2009 module exam Flashcards

(98 cards)

1
Q

Midway between transpyloric plane and intertubercular planes

A

Lower pole

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2
Q

5 cm from midline on L1 vertebra spinous process

A

Hilum of kidney

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3
Q

Surgery of the posterior surface of the kidney may affect

A

Ilioinguinal nerve

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4
Q

A 25-year-old female with UTI. What is the disposing factor?

A

Short urethra

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5
Q

Which acts as a physical barrier?

A

Lamina densa of basal lamina

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6
Q

What establish the gradient of hypertonicity?

A

Loop of henle

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7
Q

What forms the macula densa?

A

DCT

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8
Q

What is the Renal Blood Flow if RPF = 600, and plasma is 60%

A

1000 ml

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9
Q

What is RPF when creatinine clearance is 90 and normal FF?

A

450 ml

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10
Q

Podocytes are derived from which layer?

A

Visceral epithelial layer

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11
Q

What is mesangial contraction decrease?

A

Surface area

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12
Q

What normally don’t affect filtration?

A

Hydrolic conduction

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13
Q

Clearance of a substance calculation with Tm for secretion Q

A

30

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14
Q

What does fractional excretion above 1 indicate?

A

Substance filtered and secreted

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15
Q

A patient with lung crackles, dyspnea, chest pain, low blood pressure, heart sound S3 is heard. Creatinine levels were 190. What do we do next?

A

Urine Na+ level

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16
Q

A patient ingested ethylene glycol

A

Necrosis of proximal tubules (nephrotoxic ATN)

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17
Q

A patient with traffic accident developed hemorrhage and shock

A

Renal cortical necrosis

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18
Q

A patient with severe dehydration

A

Necrosis of any part of the nephron (ischemic ATN)

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19
Q

A patient with 3 days history of antibiotic usage

A

Eosinophils infiltration (hypersensitivy interstitial nephritis)

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20
Q

A patient with 10 years of NSAIDs usage developed

A

Lymphocytic infiltration (analgesic nephropathy)

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21
Q

Another question on analgesic nephropathy: associated with?

A

Lymphocytic infiltration

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22
Q

NSAIDs can cause nephrotoxicity and acute renal failure by:

A

Alteration of intraglomerular dynamics

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23
Q

Which drug is associated with ARF with renal artery stenosis?

A

Captopril

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24
Q

Which drug causes ATN with hepatic failure?

A

Acetaminophen

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25
Endogenous immune complex
Membranous GN (doctor 9ala7 ygoul this is the answer, even though kan ako bele5tiyarat “cresentic GN” elle ehya elmfroo’9 tkon elejaba el9a7 la2ana anti-GBM disease ohwa eljawab, bs I don’t know lil amana :/)
26
A 7-year-old child with nephrotic syndrome and normal histology
Fusion of foot cell processes
27
Foot process fusion
Minimal change disease
28
Pathogenesis of membranous GN
Complement activation
29
What is a characteristic of diabetic glomerulosclerosis?
Kimmelstein Wilson lesion
30
Deposition of C3 in peripheral GBM as humps
Post-infectious GN
31
A patient with mesangial and endocapillary proliferation
Lupus nephritis
32
What is mostly seen in post infectious GN?
Neutrophilic infiltration in capillary loops
33
What is the most common risk factor of ESRD in Kuwait?
Diabetes
34
What is the Relative Risk of CVD deaths due to dialysis in ESRD?
>10
35
Which of the following occur in PCT?
80% reabsorption of HCO3-
36
What is the mechanism of reabsorption of HCO3- in PCT S1?
Na-H exchanger
37
Paracellular reabsorption of solutes in water
Solvent drag
38
A patient increased his Na+ intake by 140 mEq/L. What is supposed to happen?
Increase water intake by 1 Kg
39
A patient with low RBF, slightly changed GFR and increased FF. what is the cause?
Angiotensin II
40
Which hormone is stimulated in volume expansion?
ANP
41
Decreased levels of NaCl to macula densa causes - Afferent arteriole dilatation - Afferent arteriole constriction
- Afferent arteriole dilatation
42
A 60-year-old patient underwent nephrectomy because of acute renal failure. After doing the surgery is GFR was 53, a year later it became 49. What is the reason behind that?
Chronic renal disease
43
Dysfunction of podocytes
Proteinuria
44
Failure of ureteric bud to contact the metanephric mesenchyme
Kidney agenesis
45
What structure develops from the ureteric bud?
Collecting duct
46
Failure of connection between renal vesicles and collecting system
Polycystic kidney
47
Two ureters in one kidney because of partial ureteric buds - Bifid ureter - Double ureter - Ureter duplication
- Ureter duplication (kilhom kanaw mawjodeen m3na kilhom elmfrooth the same, bs this is the right answer for sure :/)
48
What Increases AQP-2 in luminal cells?
Increase ADH secretion
49
What increases renin?
Decrease afferent arteriolar pressure
50
What decreases ANP?
Decrease stretch of atrial receptors
51
What causes low ADH secretion?
Alcohol
52
What causes low medullary interstitium osmolarity?
Low levels of urea transporter 1
53
How is the ability of concentrating urine increased?
By reducing blood flow to vasa recta
54
Which drug causes hyperglycemia?
Hydrochlorothiazide
55
Which diuretic causes testicular atrophy?
Spironolactone
56
Which drug is used to preserve K with other diuretics?
Amiloride
57
Which drug inhibits stone formation?
Chlorothalidone
58
Which cation is highest in ECF?
Na
59
What causes hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis with normal Anion Gap?
RTA
60
A patient with hypernatremia, urine osmolarity is less than 300
Diabetes insipidus
61
Non-responsive to post-vasopressin with urine osmolarity 200
Complete nephrogenic DI
62
Same person, later develops uremia and high creatinine
Acute renal failure (m3na elmfrooth with diabetes ay sha59 y7ooshah chronic renal failure, bs this is the answer, shlon? Madri :/)
63
A patient eats 1000 mEq/L K+. After half an hour we the K level and it equals 5 which is normal. What is the reason?
Transcellular movement of K across the cells
64
What stimulates NaHCO3 reabsorption in a volume depleted patient?
Angiotensin II
65
What is the highest ADH stimulant?
Exercise in the heat with no water
66
Median umbilical ligament is developed from
Urachus
67
A malnourished patient cannot secrete NH4. When given I.V. phosphate solution he could. How?
Lack of phosphate prevents acidification of urine
68
A direct clearance question calculation
150
69
A medical student during his final exam. His Ph = 7.47, CO2 = 22, HCO3 = 21.
Acute respiratory alkalosis
70
Patient with pH = 7.45, HCO3- = 30, CO2 = 45
Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
71
There were two questions on metabolic acidosis and the way of the kidney to compensate, one of them was by increasing HCO-3 synthesis while the other one was by secreting more NH4 than normal. But we don’t remember the questions
-
72
A patient with left loin pain. X-ray showed kidney stones, what would be typically be?
Calcium oxalate
73
A patient with struvite stones with alkaline urine. What enzyme forms the stones?
Bacterial urease
74
Which drug decrease the formation of uric acid stones?
Allopurinol
75
What is the cause of metabolic disorder that cause cystinuria?
Defective amino acid transport
76
A patient with abdominal pain recurrent of 3 years with high urine calcium
Kidney stones
77
Metabolic disorder of lysine/cysteine/arginine will cause formation of which type of stones?
Cysteine stones
78
What is the most common cause of community UTI?
E-coli
79
When do you take a specimen for Schistosoma UTI?
Terminal portion of urine
80
A 6-year-old patient with unilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter
Vesicoureteral reflux
81
What is the most common congenital anomaly in children?
Vesicoureteral reflux
82
How do we evaluate urethral stricture?
Ascending urethrography
83
A 23-year-old female with hypertension, what is the first modality of diagnosis?
Ultrasound
84
What is the first modality in diagnosing a 60-year-old man with prostatit hyperplasia?
Ultrasound
85
What is formed by the mesonephric duct?
Ductus deferens
86
How is renin released by sympathetics?
B agonists
87
A 60-year-old patient smoker with hemoptysis and rapidly progressive renal dysfunction
Cresents
88
A 76-year-old man with paraplegia. What would cause UTI?
Neurogenic bladder
89
Hyperplasia of which part of the prostate will lead to urinary obstruction?
Periurethral
90
Which represents reaction to secretion from ruptured prostatic glands? 145- obstruction?
Granulomatous prostatitis
91
Hyperplasia of stromal and epithelial cells
Nodular prostatic hyperplasia
92
Which grade shows no glandular differentiation but with solid sheets and nests of tumors with central necrosis in Gleason
Grade 5
93
A Gleason score of 5 would show you
What’s in grade 2 and 3 because the gleason score is the total of the two nearest grades for the tumor, so it would be showing us a well differentiated tumor...
94
A patient with enlarged prostate but normal PSA
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
95
In volume depletion, alpha intercalated cells will work under the effect of?
Aldosterone
96
A patient with history of recurrent UTI with leukocytes expressed in the prostatic secretions
Chronic bacterial prostatitis
97
What happens in the early distal tubule?
Na-Cl symporter
98
Why there is no glucose in urine normally?
Because the filtered load is lower the Tm for glucose