UNSW 1 Flashcards by Ben Griffin

Highest temp in a gas turbine engine is:
a. In the primary (front) part of the combustion chamber
b. In the dilution area of the combustion chamber
c. At the first stage turbine nozzle guide vane
d. At the jet propelling nozzle

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The HOT battery bus is powered:
a. Only by the aircraft battery
b. When any battery is connected to the aircraft
c. By the ground service supply

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Which is NOT an element of anti-skid?
a. Tire lockup
b. Landing protection
c. Takeoff protection
d. Pneumatic reserve braking

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Compared to a turbojet (pure jet) of the same thrust output, the high-pressure turbine of a turbo- fan would be:
a. Larger due to the reduced mass airflow
b. Larger due to the increased mass airflow
c. Smaller due to the increased mass airflow
d. Smaller due to the reduced mass airflow

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Which one is NOT an air data computer output?
a. Vertical speed
b. Altitude
c. Indicated airspeed
d. Pitch attitude

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The nose wheel steering follow-up does what?
a. Applies the brakes during the retraction cycle
b. De-pressurises the landing gear extension/retraction hydraulic lines once the up-lock is in
place
c. Commands the steering valve to select the nose-wheel in neutral during gear retraction

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With respect to a shockwave on a conventional wing section, which answer best describes the characteristics of the airflow ahead and behind the ‘normal’ shockwave?
a. Sub-sonic ahead of shock, supersonic behind, with change of airflow direction
b. Supersonic ahead and behind the shockwave, with no change in airflow direction
c. Super-sonic ahead of the shockwave, sub-sonic behind, with no change in airflow direction

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Throttle is set during a climb in a turbo jet aircraft. Which element is maintained as the aircraft climbs?
a. EPR
b. Fan speed (N1)
c. EGT

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Vortex generators on a horizontal stabilizer primarily does what?
a. To reduce turbulent flow separation, and preserve elevator authority at all flight speeds.
b. To enhance stability around the normal axis
c. To reduce shock induced flow separation effecting the rudder authority
d. Reduce induced drag

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Which answer best describes the effect of dissolved water in Avtur fuel?
a. Reduces specific gravity, causes microbial infestations, and sludge
b. Increases SG, and causes corrosion
c. Decreases SG, and causes corrosion

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Tyres must be replaced when:
a. There is a bulge in the tread
b. It is cut to the tread limit
c. It has a flat spot

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Air conditioner load on an engine can be relieved by:
a. Increasing the amount of air that is bled by activating the anti-ice system on “high”
b. Decreasing the demanded engine RPM or EPR
c. Selecting the re-circulation fans on the air conditioner controller to on

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Body gear when fitted:
a. Is not steerable
b. Turns in the opposite direction to the nose gear to reduce tyre scuffing
c. Turns in the same direction as the nose gear to reduce tyre scuffing
d. Cannot be fitted with brakes

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Spiral instability is worst when?
a. Directional stability is high compared to lateral stability
b. Lateral stability is high compared to directional stability
c. Directional and lateral stability are equal

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Climbing at a constant CAS, you would expect Mach number and TAS to:
a. Both to increase
b. Both to decrease
c. Both remain unchanged
d. Mach number to rise, TAS to decrease
e. Mach number to decrease, TAS to increase

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Climbing at a constant speed just below VMO, you would expect:
a. The MMO value to eventually be exceeded
b. No exceedance of either VMO or MMO
c. The manoeuvre margin between high and low speed stall buffet to increase

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To reduce the VMCG speed you could:
a. Increase the take off thrust setting, and/or move the C of G forward
b. Decrease the take off thrust setting, and/or seat pax further aft
c. Increase the take off thrust setting, and/or move the C of G rearward
d. Decrease the take off thrust setting, and/or move the C of G forward

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A high-density altitude affects the VMCG speed in what way?
a. Increase it
b. Decrease it
c. Leave its value unchanged

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With the loss of the right engine, which statement is most correct?
a. With a bank toward the live engine, less rudder deflection will be needed, and the skid ball will be slightly displaced to the live engine side
b. With a bank toward the live engine, more rudder deflection will be needed, and the skid ball will be centred
c. With wings level, less rudder deflection is needed, and the skid ball will be slightly displaced to the live engine side

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In aircraft with two engines mounted in pods beneath the wing, and one tail mounted engine with its thrust line up high (e.g. DC10) failure of the left wing mounted engine would see:
a. A requirement for pitch up trim, a yaw to the right, left rudder trim required
b. A requirement for pitch up trim, a yaw to the left, right rudder trim required
c. A requirement for pitch down trim, a yaw to the left, right rudder trim required
d. A requirement for pitch down trim, a yaw to the right, right rudder trim required

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Regarding factors affecting VMCA, which statement is MOST correct?
a. High density altitude, dihedral, and skid induced blanketing of the live engine wing, reduce VMCA values
b. Low density altitude, anhedral, and a rearward C of G reduce VMCA values
c. Dihedral, banking toward a failed engine, and large tailfin, increase VMCA value

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Which statement is MOST correct about drag?
a. Induced drag is greatest at high airspeeds, just below MCRIT
b. Parasite drag is greatest at low airspeeds, just approaching the stall
c. Induced drag is highest at the angle of attack for maximum lift

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Compared to a conventional wing a laminar flow wing has its position of maximum camber:
a. Further forward
b. Further rearward
c. At the same point, only the thickness/chord ratio is different

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In comparing MCRIT and MCDR of a supercritical wing to a conventional cambered wing:
a. MCRIT is higher, and MCDR lower
b. MCRIT lower and MCDR higher
c. MCRIT and MCDR are both higher

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Which statement is MOST correct? a. Washout is used on swept wings. The angle of incidence is less at the root than at the tips, which in turn causes the roots to stall before the tips b. Fences and saw tooth leading edges are employed to reduce span-wise flow at low A of A c. Shark teeth or stall strips are fitted to the leading edges near the wing roots to stall first, and provide more stable static longitudinal stability at the stall

Shortly after takeoff, a swept wing aircraft encounters a downdraft. Best recovery technique would be to: a. Maintain airspeed, even if it means increasing vertical sink rate b. Lower aircraft nose to prevent stall, then zoom climb using high alpha c. Raise aircraft alpha to just less than stick-shaker speed

Which statement best describes the properties of slots and LE flaps? a. Slots increases the camber, and re-energise the boundary layer near the leading edge b. LE flaps increase the camber, and re-energise the boundary layer near the leading edge c. Slots alone re-energise the boundary layer, whereas LE flaps and extendable slats only increase the camber d. Slots and slats re-energise the boundary layer, slats and LE flaps increase the camber

Leading edge devices: a. Contribute most to lift values at high angles of attack b. Increase lift equally at all angles of attack c. Contribute most to lift values at low angles of attack

The leading edge devices fail to extend on approach, but trailing edges do extend normally. You would expect what changes to approach alpha angle, drag, selected approach speed, and cockpit cut-off angle, compared to an approach with all high lift devices deployed: a. Higher alpha, lower drag, lower approach speeds, reduced view ahead b. Lower alpha and drag, higher approach speeds, and improved view over the nose c. Lower alpha and approach speeds, and improved view over the nose

Which statement best describes properties a Zap flap? a. Increases camber, drag and wing area. Deployment requires nose-up trim change b. Increases camber and drag. Deployment requires nose-down trim changes c. Centre of lift moves aft, no change in wing area. Drag and camber increase

Spoiler panels are: a. Located at about mid chord. Deflecting the roll spoilers up on the right wing will see the left wing aileron deflect upward to initiate a roll to the right b. Located just ahead of the trailing edge flaps. Deflecting the roll spoilers up on the right wing will see the right wing aileron deflect upwards to initiate a roll to the right c. Located just ahead of the trailing edge flaps. Deflecting the roll spoilers up on the left wing will see the right wing aileron deflect upward to initiate a roll to the left

Shockwaves form: a. First over the lower wing surface at the point of maximum camber. The upper shockwave forms later, but reaches the trailing edge before the lower shockwave b. First over the upper wing at the point of maximum camber. The upper shockwave reaches the trailing edge first due to shockwave induced flow separation on the lower surface c. First over the upper wing surface where airflow reduces to below Mach 1. The lower shockwave forms later, but reaches the trailing edge before the upper shock

Which statement is most correct as speed increases beyond MCRIT? a. The centre of lift moves forward, lift increases, and the super-stall becomes likely due to the nose-up pitch moment b. The centre of lift moves aft, lift reduces, and nose-down pitch moment occurs (Mach tuck) c. The centre of lift moves forward, lift reduces, and the adverse couple with the fixed C of G causes the nose-down pitch moment

Which statement best represents the order of events as speed increases? a. MCRIT, MDET, MCDR, MFS speed of sound, Mach tuck b. MCRIT, MCDR, MDET, MFS speed of sound c. MCRIT, MCDR, speed of sound, MDET

Which answer best describes the airflow qualities behind a normal shockwave? a. Temp and velocity rise, pressure and Mach number decrease, density increase b. Temp and pressure rise, velocity and Mach number decreases, density increases c. Temp decrease, pressure and density increase, velocity and Mach number decrease

Airflow direction: a. Through a normal shockwave changes direction but does not do so through an oblique shock b. Through an oblique shockwave changes in direction but does not do so through a normal shock c. Changes direction through a normal shockwave and an oblique shockwave

For high-flying jet aircraft featuring swept wings: a. Low speed stall indicated airspeed is unchanged for all altitudes as the swept wing eliminates the compressibility factors at higher levels b. Low speed stall indicated airspeed increases cumulatively as altitude is gained c. High speed stall and low speed stall are the same value at the aircraft “service ceiling” d. High speed stall and low speed stall are the same value at the aircraft “certificated ceiling”

Aerodynamic ceiling’ for a given aircraft is: a. Higher with increased turbulence/greater bank angle b. Lower with increased turbulence/greater bank angle c. Unchanged by turbulence or bank angle

Increased apparent gross weight does what if anything to the speed margin between initial buffet speeds? a. Reduces it b. Increases it c. Has no effect

An aircraft is cruising at a very high altitude and experiences buffet. This is: a. Definitely high speed buffet b. Definitely low speed buffet c. Spoiler buffet d. High or low speed buffet

To ensure correct flow direction is maintained in a hydraulic system you would fit a: a. Pressure reduction valve b. Pressure maintaining valve c. Check valve d. Shuttle valve

Which answer is most correct? a. Pneumatic air is re-cycled b. Pneumatics carry with it a relatively high risk compared to hydraulics c. Pneumatic system is lighter than an equivalent hydraulic system d. An advantage of pneumatics over hydraulics is that pneumatics has a faster response time e. Prevention of leaks is more difficult to achieve in a hydraulic system

Shuttle valves move: a. Intermittently to regulate bleed air to match design system b. By manual selection, should the normal supply fail c. Automatically should normal system pressure fail

Which answer is incorrect? a. A start can be obtained by powering up the engine that is started and ‘Cross-feeding’ bleed air from that engine to another engine air driven starter b. Most air transport jet aircraft use electrical starter mechanisms c. An open start valve on an operating engine can damage the starter mechanism d. The closing of the high pressure bleed shut-off valve at high power settings will automatically open the low pressure valve

Ideal humidity for an aircraft cabin is: a. 30% b. 60% c. 100%

Humidity level possible in a high-flying aircraft cabin is about? a. 0% b. 100% c. 30%

Ideal temperature range for humans is: a. 28-30oC b. 15-20oC c. 18-24oC

Which statement is most correct? a. Bleed air source from the engine fan (N1 Low pressure Compressor) is used during low engine rpm and second stage compressor (N2) during high engine RPM b. Bleed air extraction during take off reduces take off and climb performance c. Bleed air can NOT be used for ground operations, only during flight

Which statement is NOT correct? a. Air cycle machine basic advantage is its lightweight. Disadvantage is poor ground cooling b. The lowest temperature achieved in air cycle machine is that expansion turbine outlet c. Pre-cooler cold air is supplied from the expansion turbine. This is called boot-strapping

To achieve a ‘fail operational’ autopilot coupled ILS approach in a B767-300ER: a. Three autopilots engage at 1500 ft above sea level b. Two autopilots engage at 3000 ft above sea level c. Three autopilots engage at 1500 ft radio altitude d. Three autopilots engage at the Top of Descent point

The primary purpose of a supercritical wing section is to: a. Decrease the critical drag rise number b. Provide greater lift at a given angle of attack c. Shorten the take off roll of an aircraft d. Prevent tip stalling on swept wing aircraft e. Increase the critical drag rise number

Coffin Corner is best described, as the situation where an aircraft is operating at such high altitude that the difference between high and low speed buffet is only a few knots. Which statement is correct? a. It is not effected by aircraft weight b. It is not effected by aircraft weight or G load factors c. It is effected by aircraft weight and load factors

Which answer best describes the purpose of the Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU)? a. It converts AC power to DC power and steps up the voltage b. It converts DC power to AC power and steps down the voltage c. It converts AC power to DC power and steps down the voltage d. It converts DC power to AC power and steps up the voltage

The term ‘Fail Passive’ of the autopilot system is used to describe: a. An autopilot system that comprises 3 autopilots and should one fail it will be isolated the other two continuing to fly the landing approach in a “Fail Passive” mode b. An autopilot system comprising 2 autopilots and should one fail it will be isolated and the remaining autopilot will automatically begin a missed approached procedure c. An autopilot system comprising 2 autopilots and should one fail both will be disconnected leaving the aircraft in a passive state of trim. The aircraft must then be flown manually.

Which description best describes Spiral Stability: a. Opposes oscillatory stability and gets better with increased altitude b. Works in conjunction with oscillatory stability and gets better with altitude c. Oppose oscillatory stability and gets worse with increased altitude

Which answer is most correct when describing the Diffuser in the exhaust section of a gas turbine engine: a. It is a convergent duct decreasing gas stream pressure and increasing gas stream velocity b. It is a divergent duct decreasing gas stream pressure and increasing gas stream velocity c. It is a convergent duct increasing gas stream pressure and decreasing gas stream velocity d. It is a divergent duct increasing gas stream pressure and decreasing gas stream velocity

The function of the positive pressure relief valves in the pressurisation system of a transport category aircraft is to: a. Limit cabin altitude to a value below or equal to the aircraft altitude b. Limit the cabin pressure to a value above the outside ambient pressure at all times c. Limit the maximum positive pressure differential d. Prevent ambient pressure being greater than cabin pressure upon landing

What is the purpose of the Shuttle Valve in the hydraulic system of a transport category aircraft? a. To allow hydraulic pressure from the alternate system to automatically pressurise the lines in the event of a failure of the normal system b. To vent excess hydraulic system pressure back to the reservoir during period of low demand c. To allow two separate hydraulic systems to simultaneously supply pressure to required services d. To allow for the correct operating sequence of components when extending or retracting landing gear

Which of the following components of a hydraulic system in a transport category aircraft acts as a surge suppressor: a. The reservoir b. The pressure relief valve c. The accumulator d. The check valve e. The pressure regulator

The highest temperature in a gas turbine engine is: a. At the jet propelling nozzle b. At the first stage turbine nozzle guide vanes c. In the dilution zone of the combustion chamber d. In the primary zone of the combustion chamber

In a pure turbojet, compared to a high by pass turbofan of the same thrust output, the rear (LP) turbine wheels are - a. smaller and rotate faster b. larger and rotate slower c. larger and rotate faster d. smaller and rotate slower

Regarding factors that effect VMCA which statement is most correct? a. High density altitude, dihedral, and skid induced blanketing of the live engine wing all reduce VMCA b. Low density altitude, anhedral and rearward CoG reduce Vmca values c. Dihedral, banking toward the failed engine and a large tail fin increase Vmca values

A method of reducing the engine air bleed load in an air cycle air conditioning system of a jet transport aircraft is to a. lower the cabin altitude b. lower the cabin temperature c. increase the vapour pressure d. recirculate the air

Which statement is most correct regarding crew alert messages: a. Over-speed and altitude alerts are both cautions and are colour coded amber b. Warnings are colour coded red, cautions and advisories are amber c. Warnings, cautions and advisories all have associated aural warnings d. Engine fire and antiskid malfunctions are both displayed in amber

Which of the answers listed below best represents the display of active waypoints and active routes? a. Active waypoints are displayed in white and tracks as dashed white lines b. Active waypoints are displayed in magenta and tracks as dashed magenta lines c. Active waypoints are displayed in green and tracks as solid magenta lines d. Active waypoints are displayed in magenta and tracks as solid magenta lines

Which of the following combinations of flight director/autopilot modes are not selectable together: a. HDG SEL and V/S b. HDG SEL and ALT HOLD c. HDG HOLD and LOC d. HDG SEL and HDG HOLD

In a gas turbine engine, how does thrust produced at engine design RPM vary? a. An OAT decrease will lead to a thrust decrease b. An OAT increase will lead to a thrust increase c. An OAT increase will lead to a thrust decrease d. A humidity increase will lead to a thrust increase

In a turboprop powered aircraft the power lever is used to control a. Pitch and torque in the Beta range b. Pitch only in the reverse thrust range c. Pitch and torque in the normal (Alpha) flight range d. Pitch and torque in all operating ranges

Which statement is correct about turbine blade creep stress values with time in service? a. Initially the blade stretches very little but creep values increase at linear rate up to blade failure b. Initially the blade stretches considerably during the primary stage then at a linear rate during the tertiary stage c. Initially during the primary stage and finally in the tertiary stage, blade stretching is significant, being less so between these stages

In which component of the air cycle machine in the air-conditioning system of a transport category aircraft is the coldest air found? a. The primary heat exchanger b. The secondary heat exchanger c. The expansion turbine d. The condenser

The EPR of a gas turbine engine may be defined as: a. The ratio between the gas temperature and gas pressure of the engine b. The ratio between the engine inlet pressure and the exhaust duct pressure c. The ratio between the Fan N1 RPM and N2 RPM d. The ratio between the static pressure and dynamic pressure in the compressor

The EGT of a gas turbine engine may be defined as: a. The temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the combustion chamber b. The temperature of the gas flow at the entry to the turbine c. The temperature of the gas flow at the exit of the compressor d. The temperature at the exit from the last stage of the turbine

As a flight progresses and weight decreases as fuel is burnt in a transport category aircraft: a. Optimum speed decreases, maximum altitude decreases and buffet boundaries increase b. Optimum speed increases, maximum altitude decreases and buffet boundaries increase c. Optimum speed increases, maximum altitude decreases and buffet boundaries decrease d. Optimum speed decreases, maximum altitude increases and buffet boundaries increase

The freezing point of Jet-A1 fuel is closest to: a. -20o C b. -30o C c. -40o C d. -50o C

What is the purpose of the bogie wheel landing gear configuration compared to a single wheel on a main gear leg? a. Cost effectiveness b. Reduced tyre pressure and lower ACN’s c. Reduced tyre surface area contact d. Softer main gear landings

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operation of the Ground Proximity Warning System: a. A hard warning is not always preceded by a soft warning b. A soft warning is always followed by a hard warning c. All modes provide both hard and soft warnings d. All modes provide hard warnings

On a turboprop aircraft the purpose of the safety coupling is to:: a. Disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque b. Disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque c. Disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of excessive engine RPM d. Disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive torque

The measurement of temperature in a gas turbine engine is one of the most critical items of information the pilot needs for safe operation of the engine. The type of thermocouple used in measurement of turbine temperature varies with engine type and design. From the following list select the statement which correctly describes the usual application of various thermocouple probe types: a. Rapid response probes are used primarily in turbojet and turbofan installations while stagnation type probes are used mainly in turboprop installations b. Rapid response probes are used primarily in turboprop installations while stagnation type probes are used mainly in turbojet and turbofan installations c. Surface probes measure gas temperature while immersion probes measure engine temperature

With differential spoilers fitted to an aircraft a left bank will require: a. The left spoiler to retract if both were extended b. The left spoiler to extend if both were retracted c. Both spoilers to remain extended if both were extended d. The left spoiler to remain retracted if both were retracted

The auto-brake selector has eight positions: DISARM, OFF, 1, 2, 3, 4, MAX and RTO. Which statement regarding the retardation rates of various settings is true? a. RTO is greater than MAX b. RTO and MAX provide the same level of braking c. RTO is less than MAX d. Manual braking is greater than both RTO & MAX

While in cruise at a constant Flight Level at M0.82 an increase in ambient temperature will result in: a. A higher TAS and a higher SFC b. A higher TAS and a lower SFC c. A lower TAS and a higher SFC d. A lower TAS and a lower SFC

What indicates that self-sustaining speed has been achieved during the start cycle of a gas turbine turbofan engine? a. The EGT rises first b. The turbine first starts to drive the compressor c. The starter disengages d. The pressure starts to rise in the compressor

In the event of a failure of the active sources of 115Volts AC in a transport category aircraft, which component of the electrical system supplies the AC power? a. ATRU b. The Transistor c. The Static Inverter d. The Generator

As a turbofan powered aircraft climbs through the tropopause, thrust will: a. Increase b. Remain constant c. Reduce at the same rate as below the tropopause d. Reduce at a greater rate compared to below the tropopause

TCAS-2 TA ONLY mode is selected by the crew. Which statement is correct regarding advising of threat levels to the crew? a. RA will not be displayed aurally nor visually b. RA will not be displayed visually only aurally c. RA will not be announced aurally only visually d. RA will continue to be announced aurally and visually

An aircraft flies above its mach trim speed, the mach trim system will: a. Deflect the elevator upwards b. Deflect the trim tab upwards c. Deflect the leading edge of the horizontal stabilator downwards d. Deflect the trim tab downwards

What is the difference between the de-ice system and the anti-ice system? a. De-ice is selected on prior to entering an area of ice and anti-ice on after entering it b. Anti-ice is selected on prior to entering an area of ice and de-ice after entering it c. Anti-ice uses pneumatic pressure to remove formed ice and de-ice uses thermal means d. There is no difference between them

In aircraft fitted with Series Type Yaw Dampers: a. The pilot’s rudder pedals move in conjunction with the yaw damper inputs b. They cannot be turned on when on the takeoff roll whereas parallel types can c. They are normally turned on during all phase of flight. The pilot rudder pedals will not move in response to yaw damper movements

Regarding the gas flow in the combustion section of a gas turbine engine: a. Pressure and temperature increase b. Pressure and temperature decrease c. Pressure is said to be constant and temperature increases d. Pressure increases and temperature decreases

The effect of a centre of gravity (CoG) position on the cruise speed of an aircraft for a given thrust setting and weight in level flight is: a. A rearward CoG (within limits) results in a higher cruise speed b. A forward CoG (within limits) results in a higher cruise speed c. No effect if trimmed correctly d. A forward CP (within limits) results in a lower cruise speed e. A rearward CP (within limits) results in a higher cruise speed

In an aircraft equipped with a Flight Management Computer (FMC), a holding pattern programmed into the FMC LNAV active route will command the holding pattern track taking account of - a. the wind in the CASA wind model b. the forecast wind c. nil wind d. the actual wind

Gas turbine engine mass air flow is governed primarily by - a. the number of combustion chambers, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature b. the RPM, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature c. the turbine inlet temperature, the RPM and the number of combustion chambers d. the RPM, the airspeed and the air density

The correct procedure to follow in the event of a hot start to prevent torching in a gas turbine engine is to - a. gradually open the throttle to en-richen the mixture and cool the combustion temperatures b. open the bleed valves to increase the mass air flow through the compressor c. motor the engine with the fuel supply cut off d. close the bleed valves to decrease mass flow through the compressor

Regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady climb a. lift equals weight and thrust equals drag b. lift is greater than weight and thrust is greater than drag c. lift is less than weight and thrust is less than drag d. lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag

The component of the autopilot system which safeguards against a servomotor runaway is - a. the artificial feel b. the trim system c. the comparator d. the torque limiter

An aircraft landing gear tyre replacement should be considered essential with a. a bulge in the tyre b. worn tread c. a deep cut in the tread d. a metal object imbedded in the tread

The fuel boost pumps in a jet transport category aircraft fuel system are located a. in the fuel manifold b. in the fuel tanks c. in the nacelle d. in the fuel control unit

The function of the follow up linkage in the nose wheel landing gear system of a jet transport category aircraft is a. to prevent nose wheel shimmy b. to hold the nose wheel steering at the correct angle c. to stop tyre scuffing d. to permit the tiller to turn the nose wheel

The nose-wheel centering system of large jet aircraft operates to straighten the nose wheel - a. prior to gear retraction b. during gear retraction c. after gear retraction d. prior to gear extension

An advantage of NICAD batteries in an aircraft installation compared to lead acid batteries is - a. no dangerous gases b. no need for ventilation c. greater load carrying capabilities d. faster recharge cycle

During flight planning, the pilot enters a holding pattern into the FMC flight plan for approach to an airport. Upon arrival at the holding fix with LNAV engaged, the FMC will command an entry to the holding pattern based on the: a. Planned aircraft HDG, at the fix b. Planned aircraft Track, at the fix c. Actual aircraft HDG, at the fix d. Actual aircraft Track, at the fix

In an aircraft EFIS with three symbol generators (SGs), the failure of the captain’s symbol generator would require: a. The captain to manually switch to the standby SG b. The co-pilot to manually switch to the standby SG c. No direct action as the switching to standby is automatic with 3 SGs d. The captain to select the same EADI and EHSI settings as the co-pilot

During a flight over continental Australia in a high capacity RPT aircraft equipped with EFIS and a FMS, the reference for the MAP mode of the EHSI would be: a. Magnetic Heading b. Magnetic Track c. True Heading d. True Track

For the park brake to work effectively following the shutdown of all hydraulic systems, at the time of shutdown the brake accumulator pressure must be: a. Above maximum brake operating pressure b. Above the maximum pre-charge pressure c. Below the minimum pre-charge pressure d. Above minimum brake operating pressure

Items monitored by the take-off configuration warning system in a high capacity jet transport aircraft include: a. L/E flap position, undercarriage selector, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position, spoiler lever position and the park brake valve position b. L/E flap position, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position, spoiler lever position and the cargo doors c. L/E flap position, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position, spoiler lever position and the park brake valve position d. L/E flap position, undercarriage selector, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position

During the ‘ROLLOUT’ submode of an autoland, the IDLE mode of the autothrottle will be: a. Engaged until touchdown b. Engaged until 5 feet radio altitude c. Disengaged 5 seconds after touchdown d. Disengaged when selecting reverse thrust

Conditional waypoints are entered into the FMC via the: a. Arrivals or departures pages b. Init/ref page c. Route legs page d. Ident page

Subsonic flow through a divergent duct will experience: a. An increase in density, pressure and a decrease in velocity b. Constant density, an increase in pressure and a decrease in velocity c. Constant density, and a decrease in velocity and pressure d. A decrease in density and pressure and increasing velocity

Supersonic flow through a divergent duct will experience a. An increase in density, pressure and a decrease in velocity b. Constant density, an increase in pressure and a decrease in velocity c. Constant density, and a decrease in velocity and pressure d. A decrease in density and pressure and increasing velocity

In a free-power turbine type engine (turboprop), the free-power turbine is: a. Connected to the high pressure compressor b. Connected to the low pressure compressor c. Connected to the high pressure turbine d. Not connected to any other turbine shaft

During CAT III ILS multi-autopilot approach, in the rollout the thrust setting will be: a. Flight idle for 5 seconds after touchdown then ground idle b. Ground idle from 5 feet radio altitude c. Thrust hold d. N1 limit thrust for GA

The pure turbo jet engine design feature which decreased the occurrence of compressor stall was by incorporating: a. Multiple spools b. Variable inlet guide vanes c. Nozzle guide vanes d. The NTS

In terms of SFC and in comparison to a pure turbo jet, a turboprop would be more efficient than a turbojet during: a. Low speed flight b. Low altitude flight c. High speed flight d. High altitude flight

Pressing the CANCEL switch on the EICAS control panel will: a. Remove all warning and cautions from the screen b. Remove only advisories from the screen c. Remove only cautions from the screen d. Select the next page

In an aircraft with two separate independent hydraulic systems: a. All systems are supplied by both systems simultaneously b. No systems are supplied simultaneously by both systems c. The second system is a back up to the primary system and will only be used following the failure of the primary system d. Some systems are powered by both systems simultaneously

On an aircraft equipped with both outboard and inboard ailerons, the inboard ailerons operate: a. At all times b. Only at high speed c. Only at low speed d. Only when selected by the pilot

During TCAS operations in TA only mode, RA’s are: a. Not shown at all b. Shown as TA’s c. Shown on the EHSI only d. Removed from the EADI

Airflow behind a normal (vertical) shockwave compared to ahead of the shock will have a decrease in a. static pressure b. energy (total pressure) c. density d. temperature

A benefit of a Split Bus type aircraft electrical system is: a. Other generator can take up excess loads b. The system can evenly share the load between generators c. There is a reduced requirement for frequency matching d. More systems can be powered from one bus

Engine bleed air may be used for: a. Reverse thrust actuation, anti-icing, pitot heat, and to power the RAT b. Reverse thrust actuation, anti-icing, air conditioning, and to power the RAT c. Reverse thrust actuation, anti-icing, air conditioning and pressurisation d. Pitot heat, anti-icing, air conditioning and pressurisation

In-flight, engine bleed air for anti-icing the wing leading edges in known icing conditions is: a. Used continuously b. Used for short periods only c. Used for long period cycles d. Not used

The radio altimeter display on the EADI is blank when: a. Above 2500 ft b. At low level over smooth water c. Indications are below 0 ft d. unserviceable

When climbing at a constant Mach number, TAS will: a. Increase through all levels b. Decrease through all levels c. Decrease in the troposphere then remain constant in the isothermal layer above the tropopause d. Increase in the troposphere then remain constant in the isothermal layer above the tropopause

The reference for the heading display on the EFIS MAP and FMC is: a. Always true with the heading reference switch in the normal position b. Always magnetic with the heading reference switch in the normal position c. Never true with the heading reference switch in the normal position d. Either true or magnetic as selected by the pilot or determined by latitude

On an aircraft with a conventional flight instrument panel with two compass systems, the Captain’s HSI displays a HDG flag. In this situation another expected indication would be: a. A HDG flag on the Captain’s RMI b. A HDG flag on the First Officer’s HSI c. A HDG flag on the First Officer’s RMI d. An off flag on the Captain’s flight director

An aircraft with a TAS of 300 kt has a fuel burn of 3000 kg/hr. The Specific Air Range (SAR) as a ratio distance travelled per tonne of fuel used would be most correctly expressed as ratio of: a. 30 kg/3 nm b. 1 kg/10 nm c. 30 nm/300 kg d. 100 nm/tonne

The EPR of a gas turbine engine may be defined as: a. The ratio between the gas temperature and gas pressure of the engine b. The ratio between the total jet pipe pressure and the total engine inlet pressure c. The ratio between the Fan (N1) RPM and the N2 RPM d. The ratio between the static pressure and the dynamic pressure in the compressor

The EGT of a gas turbine engine may be defined as: a. The ratio between the engine inlet pressure and the exhaust duct pressure b. The temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the combustion chamber c. The temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the last turbine stage d. The temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the compressor

Windscreen rain repellent fluid is used in some installations to assist visibility. A limitation on its use is: a. It should not be used in conjunction with windscreen heating systems b. It should not be used on a dry windscreen as it could smear and reduce forward vision c. It should not be used inc conjunction with wipers d. It should only be used airborne

The first indication of a successful light-off (light-up) in a gas turbine engine is: a. Increasing N1 RPM b. Increasing N2 RPM c. Increasing EGT d. Increasing EPR

The main advantage of kerosene compared to wide cut type fuel for use in a gas turbine engine is that kerosene has a relatively a. higher flash point and higher volatility b. higher volatility and lower flash point c. lower flash point and lower volatility d. lower volatility and higher flash point

A pressurised aircraft on climb maintains its cabin altitude at that of the departure aerodrome until it reaches its maximum cabin pressure differential. If the climb is continued: a. The cabin altitude will decrease as the aircraft climbs b. The aircraft cannot climb as it has reached its service ceiling c. The cabin altitude will climb as the system maintains maximum pressure differential d. The cabin pressure will rise to protect the seals in the pressure vessel

In level flight an AP/FDS mode control panel shows a selected IAS of 280kt in altitude hold mode. The flight director, autopilot and auto-throttle are then all turned off. In this case the 280 IAS indication will: a. Be blanked off and not displayed b. Remain as before but will have no significance on the speed tape display c. Remains as a reminder to the pilot that the system is still in altitude hold d. Remain displayed in the window and as the command airspeed bug on the speed tape

Reverse thrust is most useful on a large transport turbine aircraft: a. At high forward speed in the landing roll b. At low forward speed in the landing roll c. In flight to increase d. Late in the landing roll

In a gas turbine engine, compressor surge can be recognised by: a. Rapidly increasing N1 RPM b. A sharp rise in thrust c. Fluctuating RPM d. Low TOT

If a reduced thrust take-off is programmed into a flight management computer using the assumed temperature method. Regarding thrust output in the event of an engine failure after V1: a. The pilot must manually increase the thrust on the live engine/s following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients for obstacle clearance b. The autothrottle will automatically increase the thrust on the live engine/s following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients for obstacle clearance c. The reduced thrust output of the remaining engine/s will provide net obstacle clearance at all temperatures below ISA d. The reduced thrust output from the remaining engine/s will be sufficient to provide the required climb gradients for obstacle clearance without needing to increase thrust output

The use of sweepback as a design feature of a jet transport aircraft wing will result in: a. A decrease in MCDR b. An increase in lift c. An increase in MCDR d. Will not affect MCDR

On a conventional ASI/Mach Meter the Mach readout is covered by a red flag indicating loss of altitude sensing. This means that the Mach display is unreliable and: a. The command airspeed bug is also unreliable b. No other element is affected c. The VMO pointer is also probably unreliable d. The command airspeed bug is removed from view and the command airspeed select knob is also inoperative

An IVSI differs from a conventional VSI in that it has: a. Accelerometers or dashpots to give an immediate indication of climb or descent b. No moving parts c. Electric amplification for greater accuracy d. Laser beams to register displacement

An autopilot ‘hardover’ means: a. Full servomotor deflection b. Partial servomotor deflection c. An unserviceable servomotor d. Full scale trunion servo actuator deflection

The purpose of a propeller brake in a turboprop installation is to: a. Reduce speed on descent b. Decelerate the propeller into the ground range after landing c. Prevent the propeller from rotating until self sustaining speed is reached d. Stop the propeller from windmilling when in feather on the ground

In a normal operation of an aircraft electrical system with a bus tie, the generators are operated: a. In series b. As a split-bus system c. Independently to avoid frequency and phase matching problems d. In parallel

In an aircraft electrical system with two engine driven generators and an APU generator, none of which can be synchronised: a. With one engine driven generator connected to the system, the APU generator can supply either TRU b. In normal operation, the system operates as a split bus system c. In normal operation bus 1 and 2 act as a single bus d. In normal operations, the generators are paralleled

The main reason for the combustion of fuel in a gas turbine engine is - a. to raise gas pressure b. to raise gas velocity c. to raise gas temperature d. to raise gas density

When the residual voltage of a large AC generator decreases to zero and no battery power is available: a. No AC generator can be re-started airborne b. It can be re-started if it is a PMG (permanent magnet generator) c. It can be re-started if it is a field excitation generator d. All AC generators can be re-started from zero voltage airborne

When an Integrated Drive Generator (IDG or CSD) suffers an internal failure the unit: a. Will disconnect from the engine automatically b. Will change the output power frequency, causing problems with AC powered systems c. If manually disconnected, cannot be re-connected in flight d. All of the above

With a multiple battery installation in an aircraft, the batteries are usually connected in: a. Parallel, to give increase current output at constant voltage b. Parallel, to give increase voltage output at constant current c. Series, to give increased current output at constant voltage d. Series, to give increased voltage output at constant current

The combustion chamber design which is most cost effective and efficient is the: a. Multiple chamber design b. Can-annular (turbo-annular) design c. Annular design d. Vaporiser design

The percentage of the mass airflow through a gas turbine entering the combustion chamber through the swirl vane is approximately: a. 2% b. 12% c. 20% d. 50%

When the “THROTTLE HOLD” (THR HLD) mode of the auto-throttle is active and enunciated on the auto-throttle flight mode enunciator on the EADI: a. The auto-throttle is de-energised and can be repositioned b. The thrust levers advance to take-off thrust c. The thrust levers retard to idle d. The auto-throttle will adjust to hold the current airspeed

When operating in the region of reversed command (slower than VIMD): a. Any decrease in speed will result in increased power required to maintain altitude while an increase in speed will result in less power required to maintain altitude b. Any increase in speed will result in increased power required to maintain altitude while a decrease in speed will result in less power required to maintain altitude c. Small power increases will lead to a rapid decrease in speed while larger power increases will result in a slow decrease in speed d. Small power increases will lead to a rapid increase in speed while large power increases will result in a slow increase in speed

When flying a jet transport on an approach with steep wind gradients or wind shear and/or gusts the approach speed should be modified accordingly to provide protection against sudden airspeed loss. As a rule of thumb, the approach speed may be increased to a maximum value of VREF+15 kt for wind gradients by adding half the wind speed to the normal approach speed. In gusty conditions the approach speed may be increased to a maximum of VREF+20 kt by adding half the wind speed and half the gust value. If the reported wind speed was 20 kt gusting to 40 kt the appropriate approach speed would be: a. VREF+20kt b. VREF+15kt c. VREF+25kt d. VREF+30kt

Hydraulic fluid pumps are lubricated and cooled by - a. Turbine oil b. Hydraulic fluid c. Air d. Turbine fuel

The antiskid brake system on a jet transport aircraft allows maximum braking without loss of traction. If, during operation of the antiskid braking system, the pilot feels a rapid oscillation through the pedals, the probable cause is: a. Antiskid brake system failure and wheel lock up b. Excessive pedal pressure c. Normal operation of the system d. Nose wheel shimmy

The element of the antiskid brake system providing protection for the hydraulic system against damage from antiskid brake operation is: a. The hydraulic shut off valve b. The modulator valve c. The non return valve d. The accumulator

If the wings are level in steady asymmetric flight in a multi-engined aircraft, the balance ball will be: a. Displaced fully toward the live engine b. In the centre c. Displaced fully towards the dead engine d. Displaced partially towards the live engine

With reference to the B767 EHSI display, in MAP mode the altitude range arc shows: a. The FMC flight plan computed top of climb position based on the forecast wind b. The current altitude c. The computed top of climb position based on current wind and rate of climb d. The glide range in nil wind for the current altitude

The purpose of the bogie wheel landing gear configuration compared to a single wheel on a main gear leg is: a. Cost effectiveness b. To permit increased tyre pressures and higher ACNs c. Reduced tyre surface area contact, reduced tyre pressures and higher ACNs d. To allow softer nose wheel touchdown during landings

Regarding inertial reference systems (IRS): a. An IRS can derive current true heading independent of other inputs b. An IRS can derive track made good, but cannot obtain current true heading c. An IRS requires periodic heading input from a gyro-stabilised compass d. An IRS requires constant heading input from a gyro-stabilised compass

With differential spoilers fitted to an aircraft, a left bank will cause: a. The left spoiler to retract if both were extended b. The left spoiler to extend if both were retracted c. Both spoilers to remain extended if both were extended d. The left spoiler to remain retracted if both were retracted

The method usually used when charging lead acid batteries in an aircraft: a. Constant current b. Constant amperes c. Constant specific gravity d. Constant resistance e. Constant voltage

When an autopilot system ‘mimics’ control wheel inputs, it is connected in: a. Series b. Parallel c. CW d. VNAV

With regard to the monitoring of autopilot systems via the auto-land status enunciator: a. A land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational) b. A land 3 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail operational) c. A land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive) d. A land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail passive)

A particular aircraft demonstrates good oscillatory stability at 1000 ft but poor oscillatory stability at 30000 ft. The reason for this is: a. Reduced aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased TAS as a result of a decrease in density b. Reduced aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased EAS as a result of a increase in density c. Increased aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased TAS as a result of increased air density d. Increased aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased EAS as a result of a decrease in density

When configured for take off, the command speed bug on the airspeed indicator and speed tape on the EADI is referenced to - a. V2 b. V1 c. VREF d. VR

During flight planning the crew of a transport category aircraft program the FMC with the proposed route but forget to load a descent point and final segment. With LNAV engaged, when the aircraft passes its last programmed waypoint the FMC will command the aeroplane to: a. Enter a left hand holding pattern b. Enter a right hand holding pattern c. Maintain present heading d. Maintain present track

To provide LNAV guidance the FMC needs as a minimum input from initialisation, navigation data from: a. 2 VOR’s b. A VOR/DME c. 2 DME’s d. 1 IRS e. 2 IRS’s

In asymmetric flight a multi-engined piston propeller driven aeroplane is usually flown with: a. Bank away from the dead engine with no slideslip and the ball slightly off centre toward the live engine b. No bank with no sideslip with the ball centred c. Only bank with no rudder with the ball off centre to the dead engine and no sideslip d. Bank way from the dead engine with no sideslip and the ball slightly off centre toward the dead engine

Air is slowed down in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine to: a. Prevent flame out b. Confine the heat to a smaller region c. Improve mixture d. Stop surge

If thermocouples are used in parallel to measure the temperature in a jet engine, the temperature shown will be: a. The maximum temperature of all probes on the circuit b. The total of all temperatures c. The average temperature of all probes on the circuit d. The minimum temperature of all probes on the circuit

The formula: nine times the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI gives the a. maximum speed for hydroplaning in meters per second b. maximum speed for hydroplaning in knots c. minimum speed for hydroplaning in knots d. minimum speed for hydroplaning in meters per second

Some jet transport aircraft are equipped with a feature known as aileron lockout. If ‘AILERON LOCKOUT’ appeared as a caution message on the EICAS, you would expect to experience: a. Unusually high control forces at low speeds b. Degraded roll controllability at low speeds c. Unusually high control forces at high speeds d. Degraded roll controllability at high speeds

On a conventional attitude indicator, the fast/slow indicator opposite the glide-slope deviation indicator shows the current speed as fast or slow relative to - a. The command bug speed b. V1 c. VREF d. V2

If the EPR probe at the compressor inlet of a jet engine becomes blocked with ice during taxiing and the pilot advances the thrust levers for take off to the predetermined EPR setting for take off, and likely result is: a. The EPR gauge will overread and the engine thrust will be less than take off thrust b. The EPR gauge will overread and engine thrust will increase above take off thrust c. The EPR gauge will underread and engine thrust will be less than take off thrust d. The EPR gauge will underread and engine thrust will increase above take off thrust

Regarding the cabin altitudes at which the cabin altitude warning occurs and the cabin altitude at which emergency passenger oxygen masks deploy in the event of a depressurisation in most modern jet transport category aircraft: a. Cabin altitude warning at 8500 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 10000 ft b. Cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 14000 ft c. Cabin altitude warning at 9500 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 10000 ft d. Cabin altitude warning at 12000 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 13000 ft

If the FMC detects a difference between the FMC computed (calculated) fuel quantity and the fuel gauge indicted (sensed) quantity it will: a. Automatically use the higher value for subsequent navigational computations b. Automatically use the lower values for subsequent navigational computations c. Alter the pilot(s) FMC to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message and the pilot then decides which quantity to use for subsequent navigational calculations d. Recalibrate the sensed fuel quantity shown on EICAS to agree with the computed quantity e. Recalibrate the calculated fuel quantity to agree with sensed quantity shown on EICAS

Advantages of a tricycle undercarriage configuration include: a. Greater braking effectiveness, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies b. The CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies, better rough strip capability, less c. Higher descent rates during approach and landing, better visibility during landings and taxiing, the CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies d. Lower landing speeds, better rough strip capability, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies

The minimum position input(s) required to initialise an inertial navigation system are/is: a. Latitude and longitude b. Latitude only c. Longitude only d. Latitude, longitude and time

The auto-flight mode combination which controls thrust to maintain a set aircraft speed is: a. N1 and SPD b. THR HLD and ALT HLD c. VNAV PATH and SPD d. FL CH and SPD

Differential flight spoilers are often used on large aircraft to assist roll control. If the pilot rolled the control column towards the right to initiate a right turn: a. If the flight spoilers are extended, they will both retract b. If the spoilers are retracted, the left spoiler will extend, and the right spoiler will remain retracted c. If the spoilers are retracted, they will both remain retracted d. If the spoilers are extended, the left spoiler will retract and the right spoiler will remain extended

Concerning the use of the rudder pedals for steering on the ground and using a tiller for nose- wheel steering when fitted to a large transport category aircraft: a. Full deflection of the rudder pedals gives a greater angle of nose-wheel steering than full tiller deflection b. Full rudder deflection is the same as full tiller deflection c. Full tiller deflection gives a greater angle of nose-wheel steering than full rudder pedal deflection d. The tiller does not steer the nose-wheel, only the rudder

The brakes on large aircraft are prone to overheating. The incorrect statement regarding the use of brakes is: a. If an aircraft takes off with hot brakes, the gear may be left down (dangling) to cool b. If the park-brake is engaged with very hot brakes, the disk may fuse to the pad c. After an aborted take off, the aircraft must be taxied to a cool-down area for a specified time d. With overheated brakes, a take off is allowed immediately after prolonged taxiing as long as excessive brake pressure is not applied

Large transport category aircraft may be equipped with multiple batteries. When this is done the batteries are usually connected in: a. Parallel to increase the voltage at constant current (amps) b. Series to increase the voltage at constant current (amps) c. Parallel to increase the current (amps) at constant voltage d. Series to increase the current (amps) at constant voltage

The errors associated with a Machmeter are: a. Temperature, compressibility, pressure and position b. Instrument and position c. Density, temperature, pressure and instrument d. Position, pressure, density and compressibility

In a split bus electrical system consisting of two main engine driven generators: a. One engine generator can supply all buses with no loss of load capacity b. One bus can have multiple generators connected at once c. A bus is only supplied by one generator at any given time d. The generators are normally connected in parallel

The Master Warning system on an aircraft consists of an audio alarm and a light on the glare- shield. The warning may be cancelled by: a. Switching off the warning system b. Pressing the warning light caption c. Pulling the appropriate circuit breaker d. Reprogramming the flight management computer

What gauge is needed in the cockpit of a pressurised aircraft to monitor a parameter essential to pressurisation: a. The cabin pressurisation gauge b. The cabin climb and descent gauge c. The cabin altitude and differential pressure gauge d. The cabin negative differential pressure gauge

Standpipes in the hydraulic system in a jet transport aircraft needed to: a. Supply pressure during negative G flight b. Reduce foaming during flight in turbulence c. Ensure fluid supply in the event of primary system fluid loss d. Ensure a positive supply of fluid to the pump during periods of high demand

Compared to a high bypass turbofan, a pure turbojet engine has: a. More thrust at the same mass flow b. A higher power to weight ratio c. Lower Specific Fuel Consumption d. Higher propulsive efficiency

While in cruise at a constant Flight Level at a Mach No of 0.82, an increase in ambient temperature will result in: a. A higher TAS and a higher SFC b. A higher TAS and lower SFC c. A lower TAS and higher SFC d. A lower TAS and a lower SFC

Methods for defining waypoints entered by the crew into the data base of the FMC include: a. Latitude and longitude, place bearing/distance, place distance/place distance b. Latitude and longitude, place bearing/distance, place bearing/place bearing c. Latitude and longitude, place bearing/distance, bearing distance/bearing distance d. Latitude and longitude, place bearing/place, place distance/distance

An aircraft is filled to full tank volume capacity with AVTUR for a Specific Gravity (SG) of 0.8. If the SG has been 0.7 instead of 0.8, the available range would be: a. The same b. Greater c. Less d. Independent of calorific value

Concerning large aircraft electrical systems: a. Split bus systems need not run generators in parallel b. In a split bus system one generator will never supply power to all services c. Parallel generator systems do not suffer from frequency matching problems d. Most electrical systems can be run split or parallel depending on demand

In an aircraft electrical system, a bus bar is a. A large terminal for power distribution to services b. A receiving point of current from the generator or battery c. A circuit breaker panel d. Always live

In the B767-300ER autopilot system, the autopilot will be prevented from engagement when: a. The heading cursor (bug) is different to the aircraft heading b. The speed bug is different to the aircraft speed c. The Left AC bus is un-powered d. The pitch selector is in pitch hold

In a steady climb, the thrust produced by the engines is balanced by drag: a. Plus a component of lift b. Plus a component of weight c. Plus total lift d. Alone

In an aircraft with a ‘flying tail’, movement of the control column results in movement of the: a. Elevator with the tailplane position controlled by trim signals from the trim wheel b. Tailplane with the elevator position controlled by movement of the trim switches c. Tailplane with the elevator moving in the same direction d. Tailplane with the elevator moving in the opposite direction

In a turbo-jet aircraft compared to a turbo-prop aircraft, lowest specific fuel consumption (SFC) compared to net thrust is achieved when flying at: a. High altitude b. High speed c. Low altitude d. Low speed

The effect of spoiler deployment on the total drag curve for an aeroplane is to move the curve: a. Up and right b. Up and left c. Down and left d. Down and right

On an aircraft with a conventional flight director system, the flight director bars are controlled by: a. The flight director computer b. The air data computer c. The flight management computer d. The control display unit

What is the primary advantage of AC over DC electrical generation types a. Savings on space and weight b. It is easier to convert AC to DC, than DC to AC c. Separate bus systems are not required with AC systems d. Circuits of AC are less complicated than DC

An aircraft is fitted with Nicad batteries, and the crew get a “High Battery Temp” warning light. This situation was probably caused by: a. The electrical load on the nicad battery was too high b. The battery discharge rate was too high c. The rate of charging was too high

After a WET START in a turbine engine, what precautions should be taken to prevent a future engine malfunction? a. Use a cross-bleed start to prevent starter motor overheating b. Use a cross-bleed start to prevent a hot start c. Motor-over using the starter motor to prevent a hung start d. Motor-over to prevent torching when re-starting

With increasing airspeed up to and beyond Mach 1.0, the co-efficient of drag at a constant angle of attack will: a. Initially increase, then decrease b. Remain unchanged c. Increase steadily d. Decrease steadily, then increase again e. Decrease steadily

The purpose of a cabin pressure relief valve is to automatically open when: a. The cabin rapidly depressurises, such as in an explosive decompression b. Cabin pressure reaches a preset value c. Rate of cabin pressure rise is too great d. Cabin differential pressure reaches a pre-set value

The valve that controls the air pressure in a cabin pressurisation system is known as: a. The pressurising valve b. The pack flow control valve c. The ram air valve d. The outflow valve

Which of the following correctly names the component in a pneumatic system that will automatically shut off the air supply to non-essential services, when system pressure reduces below a certain predetermined value? a. Isolation control valve b. Pressure maintaining valve c. Non-return valve (i.e. one way valve) d. Pressure compensation valve e. Swing check valve

In what way is the SG of AVTUR effected by changes in ambient temperature? a. SG is NOT effected b. SG decreases with temperature rise c. SG increases with temperature rise

Under which of the following conditions is it necessary to incorporate cabin air humidifiers, in an aircraft air conditioning system? a. When operations are at low altitudes/low temperatures b. At all altitudes, when air temperature is low c. At low altitudes, at any temperature d. At high altitudes, at all times

Hydraulic fluid has which of the following properties? a. Resistance to expansion when heated b. It is easily compressed, giving more positive control responses c. It is almost incompressible d. It can maintain a constant temperature under adverse high temperature operating environments

When comparing the properties of pneumatic vs hydraulic systems: a. Pneumatic can provide greater control power b. Pneumatics do not require return lines, whereas hydraulic systems do c. Pneumatic systems do NOT suffer from moisture in the system d. Pneumatics great advantage is that air is considered to be incompressible

In what way does the extension of leading edge devices such as flaps and slats effect the co- efficient of lift and drag, and the nose pitching moment? a. Increase in lift and drag co-efficient, and a nose up pitch moment b. Increase in lift, decreasing in drag co-efficient, and a pitch down moment c. Decrease in lift and drag co-efficient, and a nose pitch up tendency

Assuming the same degree of trailing edge flap deflections, which answer best describes the primary advantage of slotted flaps, compared to fowler flaps? a. Greater flap area b. Longer effective chord length c. Increased camber occurs d. Improved boundary layer airflow over flaps

Assuming the aircraft is within the various radio altitude envelope bands, in which of the following scenarios will the flight crew receive a warning? a. When 1 dot or more below the glideslope b. During a slow descent over flat terrain, whilst in the correct landing configuration c. When an unsafe radio height is reached, with the aircraft NOT in the landing configuration d. With an excessive closure rate when approaching a near vertical cliff

Assuming a constant speed drive is disconnected in flight when, and under what circumstances can it be re-connected? a. Anytime when in-flight b. Automatically, when the undercarriage air/ground logic switch has weight on it c. Electrically, when the undercarriage air/ground logic switch has weight on it d. Mechanically, when the aircraft is on the ground

Which of the following best describes how an APU speed is controlled? a. By a governor b. By a throttle lever in the cockpit c. By a tacho-generator sensed circuit d. A speed sensitive switch

The device that controls the direction of movement of a hydraulic actuating unit, is called the: a. Sequencing valve b. Flow control valve c. Pressure relief valve d. Bi-valve e. Selector valve

Which of the following switches must be closed before a generator can be connected to the synchronising bus? a. The generator field switch b. The generator control relay switch c. The generator circuit breakers switch d. The bus tie breaker switch

Which answer best describes the disadvantage of a turboprop engine, compared to a turbojet engine? a. Turboprop less capable of lifting heavy loads off short runways b. Turboprops have higher SFC at low altitudes than do turbojets c. Lower propulsive efficiencies at high subsonic Mach numbers d. Less effective reverse thrust capability during landing operations

The Auto-land Status Enunciator: a. Monitors autopilot and ILS ground station signal integrity b. Monitors only autopilot, and autopilot support system integrity c. Monitors only ILS ground station signal integrity

A swept wing transport turbojet is cruising at a higher than normal operating altitude, at normal cruise Mach number, in non-turbulent conditions. It experiences buffet, which statement is most correct? a. It is not likely to be high or low speed buffet, because the aircraft is in cruising flight b. It will be high speed buffet, because the aircraft is maintaining a published cruise schedule c. It is not likely to be low speed buffet, because the aircraft is at high altitude d. It could be high or low speed buffet, as it is difficult to tell at high altitude

Shock waves can form at a true Mach number below Mach 1.0. This is because: a. The airflow around the wing tips is accelerated to greater than free stream Mach number when the aircraft is in a turn b. The speed of sound is lower at high altitude c. Curved surfaces in various parts of the aircraft accelerate the greater than free stream Mach number

A control tab that is moved by the main control linkage, such that the hinge moments cause a deflection of the primary control surface. This device is called a: a. Lagging Tab b. Trim Tab c. Servo Tab

High flying air transport aircraft have a fuel tank venting system. This is to: a. Aid in the de-fuelling process b. Ensure the tank walls do not rupture when in turbulence, or during manoeuvres c. Prevent the spread of fire, should a bleed air duct leak occur near the fuel cell d. Provide a system whereby fuel can be jettisoned overboard in an emergency

What is the reason why the hydraulic reservoir is pressurised in high-flying aircraft? a. To provide the pressure to feed the system b. To prevent the collapsing of the reservoir walls during descent c. To prevent the fluid from foaming due to low ambient pressures at high altitudes d. To provide system pressure redundancy during the loss of that hydraulic system

An aircraft is fitted with TCAS and GPWS. Which statement is most correct? a. Only RA’s are inhibited by GPWS warnings b. Both TA’s and RA’s are inhibited by GPWS warnings c. Only TA’s are inhibited by GPWS warnings d. GPWS warnings are inhibited if a TA or RA occurs

The B767 incorporates a typical Autopilot Flight Director Systems (AFDS). When an ILS is being flown, with the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’, and ‘APPROACH’ modes selected, which statement best represents the actions that follow? a. The AFDS will maintain the selected altitude, and fly a Localiser only approach until the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ function is manually de-selected, then it will fly the glideslope also b. The systems is armed to capture the glide-slope, and ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ will automatically cancel when this occurs c. The system can NOT be armed for the approach until the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ function is manually selected off at or before glide-slope capture

The manoeuvre envelope defines: a. Airline policy for bank angle maximums to be used when carrying Pax or Freight, and must by law be incorporated in the Aircraft Operating Manual (AOM) b. The gust responses by the particular aircraft when in turbulent conditions c. The speed/load factor limits within which the aircraft is to be operated

‘Manual Reversion’ is provided: a. To prevent a runway trim situation from occurring b. On aircraft that do not have triple hydraulic system redundancy c. On all air transport aircraft, irrespective of the number of redundant hydraulic control systems provided d. Only on those aircraft that employ 1 hydraulic channel for yaw damper operation

An aircraft accelerates beyond MCRIT and displays a nose-down tendency. This is due to: a. The rearward movement of the Centre of Pressure, and reduced tailplane down-load b. The forward movement of the C of P due to the shockwave attaching to the leading edge c. The wingtips stalling first, as tends to happen on rearward swept wings at high speed

On a large transport aircraft, the effect of a failure of the leading edge high lift devices to extend is to: a. Require a higher than normal attitude (alpha) and lower airspeed on approach b. Require a lower than normal attitude (alpha) and higher airspeed on approach c. Require a lower than normal attitude (alpha) and lower airspeed on approach d. Require a higher than normal attitude (alpha), and a higher airspeed on approach

With an increase in altitude, and same equivalent airspeed (EAS), spiral stability: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains un-altered

Which statement is most correct? a. The primary function of ground spoilers is to reduce lift and increase braking effectiveness b. Powered outboard ailerons are the principle tool used to reduce wing twisting c. For the same flight level EAS is always greater than IAS

As the speed of a large transport aircraft increases from low speed stall to MMO, the power requirements during this phase can be best described as: a. An increase then a decrease b. Decrease then increase c. Non-linear increase

The primary reason for fitting leading and trailing edge flaps is to: a. Increase the wing wetted area b. Improve visibility ahead by reducing the cockpit cut-off angle c. Reduce the landing and take off speeds and distances needed d. Increase the drag on approach, thereby producing a more speed stable aircraft

A number of swept wing jet transport aircraft have a limitation such that flap extension at high altitudes (typically above FL200) is prohibited. This is because: a. The aircraft may under certain conditions become unstable in yaw whilst banking b. The high IAS at such altitude can exceed that of the flap restricting Mach number c. Stall warning and flap fatigue life may be compromised

With increasing altitude up to maximum cruise level: a. Low speed stall buffet IAS value decreases, high speed stall IAS value increases b. Low, and high speed stall buffet speed IAS values become closer together c. A decrease will occur in spiral stability, other stability will remain unchanged or may increase in value

An excessively aft C of G when on approach to land will cause: a. Heavy elevator control forces, and decreased pitch stability b. Light elevator control forces, and decreased pitch stability c. No difference in elevator forces, and no change in pitch stability

The C of G is near its forward envelope limit. Which statement is most correct? a. The same force is required to change the pitch attitude as with an aft C of G position b. Less elevator force is required to change the pitch attitude than with an aft C of G position c. Greater elevator force is required to change the pitch attitude than with an aft C of G position

As altitude is gained, how is the low speed stall value affected? a. IAS value decreases, but EAS value increases linearly b. IAS value decreases, but EAS value increases cumulatively c. IAS value rises, but NOT at such a high rate of EAS value d. Both IAS and EAS values increase. EAS will always be equal to or less than IAS value

A ‘TRIP FREE’ thermal circuit breaker (CB) can be reset: a. Only when the overload condition no longer exists b. Immediately c. Only when the Air/Ground logic switch has weight on it d. When the bi-metallic strips have cooled

The ZFW limit imposed on some aircraft is to ensure the spar is not overstressed and is: a. Relevant at taxi weight only b. Relevant at take off weight c. Relevant at ramp weight only

During a climb at a constant Mach number, the angle of attack will: a. Remain unchanged b. Increase c. Decrease

In stable asymmetric flight: a. Bank angle is used to counter the drag on the dead engine b. Bank and rudder are used in combination to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine c. The slip ball MUST be considered with the rudder d. It is possible to have a zero sideslip and zero bank at one time

Greater rearward wings sweep: a. Improves pitch stability b. Reduces trailing edge flap effectiveness c. Reduces the low speed stall value d. Reduces span-wise flow e. Reduces pitch stability at all airspeeds, and attitudes

Which of the answers is incorrect about factors assisting lateral static stability? a. Inboard flaps b. Sweepback c. Dihedral

An aircraft fitted with 2 EADI and two EHSI. What is the minimum number of symbol generators required for all screens to be operational? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3

Which answer listed is correct regarding aircraft system warnings whilst the aircraft is taking off? a. Both cautions and warnings are inhibited from 80 knots to 400 ft radio altitude b. Warnings are inhibited from 80 knots to 400 ft radio altitude or 20 seconds after lift-off, whichever occurs first c. Cautions are automatically inhibited from 80 knots to 400 ft altitudes or 20 seconds after lift-off, whichever occurs first

Which does not affect hydroplaning speed? a. Tread pattern b. Tread wear c. Tyre pressure d. Tyre size

Which RPM range will produce the greatest variation in thrust for a given movement of the power lever? a. The upper end of the RPM range b. The lower end of the RPM range c. The middle of the RPM range d. No particular RPM range

A function of a pressure relieve valve in a transport category jet hydraulic system is: a. To regulate the normal system operating pressure b. To prevent hydraulic seals from blowing out c. To prevent hydraulic lock d. To prevent hydraulic jack stall

The function of the rear turbine support struts in the exhaust system of a turbojet engine is: a. To reduce axial velocity in the jet pipe b. To support the propelling nozzle c. To straighten the airflow in the jet pipe d. To increase the surface area of the exhaust cone

In a gas turbine engine the start bleed valve is open at idle RPM. The RPM is then increased to maximum with the bleed valve still open. Regarding this situation: a. This is the normal situation and would result in maximum thrust b. The EGT will be higher than normal with reduced thrust output c. The EGT will be lower than normal with reduced thrust output d. The EGT will be lower than normal with increased thrust output e. The EGT will be higher than normal with increased thrust output

The nozzle guide vanes (NGVs) in a gas turbine engine are located: a. At the compressor inlet b. At the compressor outlet c. At the turbine inlet d. At the turbine outlet

In the turbine of an air cycle machine, bleed air supplied from engines undergoes - a. an increase in pressure and decrease in temperature b. an increase in pressure and an increase in temperature c. a decrease in pressure and a decrease in temperature d. a decrease in pressure and no change in temperature

Concerning the characteristics of the airflow behind a normal (vertical) shockwave: a. Pressure and temperature increase b. Pressure and temperature decrease c. Pressure is constant and temperature increases d. Pressure increases and temperature remains constant

The hot gas in a jet aircraft APU for bleed air supply is taken from: a. The compressor outlet b. The compressor inlet c. The combustion section d. The exhaust section

The effect of centre of gravity (CG) position on the cruise speed of an aircraft for a given power setting and weight in level flight is: a. No effect regardless of trim position b. A forward CG results in a higher cruise speed c. A rearward CG results in a higher cruise speed d. No effect if trimmed correctly

A constant supply of fluid from the reservoir in a jet aircraft hydraulic system is ensured by: a. Backup air driven demand pumps b. Constant delivery type pumps c. Venting the reservoir to the ambient atmosphere d. Pressurising the reservoir with bleed air

On a turbojet powered aircraft the front engine pressure ratio (EPR) probes are blocked. As the pilot advances the thrust levers to take off EPR, the EPR gauge will: a. Underread and the thrust will be less than take off thrust b. Overread and the thrust will be less than take off thrust c. Underread and the thrust will be more than take off thrust d. Overread and the thrust will be more than take off thrust

When an aircraft is climbed or descended using the Flight Level Change function of the auto flight system, with regard to the thrust settings used - a. on climb, thrust is automatically set to max climb thrust and on descent, the throttles are automatically retarded to idle thrust b. on climb or descent the thrust setting is determined according to the current IAS c. in Flight Level Change mode, the auto-throttle is disabled so all thrust settings must be manually selected by the pilot d. on climb, thrust will be set to Max Continuous Thrust and on descent the thrust will be set to 50% N1

In a gas turbine powered aircraft, less thrust is available for take off with: a. High density altitude b. Low density altitude c. High atmospheric pressure d. Low outside air temperature

In a gas turbine, engine thrust is produced: a. By the force required to accelerate the mass of air through the engine b. By the reaction of the impingement of exhaust gases against the outside air c. By reaction of the pressure difference between inlet and exhaust gases d. By the energy of the temperature difference between inlet and exhaust gases

In passing through the turbine section of a gas turbine engine the airflow: a. Temperature and pressure decrease b. Temperature and pressure increase c. Temperature and volume decrease d. Temperature and volume increase

In high speed flight, aileron effectiveness may be reduced because of shock wave formation near the ailerons or wing twisting by using? a. powered flight controls b. spoilers to assist roll control c. automatic coupling of rudder with aileron input d. a moderate degree of sweepback

The purpose of a divergent shaped inlet duct on a turbofan engine is to: a. Reduce the temperature at the engine inlet b. Increase the velocity at the engine inlet c. Increase static pressure at the engine inlet d. Increase the by-pass ratio at low forward speed

The greatest reduction in take off distance of a gas turbine powered aircraft would occur with: a. Low outside temperature, low QNH and low humidity b. High outside temperature, high QNH and high humidity c. High outside temperature, low QNH and low humidity d. Low outside temperature, high QNH and low humidity e. Low outside temperature, low QNH and high humidity

The by-pass ratio of a gas turbine engine is best described as: a. The ratio of by-pass air to total air b. The ratio of total air to by-pass air c. The ratio of core air to by-pass air d. The ratio of by-pass air to core air

The system used in large aircraft to prevent over stressing of the trailing edge flaps is the -: a. flap assymetry system b. flap synch system c. flap lockout system d. flap load relief system e. flap brake

An advantage of Nickel Cadmium (NiCad) batteries compared to lead acid type batteries in a jet transport aircraft installation is: a. Less corrosion hazard b. Faster recharge c. Higher load capacity d. No ventilation required

The electrical connection of ground AC power to the electrical system of a jet transport aircraft may be prevented when: a. The aircraft APU is running b. The aircraft engines are running c. The aircraft generators are powering the electrical system d. The aircraft is not correctly earthed

If an aircraft generator constant speed drive (CSD) is disconnected in flight, the correct method for reconnection is: a. Electrically, in flight b. Mechanically, on the ground c. Electrically, on the ground d. Mechanically, in flight

When a generator field relay (generator field switch) is tripped in a jet aircraft electrical system: a. The generator is disconnected from the CSD b. The generator excitation field is disconnected from the synchronising bus c. The voltage regulator is disconnected from the excitation field d. The generator excitation field is disconnected from its bus e. The frequency controller is disconnected from the excitation field

The source of field excitation current for a 3 phase alternator in a jet transport aircraft electrical system is: a. The main exciter b. The pilot exciter c. The permanent magnet generator (PMG) d. The voltage regulator

In a constant frequency generator electrical system, the voltage regulator function is: a. To control the pilot exciter field current b. To control the PMG voltage c. To control the voltage of the main exciter d. To control the current of the main exciter

The main function of the reduction drive in a turbo-prop installation is: a. To convert low engine shaft horsepower (SHP) to the high SHP required by the propeller b. To convert high engine shaft horsepower (SHP) to the low SHP required by the propeller c. To convert low engine RPM to the high RPM required by the propeller d. To convert high engine RPM to the low RPM required by the propeller

Regarding the operation of a hot battery bus in a jet aircraft electrical system: a. A hot battery bus is powered by switching the battery switch on b. A hot battery bus is powered whenever a charged battery is installed in the aircraft c. A hot battery bus is only powered when the battery switch is off d. A hot battery bus operates a higher temperature than other aircraft buses

An advantage of the use of Alternating Current (AC) in a large aircraft electrical system is high voltage transmission. This permits: a. High current levels b. Lower current levels c. Minimal insulation d. No power loss

The means by which 115VAC electrical power is converted into 28VDC in a large aircraft electrical system is a: a. IRU b. CDU c. TRU d. CSD

Regarding the influence of ram effect on gas turbine engine thrust output: a. Ram effect results in a total recovery of thrust as aircraft forwards speed increases b. Ram effect results in a partial recovery of thrust as aircraft forward speed increases c. Ram effect results in partial recovery of thrust as aircraft forward speed decreases d. Ram effect results in total recovery of thrust as aircraft forward speed decreases

In a gas turbine engine, combustion is said to occur at constant: a. Pressure b. Temperature c. Volume d. Velocity

Stalling speed is relatively higher for an aircraft with wing sweep. This is because of the effective – (choose the most accurate answer) a. increase in chordwise airflow b. decrease in spanwise airflow c. decrease in chordwise airflow d. increase in spanwise airflow

A pressurised aircraft on climb reaches the maximum permitted differential pressure. If the aircraft continues to climb: a. The maximum differential pressure would be exceeded b. The differential pressure will remain constant c. The cabin altitude would remain constant d. The cabin altitude will decrease at a rate proportional to the aircraft rate of climb

An advantage of constant frequency alternators in a jet transport aircraft electrical system is: a. They do not require a voltage regulator b. They do not require a constant speed drive c. They are capable of load sharing d. They are capable of constant current output

The function of a servo-tab in a flight control system is to: a. Provide trim control b. Reduce control loads c. Prevent servo runaway d. Increase control force feedback

Why would the aileron lockout system on a jet transport aircraft display an ‘AILERON LOCKOUT’ message on EICAS: a. It informs you that the aileron lockout actuator is not in the signalled position and can also occur at VMO/MMO b. It informs you that the aileron lockout actuator is not in the signalled position and can also occur Slightly above VMO/MMO c. Slightly below VMO/MMO d. Slightly below VDF/MDF

Regarding the differences between kerosene and wide cut type aviation fuels: a. Kerosene has a higher volatility than wide cut type fuel b. Kerosene has a lower flashpoint than wide cut type fuel c. Kerosene has a higher specific gravity than wide cut type fuel d. Kerosene has a higher spontaneous ignition temperature than wide cut type fuel

An input to the auto-throttle system of a jet aircraft flight management system is: a. Pressure altitude b. True airspeed (TAS) c. Indicated airspeed (IAS) d. Density altitude

If a pilot selects maximum auto-brakes for a landing and then subsequently applies brakes manually during the landing roll: a. The auto-brakes will override manual braking b. The auto-brakes will disarm c. The auto-brakes and manual braking will both contribute to total deceleration d. The auto-brakes pressure will reduce to equal the manual brake pressure

When flying on a long range cruise schedule, as jet aircraft gross weight reduces in cruise level flight as fuel is consumed, the long range cruse (LRC) mach number will: a. Not change at a constant power setting b. Increase at a reduced power setting c. Reduce at a constant power setting d. Reduce at a reduced power setting e. Not change at a reduced power setting

Changes in aircraft gross weight and load factor resulting in a reduced manoeuvre ceiling are: a. Lower gross weight and reduced g-load b. Lower gross weight and increased g-load c. Higher gross weight and increased g-load d. Higher gross weight and reduced g-load

The secondary flight control which enhances lateral control is: a. Yaw dampers b. Leading edge flaps c. Trailing edge flaps d. Leading edge slats e. spoilers

Spiral divergence (spiral instability) is increased when: a. Lateral and directional stability are weak b. Lateral and directional stability are strong c. Lateral stability is weak and directional stability is strong d. Lateral stability is strong and directional stability is weak

Vortex generators fitted to the horizontal stabiliser of a jet transport aircraft are used to: a. Reduce turbulent flow in the boundary layer at low speeds b. Reduce induced at low speeds c. Reduce skin friction at low speeds d. Reduce flow separation at high speeds

Pneumatic actuating systems are not widely used in jet transport systems because: a. Pneumatic systems are heavier than the equivalent hydraulic system b. Compressed air is difficult to control precisely due to it being compressible and leaks are difficult to trace c. The fire risk is increased d. The reservoir must be larger

In a B767 aircraft equipped with a flight management system incorporating electronic flight instruments with two electronic attitude direction indicators (EADIs) and two horizontal situation indicators (EHSIs), the number of symbol generators (SGs) fitted is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

The statement which does not describe a correct function of a line select key on a control display unit (CDU) of a flight management computer (FMC) is: a. If the line next to a key specifies a page, function or procedure, that operation is selected by pushing the line select key b. If the line next to a key contains data which can be copied, that data is copied to the scratch pad by pushing the line select key c. If data is entered into the scratch pad which may be copied to a line, pushing the line select key will copy the scratch pad data to the line d. If the line next to a key is blank, the associated line select key function depends on the CDU page in use

Various warnings and cautions are announced to the pilot by aurals and the illumination of the master warning or master caution lights. Concerning the operation of the master warning/caution system for system faults: a. Warnings and cautions cannot be cancelled as long as the associated faults still exist b. Warnings can be cancelled but a caution cannot be cancelled as long as the associated fault still exists c. Cautions can be cancelled but a warning cannot be cancelled as long as the associated fault still exists d. Warnings and cautions can be cancelled by pressing the master warning/caution caption even if the associated faults still exist

The cabin pressurisation control system in a jet transport aircraft typically operates in two ranges. They are: a. The isobaric and differential ranges b. The positive and differential ranges c. The positive and isobaric ranges d. The negative and isobaric ranges e. The positive and negative ranges

Autopilot systems require protection against malfunctions such as control runaways. The item which is not an example of an autopilot protection system is: a. The torque limiter b. Rate damping c. Model following d. Feedback comparators e. Cross-coupled feedback

The landing gear lever lock override switch in a jet aircraft undercarriage system is located: a. In the nose wheel compartment b. On the gear panel in the cockpit c. In the undercarriage uplock system d. In the undercarriage downlock system

A constant delivery hydraulic system requires: a. A pressure accumulator b. A pressure regulator c. A shuttle valve d. A hydraulic fuse

In steady asymmetric flight in a light twin piston engined aircraft - a. bank and rudder are normally used to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine b. the slip indicator (ball) must be centred with rudder c. zero bank at zero sideslip is possible d. bank is used to balance the drag of the dead engine

Selecting bleed air on in a jet engine with no change in power lever setting will result in: a. RPM decrease b. RPM increase c. No RPM change d. EGT decrease

Reverse thrust during the landing roll on a transport jet is most effective at: a. High speed high RPM b. High speed low RPM c. Low speed low RPM d. Low speed high RPM

Vents in the fuel tanks of a transport jet aircraft are used to: a. Defuel the aircraft b. Dump fuel in an emergency c. Refuel the aircraft d. Decrease pressure between tanks

Cockpit window heating systems on jet transport aircraft use laminated glass with a middle layer of : a. Hot bleed air b. Electrically conductive material c. Hot oil d. Insulating rubber

The purpose of compressor bleed air vented overboard in a jet engine is to assist operations at: a. High RPM b. All RPM range c. Design RPM d. Low RPM

The MAP mode of a jet equipped with an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) shows: a. A static map b. Engine and system status c. Waypoints d. Fuel quantity

An example of a conditional waypoint in the database of a Flight Management System (FMS) is: a. An altitude b. A latitude and longitude c. A place bearing/distance d. A place bearing/place bearing

When a swept wing aircraft suffers a wingtip stall, the centre of pressure moves - a. inwards and forward b. outwards and aft c. inwards and backwards d. outwards and forwards

Your aircraft is at an unusually high flight level for the current gross weight and is cruising at normal cruise speed. During a manoeuvre you feel airframe buffet/ The likely cause is: a. High speed buffet because of the altitude b. Low speed buffet because of the altitude c. Either low speed or high speed buffet d. Clear air turbulence (CAT)

In supersonic airflow, static pressure behind an expansion wave will: a. Increase relative to pressure ahead of the wave b. Decrease relative to pressure ahead of the wave c. Stay the same d. Either increase or decrease depending on the direction of the flow

Regarding a flap limiter in a jet transport category aircraft: a. It senses the airspeed and retracts one stage of the flap if the speed is excessive without moving the flap lever in the cockpit b. It senses the airspeed and retracts one stage of flap if the speed is excessive by moving the flap lever in the cockpit c. It senses the G load and retracts one stage of flap if the speed is excessive without moving the flap lever in the cockpit d. It senses the G load and retracts one stage of flap if the speed is excessive by moving the flap lever in the cockpit

A Flight Director vertical mode is: a. HDG HOLD b. LOC c. SPD d. LNAV

The principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design is - a. an increase in the changes of the size of the force coefficients due to compressibility b. an increase in MCRIT c. an acceleration of the onset of compressibility effects d. a decrease in MCRIT

The device which automatically feathers the propeller in the event of engine failure during take off is the: a. Beta range b. Safety coupling c. Propeller brake d. NTS

When a pilot selects auto-brakes 3 for a landing in a jet transport category aircraft, the system: a. Will provide constant braking pressure to a complete stop or until disengaged b. Will provide constant deceleration to a complete stop or until disengaged c. Cannot be overridden by the pilot d. Cannot be adjusted to a different setting during the landing roll

The action (if any) that can override the antiskid system in a jet transport category aircraft is: a. Positioning the system to AUTO b. Positioning the system to RTO c. Manual braking d. Antiskid cannot be overridden by the pilot

The function of the pressure relief valve in a jet aircraft pressurisation system is: a. To regulate cabin differential pressure within the normal range b. To keep the cabin altitude below the aircraft altitude at all times c. To protect the cabin from over pressurisation d. To prevent inadvertent pressurisation on the ground.

In order to avoid aeration of the fuel lines in a jet transport aircraft, the fuel system incorporates: a. Fuel tank vents b. Standpipes c. Baffles d. Boost pumps e. Engine pumps

Jet aircraft are commonly fitted with inboard and outboard ailerons and spoilers for roll control. Regarding ailerons: a. The inboard ailerons are always active b. The inboard ailerons are active only at low speeds c. The inboard ailerons are active only a high speeds d. The inboard ailerons are active only in combination with spoiler activity

The yaw damper of a jet transport aircraft receives its yaw information for control from: a. the attitude gyro b. the directional gyro c. the rate gyro d. the azimuth gyro

The most likely cause of a hot start in a gas turbine engine is: a. Headwind b. Tailwind c. Hot fuel d. Cold fuel

The incorrect statement concerning the effects of sweepback on aircraft performance is - a. sweepback increases trailing edge device effectiveness b. sweepback increases lateral stability c. sweepback increases directional stability d. sweepback increases the tendency for a wing to stall tip first

For a large jet transport aeroplane, the change in aircraft weight and acceleration (‘g-load’) which will cause the manoeuvre ceiling to lower is: a. Higher weight and a decrease in acceleration b. Higher weight and an increase in acceleration c. Lower weight and a decrease in acceleration d. Lower weight and an increase in acceleration

Spiral divergence (spiral instability) will occur: a. With strong directional and weak lateral stability b. With strong lateral and weak directional stability c. With strong lateral and strong directional stability d. With weak lateral and weak directional stability

Rotating wheel Hydroplaning may occur at a. a maximum speed of 9 times the square of the aircraft tyre pressure b. a minimum speed of 9 times the square root of the aircraft tyre pressure c. a minimum speed of 7 times the square root of the aircraft speed d. a maximum speed of 7 times the square of the aircraft speed

In an aircraft equipped with two flight management computers and the EHSI's selected to map mode, a failure of the Captain's (L) FMC will cause - a. the Captain's Map display to show a map flag, with an FMC FAIL message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) FMC switch, which feeds the Captain's map display from the opposite side FMC b. the Captain's Map display on the EHSI to be supplied automatically from the opposite side FMC, with an FMC FAIL message on the EHSI c. the Captain's Map display to show an FMC FAIL flag, with an FMC fail message on the CDU. The map display is automatically restored by data from the opposite side FMC d. the Captain's Map display to go blank, with a map fail message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) map switch, which feeds the Captain's map display from the opposite side EHSI

The purpose of an internal flexible seal attached to the leading edge of a control surface is to: a. Vary control forces with variations in aircraft speed b. Transmit feel forces back to the pilot c. Aerodynamically balance the control by reducing hinge moments d. Increase stick forces as load factor increases during manoeuvres

The most common type of high pressure fuel pumps used in gas turbine engine fuel systems are: a. Centripetal b. Centrifugal c. Impeller d. Swash plate e.Constant displacement

The most common type of ice protection used on modern turboprop propeller blades is: a. Pneumatic boots b. Thermal-electrical c. Thermal-hot air d. Anti-ice fluid

The function of the water separator in the cabin air conditioning system of a jet transport aircraft is: a. To remove excess moisture in the ambient air prior to entry to the cabin compressor b. To remove excess moisture in the conditioned air prior to entry into the cabin c. To prevent icing of the air in a vapour cycle system d. To prevent icing of the cooling turbine in an air cycle system

Problems related to undissolved water in the fuel system of a gas turbine engine include: a. Icing, corrosion and lower specific gravity b. Corrosion, lower specific gravity and microbial growth c. Icing, lower specific gravity and microbial growth d. Icing, corrosion and microbial growth

A jet fuel with a specific gravity of 0.80 at a given temperature will: a. Have a weight of 80 kg for 100 litres and weigh less per unit volume at higher temperature b. Have a weight of 100 kg for 80 litres and weigh less per unit volume at higher temperature c. Have a weight of 80 kg for 100 litres and weigh more per unit volume at higher temperature d. Have a weight of 100 kg for 80 litres and weigh more per unit volume at higher temperature

To control cabin pressurisation in a standby mode, the pressure controller of an air- conditioning and pressurisation system requires inputs of: a. Maximum differential pressure and cabin rate of change b. Desired aircraft altitude and aircraft rate of climb c. Desired cabin altitude and cabin rate of change d. Desired cabin altitude and aircraft rate of climb

The function of a static inverter in a constant frequency AC power generating system in a large jet transport aircraft is: a. To provide 115VAC 400 Hz power in the event of total generator failure b. To provide 28 VAC 400 Hz power to selected instruments under normal conditions c. To provide 115 VAC 400 Hz power to selected instruments under normal conditions d. To provide 28VDC power in the event of total generator failure e. To provide 28VDC power to selected instruments under normal conditions

Total Air Temperature (TAT) is used for thrust management on modern jet aircraft and is displayed on EICAS. TAT is comprised of the static outside air temperature plus an additional factor caused mainly by: a. Instrument and position errors b. ISA deviation c. Adiabatic compression d. Turbine inlet temperature e. Compressor inlet temperature

When LNAV is used to program a route within Australia between two waypoints in the database, the track the aircraft will follow is: a. A rhumb line b. A great circle c. A constant magnetic heading d. A constant bearing

The two most critical factors in determining the in flight relight capability of a turbo jet engine are - a. altitude and fuel pressure b. fuel pressure and starter torque c. altitude and airspeed d. igniter energy and starter torque

The main purpose of a hydraulic accumulator in a hydraulic system is: a. To measure fluid pressure b. To facilitate fluid flow c. To dampen out pressure fluctuations d. To store reserve fluid supply

The purpose of a hydraulic priority valve is: a. to provide part of the sequencing valve b. to shed non essential services due to a loss of system pressure c. to shed non essential services due to a loss of system fluid d. to select an alternate source of system pressure in the event of primary pressure loss

The purpose of a spring loaded relief valve in an in-line fuel filter is: a. To provide constant fuel pressure supply b. To provide fuel supply in the event of the filter becoming blocked c. To decrease fuel pressure at high power d. To reduce fluid flow rate

The type of fuel boost pumps in a gas turbine engine fuel system are usually: a. Variable displacement type pumps b. Swash plate type pumps c. Impeller/Centrifugal type pumps d. Variable RPM type pumps

A purpose of variable inlet guide vanes in a gas turbine engine is: a. To equalise the mass flow between the compressor, combustion chamber and turbine b. To increase the mass flow in the compressor for a given mass flow in the combustion chamber and turbine c. To increase the angle of attack on the front compressor blades at low engine RPM d. To increase the angle of attack on the rear turbine blades at high RPM

A purpose of bleed valves in a gas turbine engine is: a. To equalise the mass flow between the compressor, combustion chamber and turbine b. To decrease the mass flow in the compressor for a given mass flow in the combustion chamber and turbine c. To reduce the angle of attack on the front compressor blades at low engine RPM d. To increase the angle of attack on the rear turbine blades at high RPM

A compressor surge is described as: a. A stall b. An instability of air flow through the compressor c. Pressure rise in the compressor d. RPM loss

An advantage of a centrifugal compressor over an axial compressor in a gas turbine engine is: a. Increased power output b. Reduced weight c. Greater efficiency d. Simplicity

Two 12 V 36A/H batteries are connected together in parallel, the result will be an output of a. 24 V 36A/H b. 12V 36 A/H c. 24V 27 A/H d. 12V 72 A/H

The auto-throttle mode which will not provide the FMC commanded thrust setting is - a. THR HOLD b. N1 c. SPD d. IDLE

Which of the following combinations of flight director/autopilot modes is not selectable together? a. HDG SEL and V/S b. HDG SEL and ALT HOLD c. HDG HOLD and LOC d. HDG SEL and HDG HOLD

The auto-throttle and flight director are engaged and the autopilot is off during cruise. ALT HOLD is the pitch command. SPD is the auto-throttle mode. Which of the following statements is correct? a. This situation is not possible b. The auto-throttle will adjust thrust to hold a steady IAS while the flight director command bars command pitch to hold the reference altitude c. The flight director will not engage in this situation

Which is the nearest, to the maximum altitude a low altitude radio altimeter will indicate? a. 1000 ft b. 5000 ft c. 2500 ft

For which of the following will the GPWS provide no warning? a. Excessive sink rate near the ground b. An early touchdown in the landing configuration c. Going below the glide-path

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operation of auto-brakes set at level 2? a. If the pilot applies any brake pressure during the landing, the auto-brakes will disarm b. If the pilot exceeds auto-brake 2 pressure, the auto-brakes will disarm, if the pilot applies less than auto-brake 2 pressure, the system will supply auto-brake 2 pressure c. If the pilot applies any brake pressure during landing the system will continue to supply auto-brake 2 pressure

In an aircraft equipped with three autopilots, the C autopilot fails, assuming all autopilots were engaged on a coupled approach, how would the failure be indicated? a. The auto-land status enunciator (ASA) will change from LAND 3 to LAND 2 b. A synthetic voice warning will tell you c. Both the autopilots will disconnect completely

Regarding the EHSI, the difference between the display in Plan and Map mode is: a. Plan is the normally used display and shows information against a moving map background b. Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed without current track information c. Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed with the current track information at the top of the screen

Weather radar returns may be displayed on the EHSI when: a. In Map, VOR or ILS with an expanded compass scale selected b. In full compass scale has been selected c. In any mode d. In Map mode only

On the B767-300ER EHSI displays, either a full or expanded compass scale is available in which modes? a. Plan and Map b. VOR and ILS c. Plan and VOR d. Map and ILS

Which statement is correct regarding the relationship between different components of the Flight Management System (FMS)? a. Each component is depended on the other system components for its operation and cannot operate in isolation b. Each component is independent of other system components and can be used separately or in conjunction with the other system components c. The flight director must be engaged for any other system component to operate

On a conventional flight director panel (not EFIS), which of the following statements is correct with regard to the difference between the APP AUTO mode and the APP MAN mode? a. APP AUTO mode arms capture the ILS and GS when on an intercept heading and APP MAN mode commands an immediate capture of the ILS and GS with a selected intercept heading and a descent to acquire the glide-slope from above b. There is no difference between the modes for ILS capture but GS will not be captured from below in APP MAN c. APP MAN mode arms capture of the ILS and GS when on an intercept heading and APP AUTO mode commands an immediate capture of the ILS and GS with a selected intercept heading and a descent to acquire the glide-slope from above

Concerning a jet transport aircraft flying below the speed of sound - a. there is no possibility of shockwave formation on the wings or fuselage of an aircraft in subsonic cruise b. shockwaves are present at all times on an aircraft in subsonic cruise c. shockwaves maybe present on the wings at any speed below MCRIT d. shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air

The vertical deviation scale on an EHSI Map display shows the pointer at the low end of the display. This indicated that: a. The aircraft is above the descent profile and a ROD of more than 440 ft/min is required to regain the intended path b. The aircraft is above the descent profile by at least 400 ft c. The aircraft is below the descent profile and a ROC of 400 ft/min is required to regain the intended path d. The aircraft is below the descent profile by at least 400 ft

In a hydraulic system with an operating pressure of 3,000 PSI, the force exerted by a piston actuator measuring 25 cm x 25 cm is a. 100 lb b. 300 lb c. 300,000 lb d. 30,000 lb

The F/O is flying an aircraft equipped with 3 autopilots in cruise. The autopilot/s to engage are - a. L and R b. C and R c. L, C and R d. R or C only

The validity dates of navigational data contained in the FMC may be confirmed by reference to the: a. Ident page of the CDU b. Placards in the cockpit c. Flight manual d. Daily NOTAMS

On EADI flight mode enunciators, in level flight in ALT HOLD, if the SPD enunciator on the EADI changes to a blank display accompanied by an aural warning, the likely cause is: a. Auto-pilot disengagement b. Auto-throttle disengagement c. Vertical navigation mode disengagement d. Lateral navigation mode disengagement

When configured for take off, the command airspeed bug on the airspeed indicator and speed tape on the EADI is referenced to: a. V1 b. VREF c. VR d. V2

Which of the following flight modes are not able to be engaged simultaneously on a typical auto- flight system? a. THR HOLD, N1, V/S and FLCHG b. SPD, VNAV PATH, LNAV and CMD c. N1, V/S, HDG SEL and CMD d. IDLE, G/S, LOC and F/D

A jet flying a the appropriate speed for max L/D will achieve best performance for - a. rate of climb and range b. angle of climb and range c. angle of climb and endurance d. rate of climb and endurance

The auto-land status enunciator (ASA) monitors: a. Localiser integrity b. Auto-pilot systems status c. Glide-slope integrity d. The status of all air and ground systems

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the monitoring of autopilot systems via the auto-land status enunciator? a. A land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault cannot prevent the autopilot systems from making an automatic landing (fail operational) b. A land 3 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail operational) c. A land 2 indication means that the level of redundancy is such that any single fault may cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive) d. A land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail passive)

TCAS Resolution Advisories (RA’s) appear on the EHSI as: a. White filled diamonds b. Amber filled circles c. Red filled squares d. Red outlined squares

A Symbol Generator (SG) failure in an EFIS with multiple SG’s will result in: a. A warning flag on the EHSI and EADI b. A blank screen, with alternate switching required to restore the display c. A caution SG message on the CDU, but no loss of data presentation d. No change to the displays as backup is fully automated

When an aircraft equipped with a Flight Management System providing vertical navigation capability beings a descent, a vertical deviation indicator shows deviation from the FMC computed profile. During a VNAV PATH descent with no speed restrictions, if unexpected tail winds are encountered, which of the following statements is correct? a. The speed brakes will automatically extend to compensate for the tail wind and maintain the profile b. The aircraft will exceed its limit speed to maintain the profile c. A ‘drag required’ message is displayed on the CDU, prompting the crew to extend speed brakes d. The aircraft will immediately leave the profile or reduce thrust to maintain selected speed

Which of the following cannot be accepted as a waypoint by the FMC? a. Conditional waypoints b. Waypoints already behind the aircraft’s present position c. Waypoints off the current track d. Waypoint containing more than 5 characters

Selecting a negative decision height (DH) on the EADI will cause: a. The DH display to change to magenta and the radio altitude (RA) readout to change to green b. The DH display to change to amber and the RA readout to remain unaffected c. The DH to go blank and the RA readout to remain unaffected d. The DH display and the RA readout to go blank

Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the cancellation of GPWS warnings and alerts when in the excessive terrain closure rate mode and not in the landing configuration? a. The warning is silenced when the closure rate envelope penetration no longer exists but the alert requires a barometric altitude gain to be silenced b. The alert is silenced when the closure rate envelope penetration no longer exists but the warning requires a barometric altitude gain to be silenced c. Positive pilot action will silence both the warning and the alert d. Reducing the closure rate will silence the warning, but the alert requires a heading alteration to be silenced

An aircraft is flying with its CG at the forward limit. Compared with flying the aircraft at it's aft limit, the induced drag is – a. the same b. lesser c. greater d. independent of the gross weight

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the validity periods of FMC databases? a. The navigation and performance databases have a 28 day period of validity b. The navigation database has a 28 day period of validity and the performance database is updated as required c. The performance database has a 28 day period of validity and the navigation database is updated as required d. The navigation and performance databases are updated as required

When an aircraft is climbed or descended using the Flight Level Change function of the auto flight system, what thrust settings are used by the auto-throttle system? a. On climb, thrust is automatically set to a maximum of climb thrust and on descent, the throttles are automatically retarded to a minimum of idle thrust b. On climb or descent the thrust setting is determined according to the current IAS c. In Flight Level Change mode, the auto-throttle is disabled so all thrust settings must be manually selected by the pilot d. On climb, thrust will be set to Max Continuous Thrust and on descent to 50%N1

If a reduced thrust take-off is programmed into a flight management computer using the assumed temperature method, which of the following statements is correct regarding thrust output in the event of an engine failure after V1? a. The pilot must manually increase the thrust on the live engine/s following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients for obstacle clearance b. The auto-throttle will automatically increase the thrust on the live engine/s following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients for obstacle clearance c. The reduced thrust output of the remaining engine/s will provide net obstacle clearance at all temperatures below ISA d. The reduced thrust output from the remaining engine/s will be sufficient to provide the required climb gradients for obstacle clearance without needing to increase thrust

With reference to the AP/FDS shown in the examination booklet: a. The vertical speed mode may be de-selected by selecting altitude hold b. Altitude hold may be de-selected by rotating the vertical speed wheel c. The altitude select knob will de-select altitude hold immediately d. The vertical speed window always indicates climbs or descents at standard rate

If the screen display of the EFIS suddenly changes to a blank display, the likely cause is: a. Total FMC failure b. CRT over-temp, power failure or SG failure c. Air data computer malfunction d. Faulty EFIS brightness control

With the airspeed window on the AFDS panel blanked, the command airspeed bug is being controlled by: a. The FMC b. The ADC c. The speed selector d. The autopilot

In a gas turbine engine at engine design RPM - a. an OAT increase leads to thrust decrease b. an OAT decrease leads to thrust decrease c. an OAT increase leads to thrust increase d. humidity increase leads to thrust increase

On an EICAS display with multiple pages of messages, pushing the Cancel switch will: a. Cancel all messages b. Cancel cautions and advisories from the current page and display the next page with warnings carried over from the previous page c. Cancel warnings and advisories from the current page and display the next page with cautions carried over from the previous page d. Cancel cautions and warnings from the current page and display the next page with advisories carried over from the previous page

The function of the Recall switch in the EICAS is to: a. Recall warnings which may have been cancelled accidentally b. Recall advisory messages from previous pages, if the associated fault still exists c. Recall caution and advisory messages that had been cancelled, if the associated fault still exists d. Display all EICAS messages on page one

Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the cancellation of GPWS warnings and alert when in the excessive terrain closure rate mode and not in the landing configuration? a. The warning is silenced when the closure rate envelope penetration no longer exists but the alert requires a barometric altitude gain to be silenced b. The alert is silenced when the closure rate envelope penetration no longer exists but the warning requires a barometric altitude gain to be silenced c. Positive pilot action will silence both the warning and the alert

The warning systems on the flight deck of a modern transport category aircraft generate a variety of sounds to alert the crew to specific problems. Which sound indicates an engine fire warning? a. A bell b. A siren c. A wailer d. A voice

A fly by wire system of control as used on the latest generation of jet transport aircraft uses: a. Electrical signals and wires in place of linkages and cables to connect the control surface actuating rams to the flight deck controls b. Wire cables instead of solid linkages to provide manual reversions capability c. A combination of electrical signals and mechanical linkages from the control column to move the control surfaces

The unsafe take-off configuration warning system on a large jet transport aircraft will activate when the thrust levers are advanced for take-off and an incorrect selection is made on the: a. Flaps and spoilers, stabilizer trim or brakes b. Flaps, gear, elevator trim, brakes or flight director c. Spoilers, gear selector, stabilizer trim or GPWS d. EADI, EHSI, auto-throttle or stabiliser trim

TCAS Resolution Advisories are inhibited during operations with one engine inoperative because: a. The aircraft may not have the climb performance required to satisfy the RA commands b. The RA would be too distracting for the crew in a high workload situation c. TCAS provides automatic RA separation commands to the other aircraft so no avoidance actions are necessary d. The RA pitch commands may cause the speed to decay below VYSE

Which of the following GPWS modes can generate both hard and soft warnings? a. ‘Excessive descent rate’ and ‘below glide-slope deviation’ b. ‘Excessive terrain closure rate’ and ‘unsafe terrain clearance not in landing configuration’ c. ‘Altitude loss after take-off or go around” and ‘below glide-slope deviation’ d. ‘Excessive descent rate’ and ‘excessive terrain closure rate’

Which of the following warnings have priority over TCAS resolution advisories (RA’s)? a. Stall b. Wind-shear c. GPWS d. All of the above

The Landing Configuration Warning system of a B767-300ER aircraft is activated when the landing gear is not down and locked with a speed less than 190kt and: a. Either thrust lever is retarded to idle below 1,200 ft radio altitude b. Both thrust levers are retarded to idle or any flap setting is selected below 1,200 ft radio altitude c. Any flap setting is selected below 1,000 ft radio altitude d. Landing flaps are not selected below 500 ft radio altitude

Which of the following statements is correct, regarding the colours used on the EICAS display to indicate relative urgency of crew alerts? a. Warnings are red, cautions are amber, advisories are cyan b. Warnings and cautions are red, advisories are amber c. Warnings are red, cautions and advisories are amber d. Warnings, cautions and advisories are amber

The Master Caution Lights of a typical jet transport category aircraft are inhibited for all cautions during which part of take-off? a. Nose gear lift off to nose gear lift off + 20 seconds or 400 ft radio altitude, whichever occurs first b. VR to 400 ft radio altitude c. 80 kts to nose gear lift off + 20 seconds or 400 ft radio altitude, whichever occurs first d. V1 to 400 ft radio altitude or nose gear lift off + 10 seconds, whichever occurs first

The main difference between blocker type and clamshell type engine thrust reversers is - a. none, both operate to reverse the fan air b. none, both operate to reverse the engine air c. blockers reverse fan air and clamshells reverse engine air d. blockers reverse engine air and clamshells reverse fan air

Concerning aircraft CG position - a. at the aft limit the aircraft is less stable b. at the aft limit the aircraft is more stable c. at the forward limit the aircraft is less stable d. the position of the CG has no effect on aircraft stability

Why is the APU compressor mass air flow greater than is needed to run itself? a. Because of the extra cooling needed b. Because it needs to supply the hydraulic system c. So that bleed air is available in large quantities for use by the pneumatic system d. To keep the exhaust noise to reasonable levels

What is the main difference between blocker type and clamshell type engine thrust reversers? a. None, both operate to reverse the fan air b. None, both operate to reverse the engine air c. Blockers reverse fan air and clamshells reverse engine air d. Blockers reverse engine air and clamshells reverse fan air

In a gas turbine engine, how does the thrust produced at engine design RPM vary? a. An OAT decrease leads to thrust decrease b. An OAT increase leads to thrust increase c. An OAT increase leads to thrust decrease d. Humidity increases leads to thrust increase

The function of a reverse current relay in a jet aircraft electrical system is to - a. De-energise the generator field b. Reverse the current flow direction c. Isolate the generator in the event of reverse current flow d. Permit current to flow in the reverse direction

Reverse thrust is not used at low forward aircraft speed because: a. Of excessive vibration b. It is too effective at low speeds c. Hot or turbulent air can lead to engine damage through the ingestion of foreign objects d. It is a waste of fuel

Rotating wheel Hydroplaning may occur at: a. A maximum speed of 9 times the square of the aircraft tyre pressure b. A minimum speed of 7 times the square root of the aircraft speed c. A maximum speed of 7 times the square of the aircraft speed d. A minimum speed of 9 times the square root of the aircraft tyre pressure

In a modern turbo-prop powered aircraft the power lever is used to control: a. Pitch and torque in the Beta range b. Pitch only in the reverse thrust range c. Pitch and torque in the normal flight (Alpha) range d. Pitch and torque in all operating ranges

The fuel boost pumps in a jet transport category aircraft fuel system are located - a. in the fuel manifold b. in the fuel tanks c. in the nacelle d. in the fuel control unit

On the MAP mode of the B767 EHSI display, the aircraft current position is depicted by - a. different symbols at different ranges b. the centre of the triangle symbol c. the apex of the triangle symbol d. the base of the triangle symbol

Windscreen rain repellent fluid is used in some installations to assist visibility. Which of the following is a limitation on its use? a. It should not be used in conjunction with windscreen heating systems b. It should not be used on a dry windscreen as it could smear and reduce forward vision c. It should not be used in conjunction with wipers d. It should only be used airborne

What would be the first indication of a successful light-off (light-up) in a gas turbine engine? a. Increasing N1 RPM b. Increasing N2 RPM c. Increasing TGT d. Increasing EPR

The inlet duct of a jet engine at subsonic speeds is designed to convert - a. potential energy into pressure energy b. kinetic energy into potential energy c. potential energy into kinetic energy d. kinetic energy into pressure energy

What is the reason for the use of oil/fuel heat exchangers in the fuel system of a large turbine powered aircraft? a. To prevent fuel vaporization b. To prevent ice formation clogging the fuel lines c. To prevent ice formation clogging the fuel filter d. To heat the oil and prevent excessive viscosity

The fuel quantity indicating system on a modern jet transport aircraft may use capacitance type probes with compensators. The compensators are designed to correct for variations in fuel a. viscosity b. volatility c. density d. temperature

Which of the following correctly lists advantages of air spray nozzles in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine compared to conventional fuel nozzles? a. Reduced carbon build up, cleaner combustion, and more even mixture distribution b. Cooler distribution temperatures and leaner mixtures c. Better flame stabilisation and better cooling d. Hotter combustion temperatures and leaner mixtures

A cockpit voice recorder provides a record of the: a. Captain’s radio transmissions between take off and landing b. Captain’s and first officer’s radio calls and cockpit dialogue with engines running c. Flight crew’s voices and radio transmission from ATC in the air only d. Sound in the flight deck including voices when power is supplied to the cockpit

A digital flight data recorder provides a record of: a. Airframe configuration, engine parameter, attitude information and ADC data b. Control position, airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude and ADC data c. Airspeed, altitude, heading, and cockpit voices d. Airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude, ADC data, and cockpit voices

A central air data computer (CADC) fitted to an aircraft receives: a. Static and pitot pressure from the pitot head and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the flight management system b. Electrical signals from the pitot head and converts this data into static and pitot pressure for instrument displays and use by the flight management system c. Static and pitot pressure from the instrument display and converts this data into electrical signals for the pitot head and use by the flight management system d. Static and pitot pressure from the flight management system and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the pitot head

The artificial feel system of a powered flight control system operates by feeding back control forces based on -: a. the difference between static pressure and pitot pressure b. the difference between ambient pressure and dynamic pressure c. the difference between static pressure and dynamic pressure d. the difference between ambient pressure and total pressure

A Flight Management Computer (FMC) uses data from a variety of sources which may be termed internal or external. An example of an external input would be - a. spiral stability b. airspeed c. roll rate d. pitch rate

Hydraulic fluid pumps are lubricated and cooled by: a. Turbine oil b. Hydraulic fluid c. Air d. Turbine fuel

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operation of the ground proximity warning system? a. A hard warning is not always preceded by a soft warning b. A soft warning is always followed by a hard warning c. All modes provided both hard and soft warnings d. All modes provide hard warnings

The speed of operation of pneumatic brake systems compared to a hydraulic brake systems is - a. faster for application and increased pressure for the same operating pressure b. slower for application and increased pressure for the same operating pressure c. slower for application and less force transmitted for the same operating pressure d. faster for application and less pressure for the same operating pressure

The main advantage of kerosene compared to wide cut type fuel for use in a gas turbine engine is that kerosene has a relatively - a. lower volatility and higher flash point b. lower flash point and lower volatility c. higher volatility and lower flash point d. higher flash point and higher volatility

The purpose of a divergent passage in a gas turbine engine is to: a. Raise velocity, lower pressure and lower temperature b. Lower velocity, raise pressure and raise temperature c. Lower velocity, lower pressure and lower temperature d. Raise velocity, raise pressure and raise temperature

Which of the following is a method of airflow control in an axial flow compressor of a gas turbine engine? a. Variable nozzle guide vanes b. Variable propelling nozzles c. Variable stator vanes d. Variable rotor blades

Which of the following is an advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal flow compressor in a gas turbine engine? a. Shorter length b. High compression ratio c. More resistant to foreign object damage d. Cheaper to manufacture

High speed buffet boundary for a jet transport category aircraft will increase with an increase in - a. altitude b. fuel burn c. gross weight d. mach number

An aircraft in level flight with a relatively forward centre of gravity, compared to a rear centre of gravity will have - a. more induced drag b. less induced drag c. reduced longitudinal stability d. more parasite drag

Modern airline aircraft have tubeless tyres fitted with fusible alloy plugs. The function of the plugs is to provide - a. an emergency plug for a puncture inflicted on landing b. pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat - c. temperature cooling during conditions of excessive tyre heat d. indication of excessive hard braking during landing e. allow heat to escape without deflating the tyre

On an EADI the ATT flag appears. Other affected elements of the display are - a. pitch and roll information and flight director bars b. pitch and roll information, flight director bars and glide-slope and localiser deviation c. pitch and roll information d. all display symbols

Which element of the antiskid brake system provides protection for the hydraulic system against damage from antiskid brake operation? a. The hydraulic shut off valve b. The modulator valve c. The non return valve d. The accumulator

The speed in a jet aircraft which is not controlled by auto throttle is - a. approach speed b. vertical speed c. descent speed d. engine rotation speed e. cruise speed

The interlocks in the reverse thrust system of a jet engine prevent: a. Selection of reverse thrust during the take off roll b. Full reverse thrust if the reverser is not in the full reverse position c. Selection of reverse thrust at low power d. Selection of reverse thrust at low speed

If thermocouples are used in parallel to measure the temperature in a jet engine, the temperature shown will be: a. The maximum temperature of all probes on the circuit b. The total of all the temperatures c. The average temperature of all probes on the circuit d. The minimum temperature of all probes on the circuit

On the typical EHSI display, the vertical deviation indicator shows variation from the profile during a descent. When the cursor reaches the extreme bottom end of the scale the aircraft is - a. 400 ft above the profile b. 400 ft below the profile c. 1000 ft above the profile d. 1000 ft below the profile

The correct statement is - a. VR must always be greater than V1 b. the take-off should be rejected before V1 if an engine fails c. V1 may be increased to a maximum of VR, if surplus runway/stop-way is available d. the take-off should not normally be rejected above V1 if an engine fails

In steady asymmetric flight in a light twin piston engined aircraft - a. the slip indicator (ball) must be centred with rudder b. zero bank at zero sideslip is possible c. bank is used to balance the drag of the dead engine d. bank and rudder are normally used to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine

The incorrect statement concerning the effects of sweepback on aircraft performance is a. sweepback increases lateral stability b. sweepback increases directional stability c. sweepback increases trailing edge device effectiveness d. sweepback increases the tendency for a wing to stall tip first

With regard to a conventional flight instrument display when an aircraft is on an ILS - a. the TO/FROM indicator is not displayed b. no manual pitch control is available c. altitude hold is not available d. the TO/FROM indicator covered by a red warning flag

With respect to yaw damper operation in an aircraft with two independent yaw dampers, which are used in all flight conditions a. only one yaw damper operates at any one time with the other available as a backup with the rudder pedals moving as the yaw damper inputs are made b. both systems operate when desired to improve lateral stability and cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made c. both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made d. both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and do not cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made

What indicates that self sustaining speed has been achieved during the start cycle of a large gas turbine turbofan engine? a. The EGT first rises b. The turbine first starts to drive the compressor c. The starter disengages d. The pressure starts to rise in the compressor

A rupture of the starboard engine bleed air pneumatic duct, which supplies wing and engine anti ice will result in a DUCT LEAK caution message on the EICAS, and an associated DUCT LEAK light to illuminate. The correct response to this situation would be to a. shut down the right hand side engine to prevent structural damage to the interior of the wing b. increase bleed air flow on the left engine to ensure adequate supply for anti ice operation c. isolate the leak and turn off the bleed source to prevent structural damage d. decrease bleed air flow to prevent overheating of the interior wing structures

The specific gravity (SG) of a particular turbine fuel is 0.787. This means that - a. 100 kg of the fuel will occupy a volume of 78.7 ltr b. 1000 kg of the fuel will occupy a volume of 787 ltr c. 100 ltr of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg d. 1000 ltr of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg

The function of a restrictor valve fitted to the landing gear by hydraulic system of a large jet aircraft is to: a. Prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension b. Prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear retraction c. Shut off fluid supply in the event of a leak d. Reduce the operating pressure of the system

In a large jet transport category aircraft, fuel moving around in the tanks could cause uncommanded attitude changes after pitching or rolling manoeuvres. This is prevented by - a. baffles in the fuel tanks b. high speed fuel pumps c. fuel orifices d. flying the aircraft in balance during all stages of flight

The cabin negative pressure relief valve will open if: a. The cabin pressure exceeds the ambient outside air pressure b. The aircraft reaches maximum differential pressure c. The ambient outside pressure exceeds the cabin pressure

If the FMC detects a difference between the FMC computed (calculated) fuel quantity and the fuel gauge indicated (sensed) quantity, the system will - a. automatically use the higher value for subsequent navigational computations b. alert the pilot(s) to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message c. automatically use the lower value for subsequent navigational computations d. recalibrate the sensed fuel quantity shown on EICAS to agree with the computed quantity

Which statements is INCORRECT regarding a “vapour cycle” air conditioning system? a. Fluid/gas flow rate through the system is affected by modulation of the expansion valve b. The thermostatic regulator controls expansion valve movements c. The primary purpose of the boot-strapped compressor is to separate high and low system pressures d. The expansion valve allows low pressure fluid to be released into the evaporator at higher pressure, which in turn causes the fluid to revert to vapour

An ‘auto-land 2’ passive failure while on approach means: a. You will have to manually fly the approach with raised minima and/or missed approach b. The remaining autopilot will continue the approach and you can remain passive c. The remaining 2 autopilot’s will continue the approach d. None of the above are correct

What type of aircraft requires artificial rain removal methods for the windscreen? a. All turbine powered aircraft b. All aircraft other than single engine aircraft with tractor type propellers c. All aircraft with take off weight in excess of 5700 kg

The term viscosity refers to a fluids: a. Resistance to flow b. Resistance to forming corrosive elements within it c. Specific gravity d. Coefficient of friction

An emergency hydraulic pump would draw its fluid from: a. The accumulator b. The standpipe within the reservoir c. The base of the reservoir d. The emergency reservoir

What is the primary function of the hydraulic reservoir? a. To provide a reserve of fluid in case of system leakage b. To contain enough fluid for all system user units to be operated simultaneously c. To provide a reserve of pressure at times when the pump cannot cope with demand d. To retain excess fluid when the demand on the pump is less than pump output maxima

When considering hydroplaning speed when aircraft gross weight is increased, it can be said that: a. The speed will not change significantly b. The speed will increase c. The speed will decrease

What is the over-pressure, which an aircraft cabin must be designed to withstand? a. The maximum differential pressure b. The pressure differential that relates to the altitude limits imparted by engine cruise thrust limits c. 1.33 times the maximum differential pressure d. Twice the maximum differential pressure

Within a hydraulic system, a check valve? a. Assist in trapping solid particles, in association with filter and sumps b. Ensure fluid reversal does not occur c. Provide a timing device, whereby certain units operate in a certain order d. Provide an alternative fluid pressure source to supply key units, without manual selection being required

Compared to an air cycle machine, the vapour cooling system is: a. Is capable of supplying cooling b. Can supply the same degree of cooling to the same volume of air space c. Is able to supply a greater degree of cooling to the same volume of air space

The primary reason for complying to maximum brake temperature limitations prior to the take commencing is to ensure: a. That wheel well fire does not occur after undercarriage retraction b. That enough brake energy is available for a high speed rejected take off c. That thermal plug does not melt

The cabin pressure alarm will activate when cabin altitude exceeds: a. 10,000 ft b. 14,000 ft c. 13,000 ft d. Maximum differential

The altitude altering system will activate a warning if the aircraft deviates: a. More than 1,000 ft from the selected cruise altitude b. More than 300 ft from the selected cruise altitude c. Whenever maximum cabin differential is exceeded

When operating in the isobaric range the cabin pressurisation controller maintains the cabin at: a. The maximum differential pressure b. A constant pressure altitude c. A constant pressure differential d. A constant rate of climb

Pneumatic type ice protection system should be operated: a. Before icing is encountered b. After approximately 6 mm of ice as accreted onto the surface c. Any time that the area forecast indicates that you are above the freezing level, even in clear air d. As soon as visible ice forms

In an air cycle machine, which device ensures that air entering the system for processing, is cooled to an acceptable temperature? a. The expansion valve b. A heat exchanger c. The expansion turbine d. The mixing valve

For primary controls, heavy transport aircraft such as the B767-300ER must have how many means of actuation? a. Three means, but they can use one hydraulic reservoir b. Two means, but they must have no system components in common c. Three entirely separate means

Artificial feel: a. Only operates in the low speed flight regime, around approach speeds b. Provides a measure of feedback to the pilot as to the loads being imparted on the controls, and senses dynamic pressures c. Only operates at high Mach numbers, and automatically provides a nose up trim to prevent Mach tuck

The purpose of the interconnectors between the combustion chambers in a gas turbine engine is a. to provide pressure equalisation and consistent fuel propagation b. to provide pressure equalisation and flame propagation c. to provide temperature equalisation and flame propagation d. to provide temperature equalisation and consistent fuel propagation

Inputs to the yaw damper are best summarised as: a. CADC plus pilot rudder deflection b. CADC and Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) c. IRS detected pitch altitude, and the CADC

In an aircraft fitted with a “Series Type” yaw damper system? a. The pilots rudder pedals move in conjunction with yaw damper inputs b. They can NOT be turned on when on take off roll, whereas parallel types can c. They are normally turned on during all phases of flight. The pilot rudder pedals will NOT move in response to yaw damper movements

Landing flap overload occurs. The observations are: a. The flap remains at its present position, but the flap lever in the cockpit moves to lesser values b. The flap retracts to a lesser setting, the cockpit flap lever does NOT move, and the flap remains at the reduced setting despite speed reduction to less than limit speed c. The flap retracts to lesser setting, the cockpit flap lever does NOT move, and the flap returns to the original setting as speed reduces to less than speed limit

In the vapour cycle air conditioning system, what happens to the refrigerant when it expands? a. Its pressure and temperature will drop b. It changes to a gas c. It changes to a liquid d. Its boiling point becomes higher

Large aircraft DC electrical systems operate on a regulated voltage of: a. 115 volts b. 28 volts c. 12 volts d. 24 volts

Normally the flight director bars are in view when the autopilot is flying the aircraft. This is because: a. The pilots need to be informed of autopilot intentions prior to them occurring b. The autopilot takes its command from the flight director unit c. It is the means by which the pilot is informed of autopilot engagement

In a typical EFIS, which display unit advises the pilot of the modes of autopilot is engaged in? a. The EHSI panel b. The CDU panel c. The AFDS panel d. The FMA on the EADI

Ina typical EFIS, which display unit can display both current airspeed and Mach number? a. The EADI b. The EHSI c. The AFDS speed window

During high speed flight, the aileron lockout fail message appears. This means: a. That only inboard ailerons will continue move with control yoke roll inputs at high speed b. That one or both outboard ailerons will continue to move at high speed, with control yoke inputs c. That a return to low speed flight would see the outboard ailerons NOT respond to control yoke roll inputs, leaving only inboard ailerons and rolls spoilers to effect roll

During return to low speed flight, the aileron ‘lockout fail’ message appears. This means that: a. All ailerons will continue to move, with control yoke roll inputs b. All inboard ailerons will not operate during the approach c. One or both outboard ailerons will not operate during the approach d. The inboard ailerons will NOT deflect as flaps, when flaps are lowered

If all other pre-conditions are met, and spoiler lever set to DOWN position, what factor would see lift dumpers deploy? a. Wheel brakes applied b. Reverse thrust selected c. Nose gear touchdown prior to main wheels d. Forward thrust being applied

Which statement is most incorrect about the rudder? a. During normal operations, a speed input from the CADC alters rudder deflection b. A ratio changer is incorporated to reduce rudder deflection at low airspeeds c. A rudder ratio changer fault causes one of the three hydraulic actuators to the rudder to depressurise to prevent over-stressing at high airspeeds

Which statement is NOT correct? a. Alternate flap takes longer for flap to deflect to any commanded position than normal flap b. A GPWS “Too Low – Flap” aural may be heard on engine out approaches c. Failure of the leading edge devices to deploy will cause a higher approach speed and higher nose angle on approach, with increased cockpit cut-off angle d. With leading edge devices deployed fully, but trailing edges not deployed, you would expect a higher approach speed, and increased cockpit cut-off angle

If an aircraft is disturbed in pitch, and it continues to diverge through oscillation over time, from its initial position, this aircraft demonstrates? a. Positive longitudinal static stability, and negative dynamic stability b. Negative lateral static stability, and positive dynamic stability c. Neutral longitudinal static stability, and neutral dynamic stability d. Positive directional static stability, and positive dynamic stability

An increase in stability about a given axis would afford: a. Increased controllability b. Decreased controllability c. Controllability unchanged

An aircraft with a C of G forward of the centre of the lift, that is disturbed positively in pitch, will demonstrate what upon releases of the control column: a. A continued increase in angle of attack, and positive longitudinal static stability b. A decrease in angle of attack, and positive longitudinal static stability c. A positive pitching moment, and neutral longitudinal static stability d. A negative pitching moment, decreased angle of attack, and static longitudinal instability

To maintain reasonable directional stability the higher and faster an aircraft flies, from a design point of view you could? a. Increase the vertical fin area, and extend the permitted rear loading envelope aft b. Decrease the vertical fin area, and extend the permitted rear loading envelope aft c. Increase the vertical fin area, and position the C of G further forward

Increasing rearward wing sweep angle: a. Improve lateral stability, and counters spiral divergence b. Reduces lateral stability, and make the aircraft more prone to entering the incipient spin c. Reduces effectiveness dihedral, and reduces dutch roll tendency

A tendency toward spiral divergences could be countered in a design by: a. Increasing wing sweep or dihedral, but at the risk of increasing dutch roll tendency b. Reducing wing sweep, or dihedral but at the risk of increasing dutch roll tendency c. Increasing the area of the vertical tail, and reducing static lateral stability

Which answer is most correct regarding Flight Data Recorder (FDR’s) and CVR’s minimum data recording record? a. FDR’s must record at least the previous 30 minutes of flight data, CVR’s the last 25 hours of cockpit audio data b. Both FDR’s and CVR’s must record events over at least the previous 25 hours c. FDR’s must record at least the last 25 hours of operational data, and CVR’s at least the previous 30 minutes of the cockpit audio data

Cockpit voice recorders (CVR’s) begin recording: a. Whenever power is provided to the cockpit b. When the first engine is started c. When the communication radios are turned ON d. When the last engine is started

Which statement is most correct regarding the use of rain repellent? a. It should be applied to a dry screen, and then wipers activated to “spread” the fluid over the wiped area b. It can be used to remove dust, insects and the like, off a dry windscreen c. It was designed to be used in conjunction with wipers, when the wipers alone cannot cope

Which answer is most correct regarding windscreen ice protection? a. Windscreens are heated by thermal bleed air from the engines, directed at the base of the windscreen b. Windscreens are more brittle when hot, and cannot deflect bird-strikes so well in that condition c. Most modern aircraft windscreen use fluid type de-ice, which doubles as a rain repellent d. Most modern aircraft use electric de-ice/anti-ice and are better able to survive bird impacts if heat is selected on e. Where high and low windscreen settings are provided, you should select low first, then high. High produces a higher windscreen peak temperature than does the low setting

The B767 EICAS system indicates that there is a duct leak in the left wing anti-ice. Which answer best describes your correct actions, if any? a. Shut down the left engine to stop bleed air flow b. Take no action, as it is only an advisory message, and no damage would result c. Shut off the left wing anti-ice selector valve to prevent damage to aircraft structure

Which answer best describes the effect of a blocked pitot during a climb? a. The airspeed indicator could over-read b. The airspeed indicator could still read correctly c. Shut off the left wing anti-ice selector valve to prevent damage to aircraft structure

The leading edge anti-ice system has failed on a large swept wing jet aircraft. Which answer is most correct if the aircraft is approaching to land in icing conditions? a. The aircrew do not need to take any corrective action as regardless approach speed b. The crew should approach at a lower speed, and with no flap selected c. The crew should approach at a higher speed, as stall speed may be higher, and stick shaker operation may be compromised

Ice is prevented from forming in fuel by: a. Heating the fuel in the tank by the fuel/oil heat exchanging process b. The provision of ice inhibiting chemicals in the fuel, and the heating of fuel in the fuel lines c. Electrically heating the contents of the fuel tanks d. Providing hot bleed air to the air space above the fuel level in the fuel tanks e. Kinetic heating only

You have selected ‘TA’ on your TCAS 2 mode control panel. Which answer is most correct if you encounter a TCAS equipped aircraft? a. Both TA’s and RA’s will be issued visually and aurally b. RA’s will NOT be issued aurally or visually. The highest level of symbology is a yellow circle TA c. There will be no change, RA’s are always issued under all circumstances

What factor effects the runway PCN? a. Aircraft landing weight only b. Aircraft gross weight and tyre pressure c. The load bearing qualities of the runway surface and sub-grade material d. The tyre pressure, number of tyres and the aircraft gross weight

UNSW 1 Flashcards

(500 cards)