which answer is most correct?

SPD (green) GS (green) LOC (green) CMD (green)
FLAIR (white) ROLLOUT (white)

a. The aircraft has not yet captured the glide-slope
b. The aircraft active pitch mode is Localiser
c. The aircraft is making a Localiser only approach
d. ‘Flare’ will replace the active G/S annunciation when the aircraft reaches 45 ft, and will be displayed in green

Answer 465

D

Question 466

One autopilot engaged is sufficient to legally allow you to fly a Cat 1 on ILS.
a. True
b. False

Answer 466

A

Question 467

On a multi-autopilot ILS approach, the second, and or second and third A/P only engage when the aircraft reaches, 1500 ft radio altitude.
a. True
b. False

Answer 467

A

Question 468

Roll out mode becomes armed:
a. When the second autopilot switch is pushed
b. When the localiser is captured
c. When the glide-slope is captured
d. When the aircraft passes 1500 ft radio altitude

Answer 468

D

Question 469

Runway align sub-mode becomes operative at:
a. 500 ft radio altitude and reduces the crab angle due to crosswind
b. Localiser capture and allows the pilot to control the rudder during the last 500 ft of the
approach

Answer 469

A

Question 470

Go-Around mode is armed whenever:
a. An autopilot is engaged
b. A minimum of two autopilots are engaged
c. The landing gear is down
d. The glide-slope is captured, irrespective of whether the flaps are up or down

Answer 470

D

Question 471

To initiate a go-around from an approach you:
a. Disconnect the autopilots by pressing the yoke mounted A/P button
b. Press either of the throttle mounted Go-Around switches
c. Press either of the throttle mounted auto-throttle switches and disconnect the last two engaged autopilots

Answer 471

B

Question 472

Refer to the EADI display to answer this question. The indications are of a successful Go- Around mode engagement.

GA (green) GA (green) GA (green) CMD (green)

a. True
b. False

Answer 472

A

Question 473

What is ‘alpha floor’?
a. It is a minimum angle of attack needed to obtain a positive rate of climb in windshear conditions
b. It is the maximum forward speed with the flaps UP
c. It is another name for the FMC target altitude for bottom of descent
d. It is the maximum permitted angle of attack for the aircraft type

Answer 473

D

Question 474

You are on approach, and at 155 KIAS you select flaps 30 for landing. Subsequently you inadvertently allow the airspeed to pick up to 170 KIAS. You could expect?
a. A ‘Speed Limit’ EADI annunciation
b. An ‘Alpha Floor’ EADI annunciation
c. A ‘Flap Limit’ EADI annunciation
d. A ‘Flap Limit’ and ‘Speed Limit’ annunciation

Answer 474

C

Question 475

Where could you find the current in-flight TAS?
a. On the CDU ‘LEGS’ page
b. On the CDU ‘PROGRESS page 2’
c. On the EHSI
d. On the EADI

Answer 475

B

Question 476

Setting the EICAS computer to “Auto” means that one computer inputs into the EICAS screen at one time, and the other takes over automatically should the first fail.
a. True
b. False

Answer 476

A

Question 477

The EICAS computers work entirely separately of each other and don’t compare information with each other.
a. True
b. False

Answer 477

B

Question 478

Blanking of one EICAS screen means that:
a. The left EICAS computer has failed
b. The right EICAS computer has failed
c. The left and right EICAS computers have both failed
d. That EICAS screen has either over-temp’d or suffered a power failure

Answer 478

D

Question 479

Events records:
a. Are all input manually
b. Are all input automatically
c. Can be recorded automatically, or manually by the crew

Answer 479

C

Question 480

Only the last manually recorded message is retained in non-volatile memory.
a. True
b. False

Answer 480

A

Question 481

The status page is on the lower EICAS CRT and records status messages in:
a. Alphabetical order
b. Alphanumerical order
c. Order of occurrence

Answer 481

C

Question 482

The aircraft has been parked overnight, and leaves the departure gate at 7:00 am. It is 3 km to the threshold of the duty runway. Assuming no braking is used during taxiing, the brake temperatures at line up:
a. Will be lower than at start of taxi
b. Will be higher than at start of taxi
c. Will be the same as at start of taxi

Answer 482

B

Question 483

Which statement is most correct regarding crew alert messages?
a. Over-speed and altitude alerts are both cautions and are colour coded amber
b. Warnings are colour coded red, cautions and advisories are amber
c. Warnings, cautions and advisories all have associated aural warnings
d. Engine fire, and antiskid malfunctions are both displayed in amber

Answer 483

B

Question 484

All crew alert messages can be removed from the EICAS screen despite the malfunction remaining uncorrected.
a. True
b. False

Answer 484

B

Question 485

Failure of the upper CRT means that the crew will need to manually select the “Compact Display” to display all primary and secondary engine data.
a. True
b. False

Answer 485

B

Question 486

The thrust reversers are in transit, the display of ‘REV’ would be displayed in:
a. Amber
b. Green
c. Red

Answer 486

A

Question 487

The EADI ‘Skypointer’:
a. Points to true vertical and is always displayed at a right angle to the aircraft symbol
b. Points to true vertical and shows turn direction required to roll wings level

Answer 487

B

Question 488

Regarding the Localiser/Glideslope deviation scales, which answer is most correct?
a. When within range of an ILS beacon and the LOC and G/S scales appear and LOC and G/S deviation appears despite the pilots not having tuned an ILS frequency
b. ILS LOC scale only appears at localiser capture
c. ILS glideslope scale only appears after localiser capture
d. ILS localiser and glideslope scales are only displayed when an ILS frequency is tuned and valid signals are being received

Answer 488

D

Question 489

A B767 aircraft is flying a 12 nm left hand arc for an ILS approach to RWY 22. Runway 22 magnetic alignment is 225 degrees. The aircraft nears the Localiser capture point on a heading of 330 magnetic. At this point, will the ILS glideslope pointer be displayed on the EADI?
a. Yes
b. No

Answer 489

B

Question 490

The fast/slow speed deviation maximum deflection is?
a. +/- 10kt
b. +/- 20kt
c. +/- 15kt
d. +/- 5kt

Answer 490

A

Question 491

Which one of the statements below correctly describes EADI rad alt indications?
a. Rad alt is displayed whenever the aircraft is within 3,000 ft of the ground
b. At “Decision Height” the displayed rad alt value changes colour from amber to magenta
c. Negative “Decision Height” values can be displayed
d. Descending through “Decision Height” causes the rad alt display to change colour from white to amber, and flash momentarily

Answer 491

D

Question 492

The airspeed tape ‘Trend Vector’ arrow tip shows:
a. During acceleration only and predicts the airspeed value in 5 seconds time based on present speed and acceleration
b. Acceleration and deceleration, and displays difference between present airspeed and next flap retraction minimum airspeed
c. Acceleration and deceleration, and predicts the airspeed in 10 seconds time based on the present airspeed and acceleration/deceleration

Answer 492

C

Question 493

You have programmed a 10 nm left ‘offset LNAV PATH’, and have ‘executed’ it. The original path would appear on the EHSI screen as?
a. Magenta solid line
b. Magenta line of dots and dashes
c. White solid line
d. White line of dots and dashes

Answer 493

A

Question 494

Both your EFIS screens show odd colour presentations, through the FO’s appears normal. You suspect:
a. An IRS input failure
b. That your EFIS SG has developed a problem
c. That both screens have developed a colour presentation failure problem within themselves
d. That both screens have failed concurrently

Answer 494

B

Question 495

The airspeed tape inputs come from?
a. The respective Central Air Data Computers (CADCs)
b. The IRS
c. The DME receivers

Answer 495

A

Question 496

An EADI message of ‘ATT’ appears. This means that:
a. The aircraft has reached its maximum certificated angle of attack
b. The auto-throttle has failed
c. The selected IRS system attitude data has failed

Answer 496

C

Question 497

The EADI message of “SPD” appears on an aircraft fitted with a speed tape display. This means that:
a. The airspeed information from the selected IRS unit has failed
b. The groundspeed information from the selected IRS unit has failed
c. The groundspeed information from the selected DME receiver has failed
d. The speed tape display is inoperative

Answer 497

D

Question 498

Which one answer listed below best represents the EHSI modes in which the compass arc orientation can be ‘Track Up’?
a. MAP and PLAN modes
b. Expanded ILS and expanded VOR modes only
c. Full and expanded ILS modes only
d. All EHSI modes
e. PLAN mode only

Answer 498

A

Question 499

Distance to active waypoint and ETA at that waypoint are displayed in all modes.
a. True
b. False

Answer 499

B

Question 500

Airports are displayed as:
a. White circles
b. Green triangles
c. Blue hexagons
d. Blue circles

Answer 500

D