2010 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following statements is true?
a. The most common cause of thoracic radiculopathy is diabetes mellitus
b. The most common levels affected by herniated disc at cervical elvel are C4-5, C5-6 and C6-7
c. L4-5 disc more commonly herniates than L5-S1
d. The nerve root involved most commonly in thoracic outlet syndromes are C8 and T1
A
D
2
Q
An 80 yo man presents w/ a 2 year history of LBP radiating down from both legs to his ankles. He also notes numbness in his left foot and slight weakness. The pain is increased w/ walking and relieved within seconds of cessation of activity. Leaning forward eases his pain and lying supine relieves it. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?
a. HNP
b. Facet arthopathy
c. Muscle spasm
d. Spinal stenosis
A
D
3
Q
Phantom pain refers to
a. Any sensation of the missing llimb, except pain
b. Painful sensation referred to the missing limb
c. Spontaneous movement of the visible contractions
d. Pain referred to the amputation stump
A
B
4
Q
Stump pain and phantom pain are often confused. There are however, notable differences. One of the following statements is WRONG
a. Unlike phantom pain, stump pain occurs in the body part that actually exists, in the stump that remains
b. Stump pain typically is described as a ‘sharp’, ‘burning’, ‘electric like’ or ‘skin sensitive’ pain
c. Surgical revision of the stump or removal of the neuroma is some times considered when treating stump pain
d. Stump pain is the precursor of phantom pain
A
D
5
Q
One of the following signs and symptoms is NOT consistently found with cervical radiculopathy
a. Gait disturbance
b. Normal muscle tone
c. Negative babinski test
d. Positive axial compression test (spurling maneuver)
A
A
6
Q
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding arthritis?
a. OA, often cause malaise, fatigue, weight loss and fever
b. AS is a chronic disease that primarily affect the spine and may lead to stiffness of the back
c. Diagnosis for gouty arthritis is made thru blood test for HLA-B27 genu
d. RA actually have acute onset of symptoms that develop over days
A
B
7
Q
A 34 yo female patient came to the outpatient clinic w/ complaint of LBP, what is the 1st exam you will do?
a. SLR test
b. Flx-ext trunk
c. Observation of gait pattern
d. 6MWT
A
C
8
Q
A 34 yo female patient came to the outpatient clinic w/ complaint of LBP
From exam you find that patient has a thoraco-lumbar scoliosis w/ 45 deg Cobb angle. What will be your choice of treatment?
a. Exc program
b. Treatment w/ modalities
c. Bracing program
d. Treatment w/ modalities & exc
A
D
9
Q
Which one is the cause of postural/functional back pain?
a. Scoliosis
b. Spondulosis
c. Hyperlordosis
d. Spondylolisthesis
A
C
10
Q
You have a 15 yo female patient w/ D/ idiopathic scoliosis, major curve in thoracal vertebrae, w/ 45 deg Cobb angle. When and/or what is the indication to refer her to the orthopaedic surgeon?
a. She complains of back pain
b. She complains of shortness of breath
c. She has problems w/ her appearance
d. She complains of asymmetry of breasts
A
A
11
Q
Patient who suffer from trochanteric bursitis, will have a specific pathological gait
a. Antalgic gait
b. Spastic gait
c. Limping gait
d. Swinging gait
A
B
12
Q
One of the most effective methods of decreasing the load on the hip joint is
a. Reduced weight
b. Use of external support
c. Use of HKAFO
d. Immobilized the hip
A
D
13
Q
Classification of pain by type of origin/organ affected are
a. Nociceptive, neuropathic, visceral, mixed type
b. Musculoskeletal, neuropathic, visceral, psychogenic
c. Nociceptive and neuropathic
d. Nociceptive, neuropathic, psychogenic
A
D
14
Q
The purpose of using pressure garment for burned patient in recovery phase is to
a. Reduce capillary perfusion
b. Increase tissue oxygenation
c. Increase cellular activity
d. Increase collagen synthesis
A
A
15
Q
Phys exc component for trunk osteoporotic patient that should be avoided is
a. Forward bending
b. Backward bending
c. Lateral bending
d. Rotation
A
A
16
Q
Below is NOT TRUE regarding OA
a. Pain is the most important symptom
b. There is continuous process of joint cartilage destruction
c. There is always concomitant osteoporosis
d. There is malalignment of knee joint
A
C
17
Q
A 70 yo white man presents w/ axial back pain that is worse w/ standing and walking. At times he also experiences pain radiating from lumbar spine into the legs when walking. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Lumbar canal stenosis
b. Sacroiliac joint pain
c. Piriformis syndrome
d. Ischial bursitis
A
A
18
Q
The RA is not likely to involve the following joint
a. Wrist joint
b. Elbow joint
c. Atlanto-axial joint
d. Suprahumeral joint
A
D
19
Q
In lateral epicondylitis the overused of the following muscle is very important for its development
a. Extensor carpi ulnaris
b. Ext carp radialis brevis
c. Ext carp radialis longus
d. Ext indicis proprius
A
C
20
Q
A test for foraminal intervertebralis closure in which rotates the head to one side, side bends to the same side and extends is
a. Cervical spine compression test
b. Cervical spine distraction test
c. Spurling test
d. Lhermite test
A
C
21
Q
A test for foraminal intervertebralis closure in which rotates the head to one side, side bends to the same side and extends is
a. Cervical spine compression test
b. Cervical spine distraction test
c. Spurling test
d. Lhermite test
A
C
22
Q
The test is used in the exam and evaluation of suspected cubital tunnel syndrome which the wrist in full extension is
a. Tinnel’s test
b. Roos test
c. Phalen’s test
d. Elbow flexion test
A
D
23
Q
Mr. Ali, a 56 yo man suffers a R hemisphere stroke w/ a consequence of L hemiplegia, L neglect and L homonymous hemianopsia. He had trouble w/ swallowing, he was completely dependent for grooming, eating or dressing, however he is able to ambulate w/ help of 1 person and a quad cane. The persistent neglect and L homonymous hemianopsia make him unable to drive and therefore unable to return to work.
The following is NOT classified as his activity limitation or dissabilities: difficulty w/
a. Grooming
b. Eating
c. Socializing
d. Dressing
A
C
24
Q
Mr. Ali, a 56 yo man suffers a R hemisphere stroke w/ a consequence of L hemiplegia, L neglect and L homonymous hemianopsia. He had trouble w/ swallowing, he was completely dependent for grooming, eating or dressing, however he is able to ambulate w/ help of 1 person and a quad cane. The persistent neglect and L homonymous hemianopsia make him unable to drive and therefore unable to return to work
The following is NOT his participation limitation or handicap
a. Inability to drive
b. Inability to work
c. Difficulty in bathing
d. Inability to socialize
A
C
25
One of the following statements for spasticity post stroke is NOT true
a. Usually seen days to weeks post ischemic stroke
b. Usually follows classic UE flexor and LE extensor pattern during amulation
c. Velocity dependent resistance to passive movement of affected muscle at rest
d. Pill rolling tremor of the fingers is very common
D
26
the positive effect of spasticity on a stroke patient
a. Allows hemiplegic patient to weight bear on affected leg during stance phase
b. Better results in movement of the affected leg w/ electrical stimulation
c. Easier to apply back splint on affected leg
d. Improve coordination of affected leg
A
27
The following is NOT true for botulinum toxin injection
a. Works by weakaning spastic muscles by blocking the neuromuscular junction
b. Works for up to 18 months
c. In LE, most treatment is focused on spastic equinovarus deformity
d. Primary goal of treatment are improvement in gait velocity
B
28
To reduce tone in a spastic muscle, the following is NOT appropriate
a. Performing a sustained stretch of the spastic muscle
b. Placing pressure on the tendon of a spastic muscle
c. Performing a quick stretch to the spastic muscle
d. Gentle massage of the spastic muscle
C
29
Splinting, serial casting and seating & positioning are all therapeutic techniques used to reduce tone in hypertonic muscle group. These techniques are based on the following principle.
a. A quick stretch of a spastic muscle group facilitates the GTO which inhibit the spastic muscle
b. Placing pressure on the muscle belly of a spastic muscle group facilitates the GTO which inhibit the spastic muscle
c. A sustained stretch of a spastic muscle group facilitates the GTO which inhibit the spastic muscle
d. None of the above
C
30
The correct statements of autonomic dysreflexia is
a. A noxious stimulus below the lesion level in persons w/ injuries generally above T10
b. Results in a parasympathetic discharge from the splanchnic outflow
c. Because of the ability of supraspinal inhibitory signals to modulate the exagerated sympathetic response that is brought on by a noxious stimulus
d. The most common causes are bladder and bowel distension
C
31
Treatment of detrusor hyperreflexia is
a. Cholinergics
b. Crede or valsalva technique
c. Indwelling catheter
d. Scheduled voiding program
D
32
Less of sensibility on plantar pedis on Morbus Hansen patient caused by neuropathy of n.
a. Tibialis posterior
b. Peroneus
c. Femoralis
d. Ischiadicus
A
33
In barthel ADL index there is no component of
a. Eating
b. Toiletering
c. Sensory component
d. Defecation control
C
34
One of the statements are poor prognostic indicators assocaited w/ stroke outcome, that is
a. Prolonged flaccid period
b. Twitchell described a synergic pattern that will be followed by volitional control of individual movements
c. In middle cerebral territory infarct lower limb shows more recovery than upper limb
d. Proprioception is a key factor in executing and re learning motor function
A
35
A stroke affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery will produce the following syndrome
a. Benedict
b. Millard-Gubler
c. Wallenberg
d. Foville
C
36
Idiopathic facial paralysis (Bell’s palsy)
a. Is usually bilateral
b. Clears completely in at least one half of cases
c. Rarely affect taste sensation
d. Is associated w/ decreased ipsilateral facial sensation
B
37
A stroke patient shows sign of weakness and sensory deficits especially in the right LE, while right UE shows minimal disturbance. There are also slight mental disturbance and aphasia. This condition most probably affecting the
a. Anterior communicating artery
b. Anterior cerebral artery
c. Middle cerebral artery
d. Posterior cerebral artery
B
38
Which is TRUE regarding spasticity?
a. Decreased of resistance to passive movement
b. Presence of clonus
c. Presence of fasciculation
d. Presence of atrophy
B
39
A 6 yo girl w/ poliomyelitis has an abN gait pattern. She shows lateral trunk flexion to the left during stance phase between foot flat and heel off. Swing phase is normal. The muscle strength of gluteus is 4-/5, tibialis anterior 4-/5. ROM is normal. Which gait abN is occuring?
a. Waddling gait
b. Steppage gait
c. Trendelenburg gait
d. Circumducted gait
C
40
A patient ambulates w/ trendelenburg gait. You suspect injury of nerve
a. Femoral
b. Superior gluteal
c. Obturator
d. Sciatic
B
41
Your 15 yo patient w/ DMD complains of new onset morning headaches. What is the most likely cause?
a. Neck extensor tightness
b. Migraine
c. Hypercarbia
d. Vision change
C
42
Which insult is the most likely cause of spastic diplegic CP?
a. Intrauterine stroke
b. Hyperbilirubinemia in the neonatal period
c. Postnatal intraventricular haemorrhage
d. Perinatal asphyxia
C
43
The patient w/ DMD decline in vital capacity tends to coincide w/ onset of
a. Limb contracture
b. Use of orthotic/assistive devices for ambulation
c. WC dependence
d. Dysphagia
C
44
Dewi, 6 yo from CBR are. She cannot play w/ her peer friends. She was born normal except w/ low birth weight. She is unale raising arms and walk independently w/ tiptoeing gait. No other impairments. What kind of assistive device does the patient need for the LE
a. AFO
b. Forearm cane
c. Walker
d. Bilateral axillary crutches
A
45
Commonly used criteria for selection of infants w/ high risk for CP is
a. Persistence of primitive reflexes
b. Poor head control
c. Feeding difficulties
d. Asphyxia at birth
D
46
The abN in oral motor control that is NOT impaired nutrition in children w/ CP is
a. Hypoactive gag reflex
b. Tongue weakness
c. Persistent infantile reflexes
d. Poor suck reflex
A
47
Which aspect has to have priority in rehab management of a disabled child?
a. Ambulation skills
b. Communication
c. ADL
d. Transfer skill
B
48
Which reflex show maturation of midbrain in an infant?
a. Prone tonic labyrinthine reflex
b. Associated reaction
c. Simian posture
d. Labyrinthine righting acting on the head
D
49
Autonomic movement reactions are reactions produced by changes in the position of head, involving the semicircular canals or labyrinths, or neck proprioception. Which one is included in this group of reflexes?
a. Stepping reflex
b. Simian posture
c. Parachute reaction
d. Amphibian reaction
C
50
In examining an infant, a sign of generalized weakness is
a. Frog position
b. Scissoring of the legs
c. Amphibian movements
d. Asymmetry of the face
A
51
CP athetoid type most probably has perinatal history of
a. Icteric
b. Hypoxic
c. Fell down
d. Fits/seizures
A
52
A 2 yo girl diagnosed w/ spina bifida w/ bladder problem need catheterization, your prescription for the catheter will be a nelaton catheter size
a. 15 non latex
b. 15 latex
c. 12 non latex
d. 12 latex
C
53
A 2 yo girl diagnosed w/ spina bifida w/ bladder problem need catheterization, your prescription for the catheter will be a nelaton catheter size
a. 15 non latex
b. 15 latex
c. 12 non latex
d. 12 latex
D
54
One of the following associated conditions in CP should NOT be treated by medication
a. Seizures
b. Severe scissoring
c. Severe spasticity
d. Hyperactivity
B
55
For which of the following symptoms of CP will bracing be most beneficial?
a. Ataxia
b. Spasticity
c. Athetosis
d. Contracture
B
56
The tonic neck reflex is abN if
a. It is variable in the same infant
b. The ipsilateral extremities extend
c. If persist for more than 6 mo
d. The contralateral extremities flx
C
57
The following condition is a positive response of ATNR
a. When head is turned the trunk and limbs turn to the same side
b. When head is turned the limbs flex on the skull side (occipital) and extend on face side
c. Flexion of head causes flexion of forelimbs and extension of hind limbs
d. When the head is turned limbs extend on the skull side and flex on face side
B
58
Most important and reliable exam to identify potential carrier of DMD is
a. Muscle biopsy
b. Measurement of serum creatinine kinase
c. Measurement of serum pyruvate kinase
d. Measurement of lactic dehydrogenase isoenzymes
B
59
The most common cause of death in DMD is
a. Cardiac failure
b. Respiratory failure
c. Marasmus
d. Ulcus decubitus
B
60
Absence of radius bone, according to classification of congenital limb deficiencies include
a. Horizontal terminal deficit
b. Longitudinal terminal deficit
c. Intercalary transverse deficit
d. Longitudinal intercalary deficit
D
61
Waiter’s tip position involve nerve roots of
a. C5-6
b. C7
c. C8-T1
d. C5-T1
A
62
NOT true for SMA type 1
a. Clinical signs under 3 yo
b. Median age of death exceed 10 year
c. Synonim is Kugelberg-Wellander syndrome
d. Autosomal recessive
C
63
aTNR reflex appearance paralel w/ level brain development of
a. Spinal
b. Brainstem
c. Midbrain
d. Cortical
B
64
The following is NOT beneficial effects of walking test, submaximal exc test for chronic pulmonary patients
a. To assist detection of exc tolerance
b. To know and determine functional limitations
c. To measure limitations of pulmonary function
d. To evaluate benefit and effect of medications to functional capacity
D
65
Which one is the most important and the most beneficial of breathing control training for COPD
a. Diaphragm breathing
b. Expiratory pursed lip
c. Combination of diaphgram breathing and expiratory pursed lip
d. Combination of relaxed deep breathing and expiratory pursed lip w/ 3-5 seconds holing inspiration
B
66
Which statement is most important thing to perform exc test
a. Symptom limited test is the choice for COPD in all stage
b. 6MWT and 12MWT are highly recommended for COPD in all stage
c. Monitoring of HR, BP before, during and after exc test is an absolute thing to do in performing exc test
d. Monitoring of dyspneo scale, muscle fatigue and Sat O2 is absolute and HR and BP as well
D
67
One thing should be considered in performing six minute walking distance test in COPD patient
a. It is important to measure pulmonary function
b. It is conducted in the way we conduct 6MWT in cardiac patient
c. It is not a maximal test describing real functional capacity but can be a parameter of training to measure
d. It is just a submaximal test to measure but can be described the real functional capacity of patient
D
68
Using spirometry to get the right number of lung volume, the maneuver could be
a. Breathing as tidal breathing
b. Fast blowing
c. Fast and prolong expiration
d. Prolong expiration
C
69
The benefi of phys exc for diabetic patient is increase
a. Glucose blood level
b. Insulin sensitivity
c. Insulin resistance
d. Lipid blood level
B
70
The elderly obesity patient came to the obesity clinic and hopefully to reduce her body weight. She had the complications such as hypertension, DM type 2 and waist circumference 90 cm. The major goal for this patient was
a. Muscle mass maintenance
b. Reduced risk factors
c. Good QoL
d. Phys function improvement
C
71
For patient w/ congestive heart disease, which of the following is accurate?
a. Most of the important resulting from regular exc is within the myocardium
b. These patient can never expect improved phys fitness
c. Exc capacity is improved because of peripheral adaptations
d. Complete bed rest is prescrbed for this patient
C
72
These are NOT general recommendations exc training for post CABG patient
a. Begin inpatient exc rehab sooner
b. Progress at more accelerated rate
c. More attention to UE ROM exc
d. Resistive exc should be done at inpatient phase program
D
73
Exc testing is most commonly used to evaluate persons suspected of having
a. Coronary artery disease
b. Valve disease
c. Cardiomyopathy
d. Pulmonary edema
C
74
The event of exc induced asthma is reduced in pool therapy because of the
a. Bouyancy effect
b. High humidity of air
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Viscocity of water
B
75
3 months after MCI, a patient is interested in starting a reconditioning program. Which should be avoided?
a. Progressive walking and jogging
b. Swimming
c. Isometric exc
d. Calisthenicx and stretching exc
C
76
The FEV1 and FVC are measure using a spirometer. In the restrictive lung disease
a. Both FEV1 and FVC are reduced, often in proportion to each other
b. FEV1:FVC ratio reduced
A
77
Following an MCI a patient asked when he might having sex w/ his wife, a reasonable answer would be
a. Take it easy for three months and ask me about it
b. Having sex after MCI is dangerous
c. Wait at least 6 mo
d. asap you can climb up 2 steps of stair w/o symptoms you are probably ready
D
78
the vital capacity is the sum total of
a. insp cap, tidal vol, exp cap
b. insp cap, func residual cap
c. insp reserve vol, tidal vol, exp reserve vol
d. insp reserve vol, funct residual cap, tidal vol
C
79
in changing from the supine to sitting position, what will happen to vital capacity? It will
a. increase up to 1000 cc
b. increase up to 200 cc
c. not change
d. decrease up to 200 cc
B
80
a patient w/ obstructive airway who get air trapping would breath
a. forcefully inhale for as long as possible
b. slowly inhale until lungs are fully expanded
c. rapidly alternate forcefull inspiration w/ forceful expiration
d. exhale w/ lips pursed
D
81
this factor significantly associated w/ hip # in elderly
a. hip muscle weakness
b. poor balance
c. osteoporosis
d. osteoarthritis
C
82
ballistic stretching may be performed provided the following criteria are met
a. the athlete should be thoroughly cooled up
b. it should be performed slowly and in a controlled manner, gradually increasing intensity
c. it should be preceeded by strengthening
d. it should only be introduced in the advance stages of stretching program
D
83
the management of most sport injuries is NOT based on
a. minimize the extent of initial damage
b. reduce associated pain and inflammation
c. limit healing of damaged tissue
d. restore flexibility, strength, proprioception and overall fitness during the healing phase
C
84
squatting is the example of
a. open kinetic chain exc
b. closed kinetic chain exc
c. mixed
d. none of the above
B
85
this is NOT signs and symptoms of ligamentum sprain 1st degree
a. minimal, localized tenderness
b. subtle structural instability
c. no ligamentum instability
d. pain and swelling
B
86
which activities would be most difficult to return following an ACL injury?
a. Baseball pitching
b. Squestrian activities
c. Cross-country skiing
d. Marathon running
A
87
This disorder is usually seen in preadolescent athletes who participate in activities such as jumping or running. The disorder is a result of recurring micro trauma from the quadriceps contracting, namely
a. Tibial plateu #
b. Osgood-schlatter disease
c. Patellar tendonitis
d. Pes anserinus bursitis
B
88
Flexion and extension of lumbar vertebrae are relatively free, because the articulation facets are in
a. Sagital plane
b. Coronal plane
c. Frontal plane
d. Transversal plane
A
89
The stance phase of gair includes
a. Acceleration, swing-thru deceleration
b. Heel strike, midstand, push-off
c. Push-off, deceleration strike, heel strike
d. Acceleration, heel strike, push off
B
90
Mechanical advantage less than one
a. Weight arm is shorter than effort arm
b. Weight arm is longer than effort arm
c. Effort is bigger than weight
d. Effort move w/ the speed faster than weight
B
91
Tilting of the pelvis occurs maximally
a. At mid stance
b. At push off
c. During swing thru
d. At heel strike
A
92
At heel strike of ipsilateral limb, the most active muscle is
a. Glut min
b. Glut med
c. Glut max
d. None of the above
C
93
Two major ‘crutch walking’ muscles of shoulder are
a. Lower pect. Major and teres minor
b. Pect minor and latt dorsi
c. Lower pect major and latt dorsi
d. Pect minor and teres minor
C
94
The muscle hypertrophy and increase in strenth is dependent on biochemical factor that is stimulated by conditioning
a. Recruitment of neighboring motor units
b. Decreased vascularization
c. Decreased number of myofibrils
d. Decreased glycogen and protein storage in muscle
A
95
This is not correct for changes in biologic functions in response to aging
a. Increased VO2max
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Increased systolic BP
d. Increased serum lipids
A
96
Three months afer a nerve lesion, the MUAP will be
a. Same prior to lesion
b. High amplitude-long duration
c. Low amplitude-long duration
d. High amplitude-short duration
B
97
EMG biofeedback measures which of the following?
a. Muscle contraction directly
b. Electrical activity associated w/ muscle contraction
c. Movement of ions across the cell membrane
d. Magnitude of a motor nerve depolarization
B
98
Some factors that influence muscle strength, power and endurance
a. Lenght of muscle: longer muscle has more tension
b. Position of muscle insertion to the fulcrum: longer distance to insertion give more force
c. The amount of training: the longer the exercise increase more strenth
d. Age: peak performance at the age of 20-25 yo and decline 1 %/year after 25 yo
D
99
Which type of current does shortwave diathermy use
a. Alternating
b. Direct
c. Indirect
d. Modified direct
A
100
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to microwave diathermy
a. Bruising
b. Electrical implant
c. Infectious skin disease
d. Old scar tissue
D
101
Which is the best modality for tendon healing
a. Continuous USD
b. Pulsed USD
c. Microwave (pulsed) diathermy
d. SWD
B
102
Modalities could facilitate lymphatic flow is
a. USD
b. ES
c. Intermittent pneumatic compression
d. Laser
C
103
Performing a seated leg extension exc is an example of
a. Open kinetic chain exc
b. Closed kinetic chain exc
c. static kinetic chain exc
d. mixed kinetic chain exc
A
104
the effects of treadmill training in parkinson is NOT to
a. decrease fall risk
b. improves QoL
c. reduces tremor
d. improve gait impairment
D
105
NOT correct about DeLorme technique
a. used to strengthen muscle
b. also called as progressive ressistance exc
c. subject tested to determine 10 RM
d. subject tested to determine 1RM
D
106
which type of muscle contraction produces the greatest amount of force generation (torque)?
a. Slow concentric
b. Fast concentric
c. Fast eccentric
d. Isometric
C
107
Neurodevelopmental treatment to normalize tone, inhibit abN primitive reflex patterns and facilitate autonomic reaction and subsequent normal development is
a. Bobath
b. Rood
c. Voyta
d. Ayres
A
108
Prescription for diabetic shoes from physiatrist should NOT performed in this component
a. Diagnostic and goal
b. Correction or modification
c. Material for achieve the goal
d. Shoes number/size
D
109
Special insole for diabetic shoes should
a. Distribution plantar pedis pressure
b. Soft insole w/o distribution plantar pressure
c. Hard insole
d. w/o thermoplastic effect
A
110
A leprosy patient shows severe bilateral claw hands. However, all of the hand and finger joints have good ROM and all extrinsic muscle of hand have normal MMT. He refused a reconstruction surgery. The best orthotic device to maximize hand function is
a. resting hand splint
b. cock-up splint
c. knuckle-bender splint
d. posterior splint
C
111
foot wear for Morbus Hansen Patient should NOT have this criteria
a. wide toe box
b. rocker sole
c. insole must distribute pressure
d. high of heel must no more than two inches
B
112
T strap is required for the CP patient to control
a. genu varum
b. genu valgum
c. calcaneus
d. pes valgus or varum
D
113
Bracing of LE is NOT useful in
a. weak dorsiflexion of foot
b. instability of knee
c. athetosis
d. lack of hip control
C
114
LE bracing will not
a. decrease pain
b. support weight
c. prevent contractures
d. correct a scoliotic curve
D
115
which of these is the most important characteristic of a LE prosthesis
a. good cosmetic appearance
b. ability to be used for stair climbing
c. stability and security
d. minimal energy consumption
C
116
which of these is the most important characteristic of a LE prosthesis
a. good cosmetic appearance
b. ability to be used for stair climbing
c. stability and security
d. minimal energy consumption
B
117
The Gaenslen’s test might be positive in the early stage of
a. OA
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. RA
d. Psoriatic arthritis
B
118
A positive McMurray test shows the possibility of rupture of the following structure
a. Lateral or medial meniscus of knee
b. Medial collateral lig of knee
c. Anterior cruciate lig of knee
d. Posterior cruciate lig of knee
A
119
A 45 yo male comes due to pain of 2 weeks duration on right knee joint. No history of injury or heavy working or sport activities, except for the last 10 days he frequently has to sit down on the floor (lesehan) for hours to follow cultural-spiritual ceremonies. On exam, there are no abN except pain on palpation and pressure at medial surface of tibial condyle.
The most likely diagnosis is a tendon inflammation of
a. Biceps femoris – gracilis – semitendinosus
b. Semitendinosus-semimembranosus-gracilis
c. Semimembranosus – gracilis – sartorius
d. Semitendinosus – sartorius – gracilis
D
120
The Steinbrocker grading system is used to evaluate the severity of
a. Shoulder-arm syndrome
b. Shoulder-hand synd
c. CTS
d. TOS
B
121
In DeQuervain tenosynovitis the pain will increase with
1. Grasping
2. Radial deviations of wrist
3. Ulnar deviations of wrist
4. Abduction of thumb
B
122
Suggested equipment for C7 complete tetraplegia is
1. Resting hand splint
2. Short opponens splint
3. Utensil cuffs
4. Wrist-driven tenodesis splint
A
123
The following is CORRECT regarding rehab program for a child w/ haemophilic arthritis
1. Prevention of joint deformities and preservation of muscle strengthe are two equally important aims of rehab
2. Regardless whether the hemarthrosis is acute, subacute or chronic, therapeutic exc must follow a slowly progressive course of intensity determined by subjective symptoms and clinical findings
3. The child is taught isometric exc to muscles surrounding the affected joint
4. PROM exc should be used in hemophiliac arthritis since it doesn’t cause minor trauma w/ bleeding
A
124
These conditions are variants of muscular dystrophy
1. Congenital myotonia
2. Limb-girdle dystrophy
3. SMA
4. Fasioscapulohumeral dystrophy
C
125
Club foot consists of associated deformity
1. Forefoot varus
2. Valgus or eversion deformity of heel
3. Equinus or plantar flexion of foot at the ankle
4. Forefoot valgus
B
126
Rehab goals after ACL reconstruction week 0-4 are
1. Control pain to maximize effort in rehab
2. Rapidly reduce effusion
3. Activate quads mechanism
4. Begin closed kinetic chain exc
E
127
Main feature of gait in children that differ from adult pattern is
1. Cadence is greater
2. Base is wider
3. Stride length is less
4. Velocity is less
E
128
An ideal gait cycle will be
1. Symmetrical and rhythmic
2. Asymptomatic
3. Metabolically efficient using minimum energy
4. Wider stride length
A
129
Improvement of muscle performance including strength can be increased by increasing
1. Amount of weight lifted
2. Contraction velocity
3. Amount of repetitions
4. Muscle tone
A
130
In classical PNF techniques the therapist might stretch a muscle to
1. Facilitate voluntary activity in the muscle
2. Increase firing rate of afferent from muscle spindle
3. Inhibit voluntary activity in the antagonistic muscles
4. Focus the patient’s attention on the movement of muscle
E
131
Which is correct about SWD
1. It is deep heat modality
2. It is the therapeutic application of high radiofrequency electrical current
3. The tissue temp should be elevated to a range of 40-45 deg C
4. Treatment time is usually 20-30 min
E
132
Which is correct about iontophoresis
1. The introduction of ion into the body tissue by means of an electrical current
2. Iontophoresis used a direct electrical current
3. The treatment technique is painless and sterile
4. Much of the penetration probably occurs at sweat glands and sites of skin breakdown
E
133
Which is CORRECT about TENS and opiate pain control theory
1. ES of sensory nerves may stimulate release of enkephalin
2. Analgesic effect should last for several hours
3. ES of sensory nerves may stimulates beta-endorphine from the pituitary gland
4. The current intensity of ES should not be high
A
134
The pattern of relative heating in USD is such that
1. A large joint must be heated from all sides
2. Ultrasound penetrates bone better than soft tissue
3. US heats deep tissues w/ relatively little heating of skin and subcutaneous tissues
4. US heats tissue no deeper than the depth achieved w/ SWD
B
135
Functions of supra patellar and supra condilar socket are
1. Suspension device
2. The role at stance phase
3. The role at swing phase
4. Prevent piston phenomena
E
136
Indication of phylon leg of post amputation LE are
1. Reduce stump pain
2. Make early stump mature
3. Psychologic effect
4. Early mobilization
E
137
Indication of figure of 8 dressing are
1. Prevent stump flabby
2. Make a stump conus shape
3. Prevent stump edema
4. Reduce stump pain
E
138
Potential complication of spinal orthosis are
1. Weakening of axial muscles
2. Soft tissue contractures
3. Osteopenia
4. Increased movement at the ends of immobilized segments
E
139
Common deviations seen when observing the above knee amputee from the rear is
1. Lateral trunk bend
2. Abducted gait
3. Circumduction
4. A sudden heel strike
A
140
LBP which is common among pregnant women is caused by
1. Postural changes
2. Increased in lumbar lordosis
3. Weight gain
4. Ligamentous laxity
E
141
These are the major clinical features of parkinson’s disease
1. Resting tremor
2. Bradykinesia
3. Rigidity
4. Masked face
A
142
These have influence to the conduction velocity studies
1. Age
2. Sex
3. Room temp
4. Skin color
A
143
These are correct regarding normal MUAP
1. The shape is mostly polyphasic
2. The amplitude is about 0.5-1.5 mV
3. The frequency is about 100-200 Hz
4. The duration is about 5-12 msec
C
144
These waves can be detected in needle EMG during resting stage
1. Fibrilations
2. Positive sharp waves
3. Fascicullations
4. Naescent potentials
A
145
These are correct regarding motor unit
1. The targeted system of EMG exam
2. Consisting of one motor cell in the anterior horn of medulla spinalis and all of its muscle fibers innervated
3. Its electrical activity is called MUAP
4. The number of its muscle fibers depends on the function of particular muscle
E
146
These can be detected w/ EMG exam
1. Disturbance of peripheral nervous system
2. Disturbance in neuro-muscle junction
3. Disturbance in muscle function
4. The level/location of a peripheral nerve injury
E
147
General principle when recommending therapeutic exc in osteoporotic patients are principles of
1. Specificity
2. Progression
3. Reversibility
4. Initial values
E
148
Management of acute pain in OA
1. Bed rest 2 days
2. Initially cold packs, then mild heat and stroking massage
3. Back supports, if needed
4. Exertional exc
A
149
Acute treatment of all sprains in ankle
1. Massage
2. Cold therapy
3. Strengthening of ankle dorsi and plantar flexors
4. Compressive wrapping of injured side
C
150
Thickening of the following nerve is very common in leprosy
1. Femoral
2. Sciatic
3. Facial
4. Sural
D
