AFT Flashcards by Ben Griffin

You would expect to find the highest gas velocity in a turbojet engine -
a. at the face of the compressor
b. leaving the diffuser
c. entering the turbine
d. at the end of the exhaust nozzle

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The purpose of a diffuser ni a gas turbine engine is to -
a. lower pressure and lower temperature
b. raise pressure and lower velocity
c. raise pressure and raise velocity
d. raise density and lower temperature

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The correct statement regarding the variations of MSL ful throttle thrust of a jet engine is -
a. thrust increases as air temperature increases
b. thrust decreases as air temperature increases
c. thrust increases as humidity increases
d. thrust increases as air pressure decreases

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You would expect to find the highest gas pressure ni a turbojet engine -
a. in the diffuser
b. at the beginning of the jet pipe
c. at the last stage of the turbine
d. at the inlet of the compressor

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You would expect to find the highest gas temperature in a turbojet engine -
a. in the jet pipe
b. at the end of the compressor
c. in the combustion chamber
d. at the last stage of the turbine

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The ‘Engine Core’ of a turbofan engine refers to -
a. the fan
b. the compressor, combustion chambers, turbines and exhaust
c. the N1 spool
d. the accessory drive shaft

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The maximum thrust output of a turbojet engine wil increase with -
a. a decrease in ambient air temperature
b. a decrease in ambient air pressure
c. a decrease in ambient air density
d. an increase in ambient air temperature

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The effect an increase in altitude alone wil have on the Low Pressure compressor of a gas turbine engine if constant thrust is maintained is -
a. it will stall more readily
b. discharge pressure will increase
c. rpm will decrease
d. rpm will increase

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A pure turbojet engine in comparison to a turbofan engine has -
a. a bypass ratio less than 1:1
b. a bypass ratio more than 1:1
c. no bypass air
d. a reduction gearbox for the compressor

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Subsonic gas flow decreases ni velocity and increases ni pressure when flowing through -
a. a convergent duct
b. a divergent duct
c. a parallel duct
d. a helical duct

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Ram effect -
a. has a negligible effect on the efficiency of a jet engine as aircraft speed varies
b. lowers the efficiency of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases
c. raises the thrust output of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases
d. cools the air as it enters the engine intake

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In passing through the turbine section of a pure turbojet engine -
a. gas pressure, velocity and temperature all decrease
b. gas pressure increases, velocity falls and temperature increases
c. gas pressure remains constant and the temperature increases
d. gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temperature decreases

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Tertiary creep in a turbine blade of a gas turbine engine means -
a. blade creep experienced on the test bench by the manufacturer
b. normal blade creep over the life of the engine
c. blade creep to the point where it would be detrimental to continue to run the engine
d. an unruly university graduate performing unscheduled engine maintenance

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Gas turbine engine compressor stall may be caused by -
a. prolonged ground running with air intake guard screens fitted
b. an unserviceable igniter plug
c. an unstable airflow through the compressor

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The maximum gas pressure in a gas turbine is obtained -
a. in the cooling airflow around the flame tube
b. within the combustion chamber
c. at the entry to the exhaust unit
d. at the compressor exit

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For a given RPM, thrust output from a gas turbine engine wil be greatest -
a. at MSL under ISA conditions
b. at high altitude
c. at MSL under ISA plus temperatures

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If compressor blade stall occurs ni a gas turbine engine -
a. the compressor ceases to rotate
b. the smooth flow of air over the blading breaks away and causes an interruption of airflow through the engine
c. the fuel flow to the burners wil cease immediately

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The purpose of variable inlet guide vanes ni a gas turbine engine is to -
a. prevent turbine blade stall at high engine rpm
b. prevent compressor blade stall during operation off design rpm
c. prevent ice entering the engine
d. prevent excessive cooling due to large mass air flow through the engine

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Turbojet aircraft range increases as altitude increases toward the optimum LF because at high altitude -
a. the decrease in mass airflow permits an increased fuel/air ratio
b. the higher ambient temperature results in a greater pressure rise through
c. the engine the engine can operate at design RPM to maintain an efficient wing angle of attack

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The use of bleed air from a gas turbine engine compressor for anti-icing equipment wil result in -
a. an increase in the gas temperature, reduced thrust and an increase in SFC
b. an increase in thrust since less air wil be mixed with fuel in the combustion chambers
c. an increase in rpm and a decrease in gas temperature

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Maximum gas pressure ni a gas turbine engine is found -
a. A between the final compressor stage and the inlet to the combustion chamber
b. in the exhaust unit
c. at the downstream end of the combustion chamber
d. at the turbine entry point

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The main reason for a limit on the maximum gas temperature ni a gas turbine engine is -
a. to prevent overheating of the turbine
b. to prevent buckling of the jet pipe
c. to prevent burning of the thermocouples
d. to prevent a thermal runaway

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Burning fuel ni the combustion chambers of a gas turbine engine is necessary to -
a raise the pressure and reduce the velocity of the gases
b. increase the density and reduce the temperature of the gases
c. increase the volume and velocity of the gases

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On leaving the compressor in a gas turbine engine, the air passes through -
a. nozzles designed to increase the velocity of the air
b. divergent ducts which lower the velocity and raise the pressure of the air
c. special passages which drop the pressure of the air before combustion occurs

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When an aircraft is parked overnight, to reduce fuel tank condensation you would - a. leave the fuel filler caps of b. leave the minimum possible fuel in the tanks c. keep the tanks as full as possible d. fill the tank airspace with carbon dioxide

In a free turbine turboprop engine, the propeller si driven by - a. both the HP and LP turbines b. only the front HP turbine(s) c. only the rear LP turbine(s)

The action which should be taken fi a gas turbine compressor begins to stall during engine acceleration on start-up is - a. open the throttle and watch rpm increase to optimum range b. close the throttle and manualy operate the bleed valves c. shut of the fuel supply and maintain starter motor rotation

The term SFC (Specific Fuel Consumption) means - a. units of fuel used per unit of thrust per hour b. the actual amount of fuel per shaft horsepower developed c. amount of fuel used ni a specified engine rpm range d. distance travelled per unit of fuel

Some turbojet engine turbine blades shrouded at the tips to - a. prevent blade tips rubbing against the shroud ring on expansion b. prevent gas leaking past blade tips, increase rigidity and reduce vibration c. prevent hot gases distorting the turbine blades

The fuel flow ni a jet engine is increased. Thrust increases because exhaust gas - a. temperature increases b. pressure increases c. volume increases d. velocity increases

The times the surge bleed valve si open and closed during normal gas turbine engine operation are - a. open from idling to nearly design rpm, then closed up to max rpm b. closed from idling to nearly design rpm, then opened up to max rpm c. open over the entire rpm range, unless compressor stall occurs

The propulsive efficiency of a turboprop decreases with an increase ni speed because - a. of compressibility effects on the blades b. slipstream losses increase c. blade interference increases d. blade angle of attack becomes too great

The gas turbine (Brayton) cycle is called an open or continuous cycle because - a. all events are occurring at the same time b. the engine is open from end to end c. the cycle can start and stop at any time d. there are no limits (in theory) to the size of the cycle

A modest increase in speed ni a slow flying jet aircraft leads to a small initial decrease ni maximum thrust available because - a. of intake choking b. combustion chamber back pressure increasing c. ram pressure decreasing d. the difference between exhaust and intake velocities is reduced

Pressure through the combustion chambers in a gas turbine engine - a. rises steadily b. is constant or falls slightly c. rises initially and then steadily falls d. falls initially and then steadily rises

To prevent melting of the turbine wheels, the hot gases from the combustion chamber in a gas turbine engine are cooled by - a. water b. fuel c. air d. oil

Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) si the ratio of - a. engine compressor inlet pressure to propelling nozzle pressure b. engine compressor outlet pressure to jet pipe pressure c. engine compressor discharge pressure to turbine discharge pressure d. engine compressor inlet pressure to jet pipe pressure

When climbing ni a jet engined aircraft, the engine parameter which would stay constant fi the thrust lever setting remained unchanged is - a. RPM b. EPR c. EGT d. torque

Thrust is produced in a jet engine by - a. reaction to impingement of exhaust gases on the outside atmosphere b. reaction to the pressure difference between exhaust and intake air pressures - c. the force required to accelerate a mass of air through the engine d. reaction to the temperature difference between compressor and turbines

Fuel boost pumps in a jet aircraft fuel system are usually located in - a. the accessory housing b. the fuel control unit c. the fuel manifold d. the fuel tanks

Most modern turbofan engines have two or more spools (shafts) because - a. this allows the compressors to run closer to their ideal rpm b. manufacturing is made simpler and cheaper c. maintenance is simplified d. shaft strength is increased

An ideal jet engine air intake delivers air to the compressor with - a. no turbulence and pressure lower than ambient b. no turbulence and temperature higher than ambient c. no turbulence and velocity higher than ambient d. no turbulence and pressure higher than ambient

Air that is bypassed ni a turbofan engine - a. goes to the rear of the combustion chambers for cooling purposes b. does not pass through the compressor c. is stored for later use d. is used to drive the air turbine

One compressor bleed outlet is for cabin pressurisation and air conditioning. Another si used to - a. reduce combustion chamber back pressure b. give a balance to the air losses c. prevent compressor stall and surge when operating of design RPM d. cool the brakes

The row of stator blades after each row of rotating compressor blades is designed to - a. longitudinally balance the engine b. stop the swirl that would otherwise form c. convert kinetic energy into pressure energy d. increase the velocity of the air

The turbofan is more efficient than the turbojet because - a. it accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively low velocity b. it accelerates a relatively small mass of air to a relatively high velocity c. it accelerates a relatively small mass of air to a relatively low velocity d. It accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively high velocity

Apart from bigger, stronger fan blades, a turbofan enjoys better foreign object damage (FOD) protection than a pure turbojet because - a. these engines have intake screens b. most of the air bypasses the engine c. most foreign objects are smaller than the blades d. the engine rpm is lower

A turbofan is not as efficient as a turboprop at low speeds. This si because the turbofan has - a. a lower air mass accelerated to a lower velocity b. a higher air mass accelerated to a higher velocity c. a lower air mass accelerated to a higher velocity d. a higher air mass accelerated to a lower velocity

Aturboprop cannot operate at the high speeds of a turbofan because the turboprop has - a. inadequate power output b. gearbox rpm limitations c. shockwaves at the propeller blade tips at high Mach number d. no wing sweep

Afree turbine turboprop uses a smaler starter motor than other turboprops because - a. of the need to save weight b. of the simpler design c. only the engine core is rotated for starting d. the engine as a whole is lighter

One way to increase the performance of ajet engine would be to - a. introduce the air into the engine at a lower speed b. increase the engine operating temperature c. alter the angle of the nozzle guide vanes d. reduce engine operating rpm

Of a turbofan's total air intake, 20% passes through the core. This bypass ratio is nearest to - a. 4:1 b. 5:1 c. 1:4 d. 1:5

Turboprops are generally designed for which type of flying (compared to turbojets) - a. high speed long routes b. low speed long routes c. high speed short routes d. low speed short routes

An aircraft may need to dump fuel. To ensure that the total fuel supply si not dumped - a. manual shut-off of fuel when enough has been dumped b. automatic shut-off of fuel when a preset amount has been dumped c. use of standpipes ni the fuel dumping system d. use of a timer controlled cut-off switch

A turbofan produces less thrust at take-off than a similar size turboprop because - a. the turboprop is very efficient at modestly accelerating a large mass of air b. the propeller blades can 'bite' the air faster c. the fan is experiencing Mach Number interference at take-off rpm d. a turbofan cannot be run at ful thrust at take-off because of noise considerations

With a constant speed turboprop engine, power output si controlled by fuel flow. The pilot controls this by - a. control of the fuel flow control unit b. control of the propeller blade angle c. control of the constant speed unit d. direct control of the air:fuel ratio

The primary engine power gauge of a turboprop si the - a. fuel flow indicator b. engine temperature gauge c. torque gauge d. EPR gauge

One reason why jet aircraft use kerosene and not AVGAS is that kerosene has - a. higher flashpoint b. less calorific value c. less viscosity d. less chemical instability

An APU of a B767 maybe operated - a. in flight only b. on the ground only c. whenever ti is required d. anytime, but only if monitored by an on board flight crew member

The purpose of the fuel system filter bypass ni a gas turbine engine is - a. to save wear on the filter when the fuel is warm b. to ensure fuel flow even though the filter is blocked c. to maintain a constant pressure differential d. to recirculate the fuel

If a turbojet thrust reverser unlocked light comes on during flight - a. the situation is not potentially serious, keep an eye on it b. the situation is potentially serious, be prepared to reduce thrust if the lever comes up c. the situation is not serious as it is impossible for a reverser to deploy in flight d. the situation is potentially critical, shut down the engine if yaw, loss of airspeed or buffet is detected

The main reason for stating an upper limit to fuel temperature is - a. to allow the greatest temperature rise through the engine b. to ensure the fuel lubricant properties are maintained c. to stop chemical breakdown of the fuel d. to ensure vapour release (vapour lock) does not occur

An APU auto-shutdown wil not be caused by - a. overspeed b. underspeed c. low oil pressure d. fire

The document ni which you would find the optional fuels approved for a particular aircraft is - a. in the CARs b. in ERSA c. in the aircraft flight manual d. in the company policy document

The additives normally found ni F35 jet fuel (Jet A-1) used ni Australia is - a. anti-boil b. no additives normally c. anti-ice d. anti-bacterial

The engine instrument which would not be found on a turbofan aircraft is - a. oil pressure b. N1 c. torque d. fuel flow

An APU does not directly provide - a. shaft power to drive an electric generator b. hydraulic pressure c. bleed air for air conditioning d. bleed air for pneumatics

The inflight problem a turbine engine with low flight idling RPM may have si - a. excessive turbine temperature on climb and ni cruise b. flame out on descent c. excessively rapid acceleration d. maximum RPM may not be available

Adesirable quality of jet fuel is - a. high viscosity b. lubricant properties c. lowest possible calorific d. value low flash point

Ari turbine starters for gas turbine engines normally - a. cannot be used fi the APU or another engine or compressed air source is not available b. have a cockpit light to warn of low air pressure c. are used on small turbine engines d. can be used to supply the pneumatic system

The safeguards used to prevent inadvertent engine thrust reverser deployment ni flight are - a. thorough crew training b. an autostow mechanism and mechanical and electrical interlocks and isolation valves which prevent ful reverse thrust unless the thrust levers are at idle and the reversers are fuly deployed c. hydraulic pressure required to activate deployment d. guarded buttons

In a gas turbine engine with a free power turbine - a. the free power turbine shaft is independent of the other engine spools b. the free power turbine drives the compressor c. a free power turbine wheel is independent of all other turbine wheels d. the free power turbine is driven by the compressor

The advantages of an axial flow compressor compared to a centrifugal flow compressor of the same frontal area in a gas turbine engine are - a. higher pressure ratios and greater mass airflow b. ruggedness and compactness c. high resistance to FOD (foreign object damage) d. higher SFC (specific fuel consumption)

A torque meter in a turboprop aircraft is required for the operation of the - a. auto feather system b. beta range c. pitch lock d. propeller governor

A transport jet aircraft is filled to maximum fuel by volume (full tanks) with kerosene of a low specific gravity. Compared to using kerosene fuel with a higher specific gravity, the maximum range of the aircraft with the low SG kerosene will be - a. reduced b. increased c. unaffected

Concerning the connection of turbines and compressors ni a gas turbine engine - a. the LP compressor is connected to the HP compressor b. the LP compressor is connected to the HP turbine c. the LP compressor is connected to the LP turbine d. the HP compressor is connected to the LP turbine

Regarding the measurement of temperature ni a gas turbine engine - a. EGT measures turbine entry gas temperature b. TOT measures combustion chamber gas temperature c. JPT measures jet pipe gas temperature d. ITT measures compressor outlet temperature

With regard to thermal ice protection systems using engine bleed air - a. when used on an engine intake, thermal ice protection should be regarded as a de- icing system b. thermal ice protection is only available while taxiing c. thermal ice protection si only available ni flight d. when used on an engine intake, thermal ice protection should be regarded as an anti-icing system

One of the limitations of an air starting system on gas turbine engines is - a. the requirement for an APU, another engine or a ground unit to provide compressed air b. the possibility of thermal runaway c. the low engine rpm achieved with air starts d. the limited air supply available

The purpose of a propeller brake on a turbo-prop aircraft is - a. to prevent the propeller windmilling when the engine is shut down and to allow the engine to be run at idle power on the ground without turning the propeller b. to stop the propeler from turning backwards folowing an in-flight shutdown c. to slow the aircraft on descent d. to allow low rpm operation for parking manoeuvres

The function of a safety couple in a turboprop engine is - a. to disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of an engine overspeed b. to ensure correct re-assembly of the turbine following overhaul c. to allow reverse pitch during ground operations d. to decouple the engine from the gearbox in the event of a propeller overspeed

The function of a negative torque system (NTS) in a turboprop is to - a. disconnect the propeller from the gearbox ni the event of an engine overspeed b. increase the propeller blade angle to prevent the turbine from being driven by the propeller c. prevent the propeller from reversing its direction of rotation d. stop the pilot not flying (PNF) from accidentally feathering the engines ni flight

The EPR gauge ni a jet aircraft measures: a. the pressure increase through the engine b. the pressure ratio between the exhaust air and intake (ambient) air c. the pressure ratio between the compressor and the combustion chamber d. the torque on the main drive shaft

The N1 gauge indicate in a turbofan engine indicates - a. fan RPM b. high pressure compressor temperature c. turbine speed d. turbine temperature

As a turbofan powered aircraft climbs through the tropopause, thrust wil - a. increase b. remain constant c. reduce at the same rate as below the tropopause d. reduce at a greater rate compared to below the tropopause

The use of bleed air from a gas turbine engine for various services wil result ni most loss of performance during - a. start and taxi b. take-off, climb and cruise c. climb, cruise and descent d. take-off and climb

In a turboprop installation, the term 'powerplant' refers to - a. the compressor, combustion chamber and turbine b. the gas turbine engine, gearbox and propeller c. the gas turbine engine and gearbox d. the propeller and gearbox

The reverse thrust system on a turbojet aircraft has interlocks to prevent - a. full reverse thrust from being applied at low speed b. full reverse thrust until the reversers are in the full reverse position c. the propeller from going into negative pitch d. the fan from reversing direction inflight

With reference to a gas turbine engine - a. TIT is the temperature of the gas between the high pressure and low pressure compressor b. EGT si the temperature of the gas entering the turbine c. JPT is the temperature of the gas exiting the combustion chamber d. TGT is the temperature of the gas between the turbine stages e. N2 is the temperature of the gas at the front of the high pressure compressor

A B727 is maintaining a constant flight level and the TAS is increased from 180 kt to 460 kt. Thrust available at maximum thrust wil - a. increase b. decrease c. decrease then increase d. increase then decrease e. remain constan

The fuel flow transmitter ni the fuel system of a large jet transport category aircraft is located - a. at the inlet to the high pressure pump b. at the outlet from the high pressure pump c. at the inlet to the fuel control unit d. at the outlet from the fuel control unit

Turbojet engine compressor blade angle of attack si primarily determined by - a. inlet air temperature and exhaust gas temperature b. inlet air pressure and exhaust gas pressure c. inlet air velocity and exhaust gas velocity d. engine RPM and TAS

As the thrust levers of a turbojet engined aircraft are advanced for takeoff - a. airflow increases, causing a higher fuel flow and RPM b. fuel flow increases, causing a higher EGT and increased RPM c. EGT increases, causing a higher mass airflow and increased fuel flow d. thrust increases, causing increased exhaust gas velocity

The pressure rise in the centrifugal compressor of a gas turbine engine occurs in - a. the impeller only b. the diffuser only c. both the impeler and the diffuser d. the stator vanes

Gas turbine engine compressor blades do not usually require thermal anti-ice (TAI) protection because - a. the temperature rise through the compressor raises the temperature above freezing b. the centrifugal action of the rotor blades prevents ice accretions c. the high pressures prevent ice formation d. the nose cone prevents ice formation ni the rest of the compressor

On a wet day takeoff ni a jet engined aircraft, the igniter plugs may be selected to continuous ignition. In this case the characteristics of the spark wil be - a. high value (joules) at low voltage to prevent overheating the nozzle guide vanes b. low value (joules) at high voltage to preserve the igniter plugs and the ignition unit c. high value (joules) at high voltage ot ensure a fast relight in the event of a flame out d. low value (joules) at low voltage to conserve battery power

With an air turbine starter system on a large modern jet engine, the starter si disengaged - a. automatically by the trip spring after a pre-set time period b. automatically by the starter clutch at a predetermined RPM c. manually by the starter control solenoid at a suitable idle RPM d. manually by the disengage switch when the peak TOT has been reached

The primary purpose of the APU ni a large jet transport category aircraft is for - a. in flight engine starting b. electrical and pneumatic supply on the ground c. in flight electrical supply d. in flight pneumatic supply

The design feature which si not an advantage of the annular combustion chamber design ni a modern gas turbine engine, compared ot other multi-chamber designs is - a. improved combustion efficiency b. less cooling air required c. elimination of flame propagation problems between chambers d. reduced weight and cost e. compact f. greater structural integrity

A particular turbine fuel has aspecific gravity of 0.80 at agiven temperature. A temperature rise of 20°C wil result ni a calorific (energy) value for the fuel which is - a. the same energy value as for the original temperature per litre of fuel b. the same energy value as for the original temperature per kg of fuel c. less energy than for the original temperature per kg of fuel d. more energy than for the original temperature per kg of fuel e. more energy than for the original temperature per litre of fuel

The function of the torque meter ni a turboprop powered aircraft is to - a. brake the propeller b. feather the propeller c. lock the propeller at the fine pitch lock d. monitor shaft output power

A probable result of a hot start in a gas turbine engine is - a. stable turbine temperatures b. torching of the exhaust section c. excessive compressor temperatures d. excessive turbine RPM

The ram air effect on a turbojet engine results ni a conversion of - a. pressure energy in the airstream into heat b. velocity of the airstream into kinetic energy c. the kinetic energy ni the airstream into pressure d. heat energy ni the airstream into velocity

Boost pumps ni the fuel system of a large jet transport category aircraft are generally - a. piston type b. variable displacement type c. gear type or impeler type d. plunger type

Regarding the functioning of the reverse thrust system on a high by pass turbo fan engine - a. blocker doors are used to reverse the hot stream b. clamshells or buckets are used to reverse the cold stream c. target deflectors are used ot divert the cold stream d. blocker doors are used to divert the cold stream

The takeoff run of a turbofan powered aircraft wil be increased by - a. increased density b. low altitude c. low temperature d. increased altitude

The use of bleed air on takeoff in a large turbojet engined aircraft will result in a - a. lower EGT b. higher EGT c. increased RPM and surging d. decreased RPM and surging

The effect of a change in temperature on the specific gravity of AVTUR is - a. variations ni temperature have no effect on the specific gravity b. specific gravity increases as temperature increases c. specific gravity decreases as temperature increases

The ideal air:fuel ratio for a turbine engine is - a. 5:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 35:1 e. 45:1

The section of the APU which supplies compressed air to start the main engines on a large jet transport aircraft is - a. the compressor b. the diffuser inlet c. the turbine d. the exhaust

The purpose of the air shroud on an atomiser type (duplex) fuel spray nozzle in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine is - a. to diffuse the fuel and give a more even spray pattern b. to reduce carbon deposits around the nozzle tip and cool the nozzle c. to impart a swirl to the fuel and reduce axial velocity d. to slow the air down as it enters the combustion chamber

The function of variable inlet guide vanes ni a gas turbine engine is - a. to prevent compressor blade stall when the engine is operating at low RPM b. to straighten the airflow entering the compressor at high RPM c. to reduce the axial velocity of the airflow entering the compressor d. to reduce compressor back pressure at design RPM

The gas turbine engine component which acts to straighten the airflow before exiting the engine is - a. the nozzle guide vanes b. the last stage turbine blades c. the exhaust cone d. the rear turbine exhaust cone support struts in the jet pipe

Turbofans and turbojets are preferred over turboprops for speeds over about 350 kt because - a. turboprops have reduced propulsive efficiency at high speeds b. turboprops are considered too noisy at high speeds c. turboprops cannot carry as much payload as turbojets at high speed d. turboprops are not as aesthetically pleasing as turbofans ni flight

Reverse thrust on a turbofan or turbojet is not as effective as forwards thrust because - a. engine RPM is limited during reverse thrust operation b. the angle of the reverse thrust is not directly opposing the aircraft motion c. hot or turbulent air may be blown into the engine intake reducing power output d. the airspeed is less than when thrust is directed ni the normal direction

The most common method of ice protection used on the propellers of turboprop aircraft is - a. thermal pneumatic b. pneumatic boots c. de-icing fluid d. electrical

The following statements correctly lists the differences between kerosene and wide cut type aviation turbine fuel - a. kerosene is the British name and wide cut is the American name for the same fuel b. kerosene has a lower flashpoint than wide cut fuel c. kerosene has a lower boiling point than wide cut fuel d. kerosene has a lower volatility than wide cut fuel

The most common type of starter motor found on large modern jet transport category aircraft turbine engines is - a. gas turbine starters b. electric starters c. air turbine starters d. cartridge starters

The effect on the maximum static thrust output of a turbojet engine at Mean Sea Level with changes in ambient temperature and pressure is - a. static thrust increases with an increase in temperature and pressure b. static thrust decreases with an increase in temperature and pressure c. static thrust decreases with a decrease in temperature and increased pressure d. static thrust decreases with an increase in temperature and decreased pressure

The function of bleed valves in the compressor of a gas turbine engine is - a. to increase the mass airflow over the early compressor stages at low engine RPM b. to increase the mass airflow over the rear compressor stages at low engine RPM c. to increase the mass airflow over the early compressor stages at high engine RPM d. to increase the mass airflow over the rear compressor stages at high engine RPM

The changes in the gas flow within the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine are - a. volume increases, temperature increases, pressure decreases or remains constant b. velocity decreases, temperature decreases, pressure increases or remains constant c. volume decreases, temperature increases, pressure decreases d. velocity decreases, temperature increases, pressure increases

Air in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine is slowed to - a. provide better mixtures for combustion b. reduce possibility of flame out c. contain the flame in a smaller area d. keep the combustion chamber walls cool

Turbine fuel requires - a. high viscosity b. high calorific value c. high compressibility d. low chemical stability

A particular turbofan engine has 3 shafts. N1 refers to - a. the fastest shaft b. the slowest shaft c. the compressor shaft d. the shortest shaft

An advantage of the centrifugal flow compressor over the axial flow compressor is - a. it is more efficient over a larger range of compression ratios b. for a given power output, it uses less fuel c. it is cheaper and more robust d. it is more demanding in its operating technique

Asymptom of a 'hung' start with a gas turbine engine si - a. falling engine temperature b. starter motor disengagement c. no rise in RPM d. increasing fuel flow

Operating ajet engine at design rpm wil give the - a. greatest fuel burn per hour b. greatest SFC c. minimum SFC d. minimum fuel burn per hour

Jet engine design RPM is - a. maximum rpm b. slightly in excess of maximum RPM c. slightly less than maximum RPM d. about 80% maximum RPM

With regard to transport category aircraft fuel systems, the true statement is true - a. fuel gauges provide the only method of accurately determining fuel on board before commencing a flight b. measurement of fuel quantity on board may only be conducted on a level surface c. fuel on board may be determined by use of readings from dipsticks combined with tables and a sight gauge to correct for uneven terrain d. fuel used meters are the only reliable method of accurately determining fuel on board before commencing a flight

The purpose standpipes serve in an aircraft fuel system is - a. they allow quick and accurate determination of fuel tank contents b. they prevent unintentional dumping of the entire fuel tank contents c. they provide easy transfer of fuel between tanks d. they give constant information about relative fuel levels in different tanks

The ideal air:fuel mixture ratio for kerosene is - a. 5:1 b. 15:1 c. 50:1 d. 130:1

The component of a gas turbine engine which directs the airflow into the compressor is - a. the stator vanes b. the nozzle guide vanes c. the diffuser d. the inlet guide vanes

The function of Interconnectors between multiple combustion chambers in a gas turbine engine is to - a. equalise operating pressure and allow combustion propagation between chambers b. equalise operating temperature and allow combustion propagation between chambers c. equalise mass flow velocity and prevent flame propagation between chambers d. equalise mass flow density and allow flame propagation between chambers

When climbing at a constant Mach number the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) wil - a. decrease if the temperature decreases b. decrease c. decrease if the temperature increases d. increase e. remain constant

When climbing at a constant Mach number the True Airspeed (TAS) wil - a. decrease if the temperature decreases b. decrease c. decrease if the temperature increases d. increase e. remain constant

The difference between leading edge slats and leading edge flaps is - a. they are two names for the same device b. slats reenergise the boundary layer and flaps alter the effective camber of the leading edge c. flaps reenergise the boundary layer and slats alter the effective camber of the leading edge d. flaps decrease the stall speed while slats increase the stall speed

As an aircraft climbs above FL300, the IAS and EAS stall speeds wil - a. IAS and EAS stall speeds both increase - b. IAS stall speed increases and EAS stal speed remains the same c. EAS stal speed increases and IAS stall speed remains the same d. IAS and EAS stall speeds both decrease

As an aircraft accelerates from subsonic speeds through 1.00M to supersonic speeds, the coefficient of (CD) wil - a. increase b. decrease c. increase then decrease d. decrease then increase e. remain constant

In a constant Mach number climb in the isothermal layer above the tropopause, TAS will - a. decrease due to decreasing pressure b. increase due to decreasing pressure c. remain constant due to the constant temperature d. remain constant due to the constant Mach number

In a constant Mach number climb in the isothermal layer above the tropopause, IAS will - a. decrease due to decreasing pressure b. increase due to decreasing pressure c. remain constant due to the constant temperature d. remain constant due to the constant Mach number

McRIT is - a. that speed where al of the local airflow is supersonic b. that speed where al of the local airflow is subsonic c. that speed above which supersonic local airflow first occurs d. none of the above

The variable most directly affecting the speed of sound si a. density b. pressure c. altitude d. temperature

An aircraft exceeds its McriT. Assuming no 'Mach Trimmer' is fitted, the first thing to occur would be - a. nose pitch up b. severe vibration, buffet and structural failure c. compressor stall d. nose pitch down

For high subsonic cruise speeds, the reason it si best to delay the formation of wing shockwaves is - a. to minimise the noise being made by the aircraft b. to keep the drag penalty ot a minimum c. so that Mach trimmers are not required d. to stop tailplane vibration

Fast transport aircraft may have a supercritical wing section. This is to - a. give maximum lift at low speed b. give minimum lift at high speed c. reduce the top wing surface acceleration d. reduce the bottom wing surface acceleration

Aileron control reversal can be caused by - a. the wing twisting about its lateral axis due to high aerodynamic loads at high speed b. the aileron twisting about its longitudinal axis under heavy manoeuvring c. excessive drag on aileron movement up d. excessive drag on aileron movement down

Exceeding Mcrit results in a nose down pitch by the aircraft. This si because - a. the CP moves rearward b. the CP moves forward c. the tailplane is producing excessive drag d. none of the above

An aircraft is slowly accelerating through its Mcrit to transonic cruise. The Coefficient of Lift - a. will decrease and then increase b. will increase and then decrease c. keeps increasing d. keeps decreasing

A Mach Trimmer - a. trims the aircraft for a nominated Mach number b. stops the aircraft exceeding its Mcrit c. ensures that with increasing speed the aircraft wil tend to pitch down d. ensures that with increasing speed the aircraft wil tend to pitch up

At transonic speeds, the reason some aircraft use spoilers for rol control even though they have ailerons fitted is - a. to save wear on the ailerons b. to prevent aileron lockout c. to prevent shockwave formation d. to overcome loss of aileron effectiveness due to flow separation ahead of the aileron

Ayaw damper - a. overrides rudder input in turbulence b. is disabled below FL200 c. minimises the need for rudder control inputs at high altitude and high Mach number d. is only engaged when the autopilot si engaged

Wing sweep results in an increase ni the stalling angle of attack. This si because - a. the swept wing si more efficient at low speeds b. the swept wing is less efficient at high speeds c. swept wing CL is less than straight wing CL for any given body angle d. swept wing CL is more than straight wing CL for any given body angle

Wing sweep an important feature for high speed flight because - a. it allows for effectively shorter wings and so less induced drag occurs b it increases lift at high altitudes c. it delays the drag effects of shockwaves d. wing area is larger and the load more evenly spread

On swept wing aircraft, nose pitch up at the stall si caused by - a. sudden slat retraction b. elevator stall combined with a rearward C of G movement c. wing tip stall and the effective CP moving rearwards d. wing tip stall and the effective CP moving forwards

Most swept wing aircraft are fitted with a stickpusher because - a. it assists the pilot with a positive landing b. a positive initiation of descent is often an ATC requirement c. it will counter the natural nose down pitch of a swept wing aircraft entering a stall d. the combination of wing design and powered controls does not provide adequate stall protection and recovery may be very difficult or impossible in some cases

Jet aircraft maximum rate of climb (Vy) is determined by - a. total thrust over weight b. total drag over thrust c. excess power over weight d. excess thrust over drag

Vs when related to transport category aircraft is - a. the minimum steady flight speed b. the speed at which the aircraft stalls c. the sinking speed d. any defined speed above the sinking speed

You want your jet aircraft to stay airborne as long as possible. You would achieve this by flying - a. at the appropriate holding speed at any level b. at an altitude where use of engine design RPM would result in a speed of Vimd c. as high as possible at a speed of 1.32 Vimd d. as low as possible at aspeed of Vimd

To achieve maximum angle of climb, you would climb at - a. Vmo using maximum cruise power b. Vs using maximum climb power c. VREF using maximum rated thrust d. Vimd using maximum thrust

Large jet aircraft have a large speed band where the rate of climb is fairly constant. This is because - a. the excess power means that drag is largely irrelevant b. for this band, the power available and power required curves are nearly parallel c. drag is small compared with thrust and doesn't vary with speed d. this is a design feature to assist ATC with aircraft positioning

VA is the - a. IAS for a particular body angle b. velocity for a nominated attitude c. manoeuvring speed d. limiting load speed

The Centre of Pressure (CP) of a transport aircraft wing should ideally have minimal movement with variations in aircraft speed because - a. excessive changes in the CP can lead to structural fatigue in the airframe b. large trim changes would be needed with large CP movement c. the C of G can go outside defined limits with large CP movement d. autopilots cannot cope with the changing control forces with a moving CP

You have descended and have to hold at 3000 feet. At this altitude, your ideal holding speed would primarily be determined by - a. engine RPM considerations b. IAS considerations c. flap extension limits d. body angle limits

Considering that flap extension increases lift, they not used for the climb because - a. too much lift would be produced b. not enough lift would be produced c. minimum drag speed si higher with flap up and the extra drag cancels the lift benefit d. climbing IAS si ni excess of flap limiting speed

Swept wing aircraft employ a 'stall identification alarm system' (stick pusher). This operates at - a. 1.3 Vs b. 10 kt above stalling speed c. the speed below which controlled level flight is not sustainable d. 15 degrees angle of attack

Jet aircraft overspeed warnings wil operate - a. at Vmo/Mmo b. slightly above Vmo/Mmo c. slightly below Vmo/Mmo d. slightly below Vdf/Mdf

Vmo/Mmo is - a. recommended climb/descent speed b. the maximum operating speed at which an aircraft may be intentionally flown c. the greatest speed at the an aircraft may be economicaly flown d. a compromise speed between efficiency and airframe fatigue considerations

Mfs (free stream) is - a. the average Mach No of air passing the aircraft b. the maximum Mach No of air passing the aircraft c. the actual Mach No of the aircraft through the air d. the minimum Mach No of air passing the aircraft

Mdet is - a. Mcrit plus an alowance which varies for each aircraft type b. that aircraft speed where the first local sonic flow occurs c. that aircraft speed above which all the local flow is supersonic d. the maximum Mach number for a particular aircraft type

Airflow through a shock wave wil experience - a. a decrease in temperature, density and pressure, but an increase in velocity b. a decrease in temperature, density, pressure and velocity c. an increase in temperature, density, pressure and velocity d. an increase in temperature, density and pressure, but a decrease in velocity

An emergency climb on encountering severe low level wind shear would be achieved by - a. retracting flaps to reduce drag and climbing at 1.1Vs b. climbing at a target speed of 1.1Vs and using climb power c. climbing at a target speed of 1.1Vs and using takeoff power d. firstly accelerating to normal climb speed before climbing

Jet aircraft SAR, as a comparison of air distance per tonne of fuel consumed would be expressed ni the form - a. 10 anm/100 kg b. 10 anm/1000 kg c. 1anm/10 kg d. 10 kg/anm

To achieve maximum range at a given Flight Level, you would fly at - a. 1.32 Vimd b. Vimd c. 0.68 Vimd d. VMCA

Optimum range is achieved by flying at - a. a constant Flight Level, 1.32 Vimd and maximum cruise RPM b. a cruise climb, 1.32 Vimd and maximum continuous RPM c. a constant Flight Level, 1.32 Vimd and design RPM d. a cruise climb, 1.32 Vimd and design RPM

Climb IAS decreases with increased altitude because - a. maximum excess power occurs at a lower IAS at high altitude b. maximum excess power occurs at a lower TAS at high altitude c. a constant angle of attack is required d. the engines are producing less thrust as altitude increases

Ajet aircraft climbs at a constant Mach number after a certain altitude is reached because - a. we need to maintain a constant angle of attack b. this equates with the required reducing IAS and to prevent Mach overspeed c. this equates with the required reducing TAS d. the IAS is too low to use accurately

For a given altitude and weight, the IAS variation for maximum angle of climb fi flap is extended is - a. it increases to take advantage of the extra lift b. it remains the same as the weight is the same c. it decreases to maintain a lower minimum drag speed d. it increases ot maintain a higher minimum drag speed

The theoretical requirement (as far as the airframe is concerned) for maximum range cruise is - a. a TAS of Vimd at a cruise level as high as possible b. a Mach number of Mcrit at a cruise level as high as possible c. a Mach number equal to that for LRC d. an IAS of 1.32 Vimd at a cruise level as high as possible

If required to cruise at a level with significant headwind when maximum range si required - a. you would fly faster than the theoretical maximum range speed because you need to arrive with planned reserves intact b. you would fly faster than the nil wind maximum range speed because you need to achieve the best GS/Drag ratio c. your maximum range speed would be the same as the speed for maximum range ni nil wind d. you would fly slower than the nil wind maximum range speed because you need to achieve the best TAS/Drag ratio

In a steady climb, compared to nil wind, a headwind wil affect - a. rate of climb only b. angle of climb and rate of climb c. neither rate or angle of climb d. angle of climb only

The Va for an aircraft - a. is fixed for al weights and altitudes b. is lower at higher gross weights and higher at lower gross weights c. is lower at higher altitudes and higher at lower altitudes d. is higher at higher gross weights and lower at lower gross weights

As airflow passes through a normal (vertical) shockwave - a. velocity changes from subsonic to supersonic with no change in direction b. velocity changes from supersonic to subsonic with no change in direction c. velocity changes from subsonic to supersonic with change in direction d. velocity changes from supersonic to subsonic with change in direction

Concerning slotted flaps and/or Fowler flaps - a. slotted flaps increase the chord and preserve the energy in the boundary layer of the airflow while fowler flaps increase the camber and chord b. slotted flaps increase the camber and preserve the energy ni the boundary layer of the airflow while fowler flaps increase the camber and chord c. fowler flaps increase the chord and preserve the energy ni the boundary layer of the airflow while slotted flaps increase the camber and chord d. fowler flaps increase the camber and preserve the energy ni the boundary layer of the airflow while slotted flaps increase the camber and chord

Flap extension at high altitude is not permitted on most aircraft because - a. flap extension speed may be below the stalling speed at high altitude b. the aircraft wil lose roll control c. flap maximum load limits may be exceeded in turbulence d. the aircraft may pitch nose up and suffer a stall

The speed of the airflow through a normal shockwave changes from - a. supersonic to subsonic b. subsonic to transonic c. supersonic to transonic d. supersonic to hypersonic

Anose down pitch change ni an aircraft flying near McriT would be most likely to be caused by - a. the Mach Trimmer b. a rearwards CP shift c. a forwards CP shift d. jack stalling

The one which is not an advantage of a sweptback wing compared to a straight wing is - a. less gust sensitivity b. higher McRTI c. less drag at high speed d. more effective trailing edge devices

An internal flexible seal attached to the leading edge of a control surface is designed to - a. provide q feel force feedback to the pilot b. assist control load balancing c. limit control surface travel d. waterproof the hinge compartment

The minimum control speed ground (VMCG) is lower than the minimum control speed air (VMCA) because - a. pedal nose wheel steering is available on the ground b. differential braking si available on the ground c. the main wheels are on the ground d. tiller nose wheel steering is available on the ground

When flying at very high altitude in a swept wing jet transport category aircraft, vibration felt through the airframe during manoeuvres would be caused by - a. low speed buffet only b. turbulence only c. high speed bufet only d. possibly either high or low speed Buffett

If the best lift/drag ratio for an aircraft is achieved at a speed of "X", then for best angle of climb performance, the aircraft should fly at a speed - a. equal to X- b. faster than X c. slower than X d. 1.32 times X

Cruising at a higher FL wil always increase Specific Ari Range (SAR). T/F

Maximum endurance is achieved at best Lift/Drag ratio. T/F

At al altitudes, Mach number si the ratio of TAS to the LS (local speed of sound) at MSL. T/F

Any head or tail wind component wil reduce the distance to a PNR. T/F

The Mach number required for maximum range cruise is independent of head or tail wind component. T/F

Low specific fuel consumption (SFC) is best achieved at low altitude and low engine RPM. T/F

The angle of attack required for maximum range cruise does not vary with aircraft gross weight. T/F

For a given FL and GW, induced drag wil decrease with increasing IAS. T/F

For a constant IAS and constant FL, Mach number is affected by changes ni air temperature. T/F

Maximum static thrust increases with increasing ambient temperature. T/F

During constant altitude cruise, a reduction ni aircraft Gross Weight wil require a reduction ni wing angle of attack to maintain the optimum lift coefficient for subsonic cruise. T/F

McrTi si that free stream Mach number below which al local airflow si subsonic. T/F

High propulsion efficiency si typified by low mass flow and maximum possible velocity change. T/F

The component of Total Reaction force parallel to the remote free airstream is termed induced drag. T/F

Engine specific fuel consumption is directly proportional to engine thrust. T/F

For a single sector flight at constant TAS, an increased wind component wil always decrease the distance from departure to the PNR. T/F

For cruise at constant Mach number and constant altitude, buffet boundary margins increase with increasing Gross Weight. T/F

Wing sweepback wil increase McRIT. T/F

Maximum static thrust decreases with decreasing altitude. T/F

For any flight sector, an increasing headwind component increases the distance to the CP/ETP. T/F

For a single stage and constant tailwind component outbound, the distance from departure to the Critical Point increases with increasing TAS. T/F

Maximum range is achieved at CL/CD max. T/F

Specific fuel consumption (SFC) decreases with increasing inlet air temperature. T/F

Induced drag increases with increasing angle of attack. T/F

At constant cruise level, the long range cruising Mach number (Mlrc) decreases with decreasing Gross Weight. T/F

The angle of attack for best endurance at a constant altitude decreases with decreasing Gross Weight. T/F

n the isothermal layer above the tropopause, a constant velocity (TAS) cruise climb would produce a constant Mach number. T/F

Specific fuel consumption increases as engine RPM increases towards design RPM. T/F

Engine efficiency decreases rapidly past 70%-75% of maximum RPM, during engine acceleration. T/F

At constant altitude, maximum available engine thrust does not vary with changes ni aircraft speed. T/F

At constant altitude, specific fuel consumption increases with increasing engine RPM towards design RPM. T/F

Gas turbine engine thrust varies linearly with engine RPM. T/F

Gas turbine engine compressor stalls are characterised by both low engine RPM and low exhaust gas temperatures. T/F

Engine airflow undergoes greatest pressure change through the compressor. T/F

Wing sweepback wil delay the onset of wing compressibility effects. T/F

Airflow behind a normal (vertical) shock wave is always subsonic. T/F

At constant speed and altitude, induced drag is independent of bank angle. T/F

The induced drag decreases with increasing aspect ratio. T/F

Average cruise EPR required si independent of TAT. T/F

The minimum thrust and minimum angle of descent si obtained at L/D max. T/F

At constant altitude, Mach number si the ratio of the local TAS to the MSL speed of sound. T/F

At constant IAS and FL, Mach number is not affected by changes in air temperature. T/F

The maximum range cruise Mach number is independent of head or tail wind component. T/F

At constant cruise level, the long range cruise Mach number increases with decreasing gross weight. T/F

Below the tropopause, a constant Mach number cruise climb would produce a constant IAS. T/F

Specific fuel consumption (SFC) increases with increasing engine RPM toward design RPM. T/F

At constant cruise level, SGR wil always increase as cruise TAS increases. T/F

The maximum quick turn around weight increases with increasing runway downslope. T/F

The limiting IAS for flight with the B727 yaw damper system U/S is independent of aircraft altitude. T/F

Both maximum endurance and maximum climb angle performance occur at LD/ max. T/F

The type of alternating current used by a typical large aircraft electrical system is - a. 115 VAC 400 Hz b. 28 VAC 400 Hz c. 240 VAC 50 Hz d. 115 VAC 50 Hz

In the event of a failure of the active sources of CA power generation in a large jet transport category aircraft, the component of the electrical system which supplies AC power is - a. the TRU b. the transistor c. the static inverter d. the generator

Batteries are often connected ni parallel ni an aircraft electrical system to - a. increase the total amp hour capacity b. increase the total EMF c. increase the total resistance d. avoid frequency matching problems

The function of a transformer/rectifier unit (TRU) in an aircraft electrical system is - a. to convert AC to DC at a lower voltage b. to convert AC to DC at a higher voltage c. to convert AC to DC at a constant voltage d. to convert DC to AC at a lower voltage e. to convert DC to AC at a higher voltage

The type of rectifiers normally used ni large aircraft AC generators to provide DC for field excitation of the main generator are - a. half wave rectifiers b. quarter wave rectifiers c. three quarter wave rectifiers d. full wave bridge rectifiers

When a Generator field breaker (generator field relay) trips, the associated generator - a. is disconnected from it's CSD b. is connected to it's generator bus c. is provided with initial field excitation from it's bus d. excitation field is disconnected from the voltage regulator e. excitation field is disconnected from it's bus

A constant speed drive on an AC generator in a large transport aircraft is required to maintain a constant generator rpm over a wide engine speed range. If the constant speed drive is disengaged during flight - a. the CSD may be re-engaged at any time b. the CSD may only be re-engaged on the ground c. the CSD may not be re-engaged and must be replaced d. the CSD wil automatically re-engage when rpm stabilises

An advantage of constant frequency alternators in an aircraft electrical system is - a. load sharing b. increased voltage c. simplicity d. increased current

In a shunt wound generator, as load increases, output voltage - a. increases b. decreases c. stays constant d. increases then decreases

The KVAR meter ni an aircraft electrical system measures - a. total load b. reactive load c. total EMF d. total voltage

Real load in a large aircraft AC electrical system is expressed as - a. kW b. KVA c. KVAR d. EMF

Total load in a large aircraft AC electrical system is expressed as - a. kW b. KVA c. KVAR d. EMF

Reactive load in a large aircraft AC electrical system is expressed as - a. kW b. KVA c. KVAR d. EMF

The circumstance which would prevent the connection of ground AC power to the electrical system of a large jet transport category aircraft is - a. an engine running b. the APU running c. a generator connected to its bus d. an improper earth point of the ground power cart

Of the following, the consideration which is not an advantage of a NICAD battery over a lead acid battery would be - a. reduced corrosion hazard b. better discharge c. characteristics lighter weight d. lower purchase price

Correct bonding of the fuselage components ni a large jet transport category aircraft is necessary to- a. ensure an even electrical potential throughout the fuselage b. prevent static electricity buildup c. minimise radio transmitter losses d. increase strength

Abus bar in the electrical system of a large jet transport category aircraft is - a. always made of copper b. a main point receiving electric current from generator or battery c. a terminal block d. a panel to which circuit breakers are attached e. a counter from which ot purchase bus tickets

In the event of a failure of the active sources of 115V AC power generation in a large jet transport category aircraft, the component of the electrical system which supplies DC power is - a. the TRU b. the inverter c. battery d. the generator

Batteries may be connected in series in an aircraft electrical system to - a. AC increase the total capacity b. increase the total EMF c. increase the total resistance d. avoid frequency matching problems

The function of a static inverter in an aircraft electrical system is - a. to convert AC to DC at a lower voltage b. to convert AC to DC at a higher voltage c. to convert AC to DC at a constant voltage d. to convert DC to AC at a lower voltage e. to convert DC to AC at a higher voltage

The component of an electrical system in which diodes would be found is a - a. bus bar b. battery c. inverter d. rectifier

When a Generator breaker (generator control relay) trips, the associated generator - a. is disconnected from it's bus b. is connected to it's generator bus c. is provided with initial field excitation from it's bus d. excitation field si disconnected from the voltage regulator e. excitation field is disconnected from it's bus

Aconstant speed drive on an AC generator in a large transport aircraft is required to maintain a constant generator rpm over a wide engine speed range. If the constant speed drive si overheating- a. the CSD wil automatically disconnect b. the CSD may only be disconnected on the ground c. the CSD fi disconnected, may not be re-engaged and must be replaced d. the CSD temperature must be monitored and the drive disconnected fi necessary

An advantage of constant frequency alternators in an aircraft electrical system is - a. paralleling b. increased voltage c. simplicity d. increased current

In a series wound generator, as load increases, output voltage - a. increases b. decreases c. stays constant d. increases then decreases

The KW meter in an aircraft electrical system measures - a. total load b. real load c. total EMF d. total voltage

An advantage of a lead acid battery over a NICAD is - a. reduced corrosion hazard b. better discharge characteristics c. lighter weight d. reduced risk of thermal runaway

Generator output in a large aircraft AC electrical system is expressed as - a. kW b. KVA c. KVAR d. EMF

An APU generator wil not connect to the electrical system during - a. overvolt b. undervolt c. overspeed d. underspeed e. any of the above faults

Correct bonding of the fuselage components in a large jet transport category aircraft is necessary to - a. ensure an even electrical potential throughout the fuselage b. prevent static electricity buildup c. minimise radio transmitter losses d. increase strength

Abus bar ni the electrical system of a large jet transport category aircraft is - a. always made of copper b. a main point receiving electric current from generator or battery c. a terminal block d. a panel to which circuit breakers are attached e. a counter from which to purchase bus tickets

Batteries in a large aircraft are usually connected in parallel to - a. increase the voltage at constant amps b. increase the amps at constant voltage c. increase the amps and the EMF d. decrease the voltage and increase the amps

A generator breaker in the electrical system of a large transport category aircraft wil trip when - a. field excitation of the generator occurs b. the generator is out of phase with others on the bus tie c. the generator develops a fault d. the load increases

A trip free circuit breaker is one which - a. will never trip b. will not reset when tripped c. will trip if an overload exists even if the reset button is held in d. can be overridden to provide current supply and bypass overload protection

In an electrical system, diodes would be found in - a. a rotating inverter b. a static inverter c. a transformer rectifier unit d. a transformer e. an induction motor

An advantage of AC over DC power for electrical systems in large jet transport category aircraft is - a. weight and space savings b. consistent current flow in one direction c. paralleling of generators is simplified d. AC circuitry is less complex than DC

Hydraulic pumps in large aircraft hydraulic systems may be powered by - a. the engines b. the electrical system the bleed c. air d. the ram air turbine e. all of the above

The term hydraulic 'jack stalling' means - a. low hydraulic pressure is preventing the jack from moving to its limits b. contaminated fluid is jamming the jack ni its cylinder c. air pressure is preventing full extension of a particular jack d. the pneumatic system has taken over to prevent a runaway jack moving

Compared to hydraulic actuating systems, pneumatic systems of the same operating pressure - a. are only used as a backup system b. exert less force c. exert more pressure d. are only used for landing gear extension

Refer to diagram H1 on page 3 of the course notes. The system component labelled A is the - a. electric pump b. mechanical pump c. pressure accumulator d. fluid reservoir

Refer to diagram H1 on page 3 of the course notes. The system component labelled C is the - a. electric pump b. mechanical pump c. pressure accumulator d. fluid reservoir

Refer to diagram H1 on page 3 of the course notes. The system component labelled E is the - a. electric pump b. mechanical pump c. pressure accumulator d. fluid reservoir

Refer to diagram H2 on page 34 of the course notes. The system which controls normal nose wheel steering is - a. system A b. system B c. standby system d. any system

Refer to diagram H2 on page 34 of the course notes. The hydraulic system which is able to provide power to steer the nose gear is - a. system A b. system B c. standby system d. any system e. system A and system B

In a hydraulic system with an operating pressure of 3000 psi, an actuator measuring 10 inches by 10 inches would exert a force of - a. 30 lb b. 300 lb c. 3000 lb d. 30000 lb e. 300000 lb

Arestrictor valve fitted to the landing gear hydraulic system of a large jet aircraft is to - a. prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension b. prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear retraction c. shut off fluid supply ni the event of a leak d. reduce the operating pressure of the system

The purpose of the shuttle valve in the hydraulic system of a large jet transport category aircraft is - a. to allow hydraulic pressure from the alternate system to pressurise the lines in the event of a failure of the normal system b. to vent excess hydraulic system pressure back to the reservoir during periods of low demand c. to allow extra hydraulic pressure into the lines to cope with periods of high fluid flow demand d. to allow two separate hydraulic systems to simultaneously supply pressure to services to provide redundancy

With a constant velocity type hydraulic pump, the system component which controls fluid flow to the using units is - a. the pressure regulator b. the pressure relief valve c. the accumulator d. the reservoir

The component which is not common to both hydraulic and pneumatic systems is - a. a filter b. an accumulator c. a pressure regulator d. a restrictor valve e. a shuttle valve

The component in the hydraulic system of a large transport jet aircraft which prevents fluid flow ni the reverse direction to normal is - a. the shuttle valve b. the pressure relief valve c. the check valve d. the accumulator

The component of a hydraulic system ni a large jet transport category aircraft which acts as a surge suppressor is - a. the reservoir b. the accumulator c. the pressure relief valve d. the check valve e. the pressure regulator

The statement which is not an advantage of a variable incidence tailplane with an elevator, compared to a conventional fixed tailplane with an elevator is - a. it allows the aircraft to be trimmed at any speed with full elevator travel available b. its use reduces trim drag over a range of speeds and CG positions c. it allows a smaller and lighter elevator than the conventional tailplane d. it reduces control forces and is easier to overpower if out of trim

In an aircraft with a flying tail, as the pilot moves the control column - a. the tailplane moves and the elevator moves in the opposite direction b. the tailplane moves and the elevator moves in the same direction c. the tailplane moves and the elevator is faired d. the tailplane is faired and the elevator moves

In an aircraft with a hydraulically actuated flap system incorporating a hydraulic flap circuit or blow back valve (as an alternative to airspeed sensing) for overspeed protection, the mechanism which prevents the pilot from overspeeding the flaps when the aircraft is flying well in excess of the flap limit speed is - a. the flap lever is locked in the up position by hydraulic pressure b. the flaps can be selected, but if an overspeed exists, the excessive air loads wil cause hydraulic pressure in the flap circuit to rise and be relieved through the blow back valve, allowing the air loads to drive the flaps to a retracted position c. the protection circuit is dependent on correct positioning of the flap limit speed bug on the ASI d. the flaps can be selected, but fi the airspeed is excessive, the flaps wil automatically retract one stage until the overspeed condition no longer exists. The flap lever does not move as the flaps retract.

The aileron lockout system on the flight controls of a large transport jet aircraft operates - a. at low speeds to lock out the inboard ailerons b. at low speeds to lock out the outboard ailerons c. at high speeds ot lock out the inboard ailerons d. at high speeds to lock out the outboard ailerons

Spoilers operate to assist roll control - a. at low speeds only b. at high speeds only c. when selected by the pilot d. only when not being used as speed brakes e. over all normal operating speeds except maximum cruise speed

Safety switches in a jet transport undercarriage system are located - a. on the gear downlock b. on the gear lever in the cockpit c. on the gear uplock d. on the undercarriage oleo strut

The condition when the use of differential braking (independent main wheel brake application) is permitted on a large transport aircraft to assist nose wheel steering and tighten the radius of a turn is - a. never b. only with fuly castoring nose wheel gear c. only when the nose wheel becomes castoring past its normal angular travel d. only when the aircraft is fitted with a separate steering tiller control

The operation of the main landing gear doors on a large jet during landing gear retraction is controlled by - a. sequencing valves b. the gear door lever in the cockpit c. shuttle valves d. air pressure

Cam centering of the nose wheel steering system operates to straighten the nose wheel - a. after landing gear retraction b. during landing gear extension c. before landing gear retraction d. before landing gear extension

In an aircraft with multiple hydraulic systems, in the event of ahydraulic system pressure failure, alternate nosewheel steering and antiskid brake protection is available for - a. takeoff only b. landing only c. all ground operations including landing and takeoff d. taxiing only

Thermal fuse plugs are found in some large aircraft - a. tyres b. brakes c. wheels d. axles

Antiskid braking system does not provide protection during - a. lift off b. touchdown c. hydroplane d. locked wheel e. fail safe

Prior to landing a large jet transport category aircraft, the autobrakes selector is set to level 3. Concerning pilot operation of the toe brakes during autobrakes operation in the landing roll - a. the autobrakes will disarm b. the autobrakes will disarm only if the manual braking exceeds the level 3 autobrakes retardation rate c. the autobrakes will increase the braking action to equal the manual brake application d. the autobrakes wil automatically increase to maximum to provide rapid deceleration

An aircraft landing gear tyre replacement is essential after - a. heavy landing b. thermal fuse plug melt c. antiskid system failure d. ruptured brake line

The minimum speed for hydroplaning risk can be determined by the formula - a. 9 times the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI for a rotating wheel and 7 times the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI for a non-rotating wheel b. 7 times the square root of the tyre pressure ni PSI for a rotating wheel and 9 times the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI for a non-rotating wheel c. the square root of the tyre pressure ni PSI for a non-rotating wheel d. tyre pressure in PSI divided by aircraft weight in KG e. aircraft weight in KG divided by tyre pressure in PSI

The purpose of chines on an aircraft tyre is to - a. decrease hydroplaning risk b. improve braking coefficient c. deflect water and slush d. cool the brakes e. reduce nose wheel shimmy

The purpose of amarstrand aircraft tyre is to - a. decrease hydroplaning risk b. improve braking coefficient c. deflect water and slush d. cool the brakes e. reduce nose wheel shimmy

Bleed air from the engine compressors of a large jet transport category aircraft may be used for - a. engine start, engine anti-ice, reverse thrust, pressurisation, the ram air turbine b. engine anti-ice, wing anti-ice, reverse thrust, hydraulic backup, the ram air turbine c. engine start, wing anti-ice, engine anti-ice, pressurisation, reverse thrust actuation d. pressurisation, engine and wing anti-ice, turbine blade stall protection, reverse thrust

In cruise at high thrust settings, bleed air for engine anti-ice is normaly supplied from - a. the LP bleed b. the HP bleed c. both the LP and HP bleeds d. either the LP or HP bleed, depending on demand and icing conditions

Anti-ice systems on the wings of large jet transport category aircraft are usually - a. mechanical b. pneumatic c. hydraulic d. electric

If a bleed duct leak is detected ni the bleed air system - a. the leak should be isolated and the source shut of to prevent structural damage b. the pilot can take no corrective action c. the associated engine must be shut down immediately d. there wil be no bleed air available for services

The inputs required to enableoperation of a typical jet transport category aircraft pressurisation system in automatic mode would be - a. landing airfield elevation and cruise altitude b. cruise altitude and maximum cabin altitude in all aircraft c. cabin pressure differential and cabin pressure rate of change in most aircraft d. cruise altitude and cabin pressure differential

The function of positive pressure relief valves in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to - a. limit the cabin altitude to a value below or equal to the aircraft altitude b. limit the cabin pressure to a value above the outside ambient pressure at all times c. limit the maximum positive pressure differential d. limit the maximum rate of change of cabin pressure

The function of negative pressure relief valves in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to - a. limit the cabin altitude to a value below or equal to the aircraft altitude b. limit the cabin pressure to a value above the outside ambient pressure at all times c. limit the maximum positive pressure differential d. limit the maximum rate of change of cabin pressure

The purpose of ram air doors (cooling doors) in the airconditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to - a. regulate the volume of air passing through the heat exchangers b. increase the ram air flow to the cabin c. cool the air in the turbine of the air cycle machine d. increase the bleed airflow through the air cycle machine

The function of the mixing valves in the airconditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to - a. blend ram air with bleed air to control cabin temperature b. mix dry air with humidified air to provide a comfortable cabin environment c. regulate the mixture of cold and hot air for distribution into the passenger and crew cabins d. regulate the mixture of recirculated and fresh air to ensure adequate oxygen supply

The airconditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft has a water separator designed to - a. dry out the moist cool air to prevent respiratory infections b. remove water which condensed in the system during the cooling process c. increase the humidity of the air flowing ot the passenger cabin d. prevent ice forming in the ram duct

Two main types of cooling systems used in the airconditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft are the - a. freon cycle and the vapour cycle b. air cycle and the vapour cycle b. freon cycle and the closed refrigerant cycle d. the open cycle and the air cycle

The purpose of the cabin compressor in a light pressurised twin engined aircraft is to - a. pressurise the cabin air b. ventilate the cabin c. warm the cabin air d. cool the cabin air

Humidifiers are fitted to some aircraft airconditioning and pressurisation systems to - a. dry out the moist cool air to prevent respiratory infections b. remove water which condensed in the system during the cooling process c. increase the humidity of the air flowing ot the passenger cabin by replacing the water removed during the cooling process d. prevent ice forming in the ram duct

If fitted to the airconditioning system of large jet transport category aircraft, humidifiers are used - a. always at high altitude b. when needed at high altitude c. always at low altitude d. always at all altitudes

The valve in the airconditioning and pressurisation system in a large jet transport category aircraft which controls the cabin pressure is - a. the ram valve b. the inflow valve c. the positive pressure relief valve d. the outflow valve

Cabin pressure differential is the difference between - a. cabin pressure and standard atmospheric pressure b. cabin pressure and mean sea level barometric pressure c. cabin altitude and ambient altitude d. cabin pressure and ambient pressure

The component which controls the operation of the outflow valve in the normal mode of operation in the airconditioning and pressurisation system of a jet transport category aircraft is - a. the cabin altitude selector b. the pressure controller c. the aircraft altitude selector d. the cabin differential pressure selector

The most important parameter to monitor in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport category aircraft is - a. cabin altitude b. minimum cabin differential pressure c. minimum cabin altitude rate of change d. aircraft altitude

The cabin altitude warning siren wil be activated when the cabin altitude exceeds - a. 10000 ft b. 14000 ft c. 18000 ft d. 20000 ft

The component in the airconditioning and pressurisation system of a large transport jet aircraft which prevents the maximum cabin pressure differential from being exceeded is - a. the negative pressure relief valve b. the outflow valve c. the ram air valve d. the positive pressure relief valve

The component of the air cycle machine in the airconditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft, in which the coldest air is found is - a. the compressor b. the primary heat exchanger c. the secondary heat exchanger d. the expansion turbine

A pressurised aircraft is in cruise at FL330 with the cabin altitude at 8000 ft. A climb is then made to FL350. Regarding the operation of the pressurisation system in an isobaric mode - a. the cabin altitude will rise to maintain the current differential pressure b. the differential pressure will increase to maintain a constant cabin altitude c. the differential pressure will decrease ot maintain a constant cabin altitude d. the cabin pressure will increase to maintain a constant cabin altitude

The ram valve in a pressurisation system is used to - a. augment conditioned air with ram air supply to the cabin in pressurised flight b. provide cooling and ventilation by ram supply into the cabin in unpressurised flight c. regulate cabin pressure by controlling ram supply into the cabin d. adjust the cabin temperature by blending bleed air and ram air for cabin supply

The amount of fresh air an aircraft airconditioning system should supply to each passenger for comfort is - a. one Ib/min b. one lb/hr c. one kg/min d. one kg/hr

On an EICAS display with multiple pages of messages, pushing the Cancel switch will - a. cancel all messages b. cancel cautions and advisories from the current page and display the next page with warnings carried over from the previous page c. cancel warnings and advisories from the current page and display the next page with cautions carried over from the previous page d. cancel cautions and warnings from the current page and display the next page with advisories carried over from the previous page

The function of the Recall switch in the EICAS is to - a. recall warnings which may have been cancelled accidentally b. recall advisory messages from previous pages, if the associated fault still exists c. recall caution and advisory messages that had been cancelled, if the associated fault still exists d. display all EICAS messages on page one

With reference ot the cancellation of GPWS warnings and alerts when ni the excessive terrain closure rate mode and not in the landing configuration - a. the warning is silenced when the closure rate envelope penetration no longer exists but the alert requires a barometric altitude gain to be silenced b. the alert is silenced when the closure rate envelope penetration no longer exists but the warning requires a barometric altitude gain to be silenced c. positive pilot action will silence both the warning and the alert d. reducing the closure rate will silence the warning but the alert requires a heading alteration to be silenced

The warning systems on the flight deck of a modern transport category aircraft generate a variety of sounds to alert the crew to specific problems. The sound which indicates an engine fire warning a. a bell b. a siren c. a wailer d. a voice

The GPWS wil provide no indication for - a. excessive sink rate near the ground b. an early touchdown ni the landing configuration c. going below the glide-path d. sink rate after take-off

Aground proximity warning system (GPWS) has different modes of operation to protect an aircraft from premature or unintentional ground contact. The aural messages provided under various circumstances can often be either a soft warning or a hard warning, depending on the seriousness of the situation and the speed of response required for corrective action. An example of a soft warning (caution or alert) and a hard warning respectively are - a. 'whoop whoop, pul up' and 'don't sink’ b. 'too low flap' and 'too low gear' c. 'whoop whoop, pull up' and 'too low flap' d. 'terrain' and whoop whoop, pull up'

Afly by wire system of control as used on the latest generation of jet transport aircraft uses - a. electrical signals and wires in place of linkages and cables to connect the control surface actuating rams to the flight deck controls b. wire cables instead of solid linkages to provide manual reversion capability. c. a combination of electrical signals and mechanical linkages from the control column to move the control surfaces d. single power actuating units on al control surfaces and does not need manual reversion

The unsafe takeoff configuration warning system on a large jet transport wil activate when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff and an incorrect selection is made on the - a. flaps and spoilers, stabiliser trim or brakes b. flaps, gear, elevator trim, brakes of flight director c. spoilers, gear selector, stabiliser trim or GPWS d. EADI, EHSI, autothrottle or stabiliser trim

TCAS II Resolution Advisories (RA's) appear on the EHSI as - a. white filled diamonds b. amber filled circles c. red filled squares d. red outlined squares

TCAS Resolution Advisories are inhibited during operations with one engine inoperative because - a. the aircraft may not have the climb performance required to satisfy the RA commands b. the RA would be too distracting for the crew ni a high workload situation c. TCAS provides automatic RA separation commands to the other aircraft so no avoidance actions are necessary d. the RA pitch commands may cause the speed ot decay below Vyse

The GPWS modes where both hard and soft warnings can be generated is - a. 'excessive descent rate' and 'below glideslope deviation' b. 'excessive terrain closure rate' and 'unsafe terrain clearance not in landing configuration' c. 'altitude loss after takeoff or go around' and "below glideslope deviation d. 'excessive descent rate' and 'excessive terrain closure rate'

The TCAS system fitted to the modern jet transport category of aircraft is able to provide two main types of messages to alert crew to the presence of traffic ni the area. These messages are traffic advisories (TA's) and resolution advisories (RA's). The differences between TAs' and RAs' are - a. traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which wil pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which wil not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descend at a minimum rate wil be announced b. traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which wil pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which wil not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descend at a minimum rate wil be announced c. resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which wil pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which wil not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descend at a minimum rate wil be announced d. resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which wil pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Trafic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which wil not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descend at a minimum rate wil be announced

TCAS symbols on an EHSI display may appear as filled or outlined shapes of various colours. A Trafic Advisory (TA) wil be displayed as a - a. blue filled circle b. white outlined diamond c. amber filled circle d. red outlined square

TCAS symbols on an EHSI display may appear as filled or outlined shapes of various colours. Other Traffic will be displayed as a - a. blue filled circle b. white outlined diamond c. amber filled circle d. red outlined square

TCAS II Proximate Traffic appears on the EHSI as - a. white filled diamonds b. amber filled circles c. red filed squares d. red outlined squares

The warnings which have priority over TCAS resolution advisories (RA’S) are - a. stall b. windshear c. GPWS d. all of the above

On aircraft equipped with automatic GPWS voice callouts of radio altitude and minimums, the "minimums, minimums" voice alert occurs when the aircraft arrives at the decision height set on - a. the captain's radio altimeter b. the first officer's radio altimeter c. either the captain's or first officer's radio altimeter, whichever is higher d. either the captain's or first officer's radio altimeter, whichever is lower

The Landing Configuration Warning system of a typical jet transport category aircraft is activated when the landing gear is not down and locked and - a. either thrust lever is retarded to idle below 1000 ft radio altitude b. both thrust levers are retarded to idle or any flap setting is selected below 800 ft radio altitude c. any flap setting is selected below 1000 ft radio altitude d. landing flaps are selected or either thrust lever is retarded to idle below 800 ft radio altitude

Regarding the colours used on the EICAS display ot indicate relative urgency of crew alerts - a. warnings are red, cautions are amber, advisories are cyan b. warnings and cautions are red, advisories are amber c. warnings are red, cautions and advisories are amber d. warnings, cautions and advisories are amber

The part of the takeoff during which the Master Caution Lights of a typical jet transport category aircraft are inhibited for al cautions is - a. nose gear lift of to nose gear lift of +20 seconds or 400 ft radio altitude, whichever occurs first b. Vr to 400 ft radio altitude c. 80kt to nose gear lift off +20 seconds or 400 ft radio altitude, whichever occurs first d. V1 to 400 ft radio altitude or nose gear lift off +20 seconds, whichever occurs first

The GPWS wil provide no indication for - a. excessive sink rate near the ground b. flight toward vertically shear terrain c. going below the glide-path d. sink rate after take-off

With regard to the relative priority of GPWS and TCAS warnings - a. TCAS TAs' are inhibited during GPWS warnings but RAs' wil annunciate b. TCAS advisories have lower priority than GPWS, or windshear warnings c. both TCAS TAs' and RAs' have priority over GPWS warnings d. the TCAS and GPWS are independent of one another

A take-off warning system on a large transport aircraft will operate above a thrust lever setting of - a. self-sustaining speed b. as the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff, the exact thrust setting will vary c. idle d. design RPM

With regards to the operation of TCAS, an intruder with a mode A transponder wil be - a. invisible to TCAS b. displayed as other traffic or proximate traffic or as a traffic advisory c. displayed as a traffic advisory or a resolution advisory depending on relative position d. be displayed without range and bearing information

With regard to the unsafe takeoff configuration warning system on modern jet transport category aircraft, when the aircraft is on the ground - a. the system is armed when both engines reach takeoff thrust settings b. the system is armed when either engine reaches takeoff thrust setting c. the system is armed when both engines are accelerated towards takeoff thrust d. the system is armed when either engine accelerates towards takeoff thrust

It is possible, but the least advisable to - a. fly with the flight director on and the autopilot on b. fly with the flight director off and the autopilot on c. fly with the flight director on and the autopilot off d. fly with the flight director off and the autopilot off

You are descending at 3000 feet/min ni vertical speed mode (VS) to the MCP selected altitude of 9000 ft with an autopilot engaged. As you approach this altitude - a. the vertical speed annunciator wil come on and the alt hold annunciator wil go out b. the vertical speed digital display wil change to zero c. the GPWS wil advise you aurally that the desired altitude is approaching d. the VS annunciator wil be replaced by ALT CAP at capture then ALT HOLD

Flight director/autopilot modes are not able to be selected together in - a. HDG HOLD and V/S b. HDG SEL and ALT HOLD c. HDG HOLD and LOC d. V/S and VNAV PATH

Flight director/autopilot modes which are pitch modes are - a. HDG HOLD b. HDG SEL c. LOC and GS d. V/S and VNAV PATH

The First Officer is flying a multiple autopilot equipped aircraft. The autopilots which should be engaged are - a. R only or C only unless performing an autoland b. L and R at all times c. C and R at all times d. L, C and R at all times

The autothrottle is on and the autopilot is off with the flight director on and ALT HOLD and SPD and HDG SEL engaged. The correct statement is - a. this situation is not possible b. the flight director will indicate pitch to hold altitude by way of pitch bar command c. the flight director wil not engage in this situation d. the flight director command bars wil be hidden in this situation

Assume autopilot C in a B767 in cruise is engaged and the C autopilot fails. You would know because - a. the C autopilot engage switch annunciator wil extinguish and an audio alarm wil sound b. a GPWS voice warning will tell you c. all autopilots wil disconnect completely d. all control panel lights wil extinguish

The operation of a parallel connected autopilot system causes - a. the flight controls in the cockpit to remain still when the autopilot is engaged b. the flight controls ni the cockpit to move when the autopilot is engaged c. the system to be unavailable for autoland operations d. autopilot disconnect warning sirens to be unnecessary

The bank angle limit select knob on the AP/FDS control panel has an ‘AUTO' selection. When set to ‘AUTO,' the autopilot will - a. limit the bank angle in HDG select mode ot 15° at high TAS increasing progressively to 25° as TAS decreases b. limit the bank angle in HDG select mode to 15 below 250 kt TAS increasing progressively to 25° as TAS increases above 250 kt TAS c. limit the bank angle to a standard rate one turn at all speeds d. limit the bank angle ot 15° in LNAV only

Flight modes which are not able to be engaged simultaneously on a typical autoflight system are - a. THR HOLD, N1, VS/ and FD b. SPD, VNAV PATH, LNAV and CMD c. SPD, V/S, HDG SEL and CMD d. SPD, G/S, LOC and F/D

The autoland status annunciator (ASA) monitors - a. localiser integrity b. autopilot systems status c. glide slope integrity d. the status of all air and ground systems

With regard to the monitoring of autopilot systems via the autoland status annunciator - a. a land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational) b. a land 3 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail operational) c. a land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive) d. a land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail passive)

When conducting CAT II or III autoland approaches, the autoland status annunciator (ASA) monitors - a. all aircraft systems b. ground systems only c. all aircraft and ground systems d. autopilot systems only

With a fuly coupled ILS autoland the FMC wil command a capture of the localiser and glideslope fi the APPROACH mode is armed. In this case - a. ALT HOLD wil be automatically replaced with GS at glideslope capture b. ALT HOLD must be manually deselected and replaced with GS at glideslope capture c. ALT HOLD cannot be engaged with the approach mode armed d. ALT HOLD wil only disengage fi the aircraft flies down onto the glideslope from above

To make a missed approach from a coupled autoland approach once the LOC and GS have been captured with RA below 1500 ft the correct procedure is to - a. select ALT HOLD b. disengage the autopilot c. deselect GS and LOC D d. select GA

When an aircraft is climbed or descended using the Flight Level Change function of the auto flight system, the thrust settings used by the autothrottle system are - a. on climb, thrust is automatically set to a maximum of climb thrust and on descent, the throttles are automatically retarded to a minimum of idle thrust b. on climb or descent the thrust setting is determined according to the current lAS c. in Flight Level Change mode, the autothrottle is disabled so al thrust settings must be manually selected by the pilot d. on climb, thrust wil be set to Max Continuous Thrust and on descent to 50% N1

In level flight an AP/FDS mode control panel shows a selected IAS of 280 kt ni altitude hold mode. The FD, autopilot and autothrottle are then al turned off. In this case the 280 IAS indication will - a. be blanked of and not displayed b. remain as before but wil have no significance on the speed tape display c. remain as a reminder to the pilot that the system is still ni altitude hold d. remain displayed in the window and as the command airspeed bug on the speed tape

With reference to a typical AP/FDS mode control panel - a. the vertical speed mode may be de-selected by selecting altitude hold b. altitude hold may be de-selected by rotating the vertical speed wheel c. the altitude select knob wil de-select altitude hold immediately d. the vertical speed window always indicates climbs or descents at standard rate

An aircraft is on descent with the annunciators as shown. fI the SPD annunciator goes blank, the probable cause is - SPD VNAV PTH LNAV CMD a. the auto-pilot has disconnected b. VNAV has disconnected c. the auto-throttle has lost speed data d. LNAV has disconnected

During amulti-autopilot Category III autoland, an approach submode of ROLLOUT is annunciated on the Flight Mode Annunciator roll mode to replace LOC at approximately 5 ft RA. Concerning autothrottle operation when ROLLOUT is engaged - a. the autothrottle mode changes to THR HOLD b. the autothrottle remains in IDLE mode until AT/ disengagement c. the autothrottle is disarmed when ROLLOUT becomes the engaged roll mode d. the autothrottle mode changes to GA when ROLLOUT is the engaged roll mode

An aircraft equipped with an autoland system is on approach with a "LAND 2" annunciation. One autopilot then fails. In this situation - a. the aircraft can continue the autoland sequence using the remaining autopilot b. the remaining autopilot wil fly the localiser and glideslope to within 2m accuracy. c. the aircraft wil continue to track the localiser and glideslope on the remaining autopilot and not alow a significant deviation from the flight path d. the pilot must take over immediately

The inputs considered to be "outer loop" in an autopilot system are - a. attitude and yaw damper b. pitch and roll c. altitude and heading d. yaw and pitch

When an autopilot system "mimics" the control wheel inputs by moving the control wheel when engaged, it is described as being - a. parallel b. series c. split d. independent

When an autopilot system "hardover" occurs - a. the control surface servomotors go ot full deflection b. the control surface servomotors go to partial deflection c. the trim tab servo actuator moves to full deflection d. the trim tab servo actuator is unserviceable

During flight planning the crew of a transport category aircraft program the FMC with the proposed route but forget to load a descent point and final segment. With LNAV engaged, when the aircraft passes its last programmed waypoint the autoflight system will - a. enter a left hand holding pattern b. enter a right hand holding pattern c. maintain present heading d. maintain present track

To provide LNAV guidance the FMC needs as a minimum input from initialisation, navigation data from - a. 2 VOR's b. VOR/DME c. 2 DME's d. 1 IRS e. 2 IRSs

The validity dates of navigational data contained in the FMC may by confirmed by reference to the - a. ident page of the CDU b. placards in the cockpit c. flight manual d. daily NOTAMS

When an aircraft equipped with a Flight Management System providing vertical navigation capability begins a descent, a vertical deviation indicator shows deviation from the FMC computed profile. During a VNAV PATH descent with no speed restrictions, if unexpected tail winds are encountered - a. the speed brakes wil automatically extend to compensate for the tail wind and maintain the profile b. the aircraft wil exceed its limit speed to maintain the profile c. a drag required message is displayed on the CDU, prompting the crew to extend speed brakes d. the aircraft wil immediately leave the profile or reduce thrust to maintain selected speed

A function of the Line Select key on the CDU of the FMC is to - a. select the page identified on the adjacent line b. select the procedure identified on the adjacent line c. select the data identified on the adjacent line d. select the function identified on the adjacent line e. all of the above

A function of the Line Select key on the CDU of an FMC is - a. to move data from the IRS to the CDU screen b. to move data from the scratch pad to a line or from a line to the scratch pad c. to delete data from the scratch pad d. to enter information into the scratch pad

The items which cannot be accepted as a waypoint by the FMC are - a. conditional waypoints b. waypoints already behind the aircraft's present position c. waypoints off the current track d. waypoints containing more than 5 characters e. waypoints not in the database

In an aircraft FMS with two FMCs' and two CDUs, the minimum equipment required for optimum RNAV operation of the system within radio aid coverage is - a. two FMCs' and one CDU without radio updating b. two FMCs' and two CDUs with radio updating c. one FMC and one CDU with radio updating d. one FMC and two CDUs without radio updating

Regarding the validity periods of FMC databases - a. the navigation and performance databases have a 28 day period of validity b. the navigation database has a 28 day period of validity and the performance database is updated as required c. the performance database has a 28 day period of validity and the navigation database is updated as required d. the navigation and performance databases are updated as required

If a reduced thrust take-off is programmed into a flight management computer using the assumed temperature method, the correct statement regarding thrust output in the event of an engine failure after V1 is- a. the pilot must manually increase the thrust on the live engine/s following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients for obstacle clearance b. the autothrottle wil automatically increase the thrust on the live engine/s following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients for obstacle clearance c. the reduced thrust output of the remaining engine/s wil provide net obstacle clearance at al temperatures below ISA d. the reduced thrust output from the remaining engine/s wil be sufficient to provide the required climb gradients for obstacle clearance without needing to increase thrust

When an aircraft equipped with a flight management system is operated on a flight outside the area contained ni the FMC navigation data base, the incorrect statement is - a. all waypoints must be entered as latitudes and longitudes b. the FMC wil not use radio signals to update its calculated position and will not tune VOR's or DME's c. the HSI map cannot display airports, navaids or waypoints that are not in the route d. origins cannot be entered into the route

The Standby Navigation System (SNS) is made up of - a. an IRS and a CDU on each side of the aircraft b. a CDU and a FMC on each side of the aircraft c. two CDUs d. two IRS's

The Standby Navigation System (SNS) is not capable of providing - a. LNAV and VNAV guidance b. waypoint identifiers c. IRS position fixing d. great circle courses between waypoints e. magnetic North reference for the active leg

The function available when using the Standby Navigation System (SNS) is - a. radio updating of IRS computed position b. insertion of conditional waypoints c. permanent waypoint storage d. APFDS heading select mode

During Standby Navigation System (SNS) operation, memory and computing capability are contained within the - a. Flight Management Computer (FMC) b. Control Display Unit (CDU) c. Inertial Reference System (IRS) d. Air Data Computer (ADC)

The Standby Navigation System (SNS) has its own permanent - a. performance database b. navigation database c. computing capability d. memory

With the airspeed window on the AFDS panel blanked, the command airspeed bug is being controlled by - a. the FMC b. the ADC c. the speed selector d. the autopilot e. the flight director

fI the Captain's side FMC fails, the opposite side FMC may be selected to provide a map display for the Captain's EHSI. Concerning EHSI range selection on the Captain's side in this situation - a. range selection is controlled by inputs into the CDU b. the First Officer's EHSI mode selector controls EHSI map range for both pilots regardless of the selections on the Captain's EHSI controller c. the First Officer's EHSI range selector controls EHSI map range for both pilots but the Captain's controller must agree with the settings on the First Officer's controller or else a MAP RANGE DISAGREE message will be displayed on the EHSI d. the Captain's EHSI mode and range selector controls EHSI modes and range for both pilots regardless of the selections on the First Officer's controller e. both displays are still controlled by their respective controllers

With regard to the colour coding of various elements of a typical EHSI display, the combination which is not correct would be - a. warnings are coloured red b. cautions are coloured amber c. white indicates command information d. green indicates dynamic information or engaged modes e. cyan indicates background information

Regarding the EHSI, the difference between the display in Plan and Map mode is - a. plan is the normally used display and shows information against a moving map background b. plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed without track and heading information c. plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed with the current track and heading information at the top of the screen d. map shows the flight plan displayed against a small scale map of the route to be flown

Weather radar returns may be displayed on the EHSI when - a. in MAP, expanded VOR or expanded ILS modes b. a full compass scale has been selected c. either a ful or expanded compass scale has been selected d. in MAP mode only

The vertical deviation scale on an EHSI Map display shows the pointer at the low end of the display. This indicates that - a. the aircraft is above the descent profile and a ROD of more than 400 ft/min is required to regain the intended path b. the aircraft is above the descent profile by at least 400 ft c. the aircraft is below the descent profile and a ROC of 400 ft/min is required to regain the intended path d. the aircraft is below the descent profile by at least 400 tft

On EADI flight mode annunciators, in level flight in ALT HOLD, if the SPD annunciator on the EADI changes ot a blank display accompanied by an aural warning, the likely cause is - a. autopilot disengagement b. autothrottle disengagement c. vertical navigation mode disengagement d. lateral navigation mode disengagement

When configured for take of, the command airspeed bug on the airspeed indicator and speed tape on the EADI is referenced to - a. V1 b. VREF c. VR d. V2

With reference to a typical EHSI display in Map Mode, the altitude range (acquisition) arc shows - a. the FMC flight plan computed top of climb position based on the forecast wind b. the current altitude c. the computed top of climb position based on current wind and rate of climb d. the glide range in nil wind for the current altitude

TCAS II Resolution Advisories (RA's) appear on the EHSI as - a. white filled diamonds b. amber filled circles c. red filled squares d. red outlined squares

A symbol Generator (SG) failure in an EFIS with multiple SGs will result in - a. a warning flag on the EHSI and EADI b. a blank screen, with alternate switching required to restore the display c. a caution SG message on the CDU, but no loss of data presentation d. no change to the displays as backup is fully automated

Selecting a negative decision height (DH) on the EADI wil cause - a. the DH display to change to magenta and the radio altitude (RA) readout to change to green b. the DH display to change to amber and the RA readout to remain unaffected c. the DH to go blank and the RA readout to remain unaffected d. the DH display and the RA readout to go blank

A symbol generator failure in the EFIS wil result in - a. a SG fail flag display on those screens supplied by that particular SG b. a blank screen on those screens supplied by that particular SG with alternate switching required ot restore the display c. a caution message on EICAS but no loss of data presentation as alternate switching si automatic d. loss of colour capability on the screens supplies by that particular SG but wire frame presentations wil stil be available

The mode in which TCAS displays are not available on the EHSI is - a. VOR b. ILS c. МАР d. PLAN

The mode which is 'track up' on the EHSI is - a. VOR b. ILS c. MAP d. both VOR and ILS

On the typical EHSI Map display, the vertical deviation indicator shows variation from the profile during a descent. When the cursor reaches the extreme bottom end of the scale the aircraft is - a. 400 ft above the profile b. 400 ft below the profile c. 1000 ft above the profile d. 1000 ft below the profile

The loss of numeric data which is replaced by dashes on the EHSI display is caused by - a. failure of the FMC b. unreliable data c. symbol generator failure d. power failure

With a typical EHSI selected to MAP mode - a. the display is 'track up' in degrees true b. the display is 'track up' in degrees magnetic c. the display is 'heading up' in degrees true d. the display is 'heading up' in degrees magnetic e. the display is 'north up' in degrees true f. the display is 'north up' in degrees magnetic

With a typical EHSI selected to PLAN mode - a. the display is 'track up' in degrees true with the plan oriented to North b. the display is 'track up' in degrees magnetic with the plan oriented to magnetic north c. the display is 'heading up' in degrees true d. the display is 'heading up' in degrees magnetic e. the plan section of the display is oriented to true North with current track at the top f. the display is 'north up' in degrees magnetic

When flying within Australia and the Flight Instrument heading reference switch is switched to Normal, the indications of heading on the flight instrument displays are - a. true heading is displayed on all primary heading reference instruments b. true heading is displayed on the EHSI but magnetic heading is displayed on the RMIs c. true heading is displayed on the RMIs but magnetic heading is displayed on the EHSI d. magnetic heading is displayed on all primary heading reference instruments

Concerning the colours of the Decision Height (DH) readout and the Radio Altitude (RA) readout on the EADI as the selected DH is passed on descent - a. the DH changes from magenta to amber, the RA changes from white to amber b. the DH changes from white to amber, the RA changes from green to amber c. the DH changes from green to red, the RA changes from white to magenta d. the DH changes from cyan to amber, the RA changes from green to amber

When the localiser and glideslope have been captured and are the engaged modes in pitch and roll, the indications which will be observed on the EFIS are - a. ILS wil be displayed on the EHSI if selected to the ILS mode b. APP wil be displayed on the EADI as engaged pitch and rol modes if a coupled approach is being made c. ILS wil be displayed on the EADI as the engaged pitch and roll flight modes d. VOR information wil be displayed on the EHSI if selected to LOC mode

With the EHSI display selected to ILS and an ILS frequency tuned, the TO/FROM indicator wil be - a. removed from the display b. covered by a red of flag c. used to indicate the command sense of the instrument d. reversed

If the screen display of the EFIS suddenly changes to a blank display, the likely cause is - a. total FMC failure b. CRT overtemp or power failure c. air data computer malfunction d. faulty EFIS brightness control

A partial loss of EFIS presentation with a wire frame outline and loss of raster scanning can be caused by - a. FMC failure b. IRS failure c. symbol generator failure d. overheat

AFT Flashcards

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