2010 module exam Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

What precipitates sickle cell?

a. Decrease volume
b. Low oxygen
c. High oxygen capacity

A

b. Low oxygen

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2
Q

What is the function of detergent?

a. increase cholesterol from the membrane
b. remove lipids from the membrane

A

b. remove lipids from the membrane

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3
Q

Which antimetabolites drug is used to inhibit dihydrofolate?

a. methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. cyclophosphamide

A

a. methotrexate

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4
Q

Which of the following is the lymphocytic region in the spleen?

a. Red pulp
b. White pulp

A

b. White pulp

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5
Q

What is the mechanism of eosinophils in killing pathogens?

a. Phagocytosis
b. Cytotoxicity

A

b. Cytotoxicity

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6
Q

What happens in the bohr effect?

a. H+ binds to globin
b. CO bind to heme

A

a. H+ binds to globin

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7
Q

Which of the following carries kallikrein?

A

HMWK (High-molecular-weight kininogen)

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8
Q

What is the consequence of RBC with Mediterranean variant with G6PD deficiency?

a. low GSSH
b. Unable to reduce glutathione
c. high NADH

A

b. Unable to reduce glutathione

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9
Q

What is polymerized when O2 is reduced?

a. HbS
b. HbC
c. HbF

A

a. HbS

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10
Q

What is used to recover from chemotherapy?

a. TNF
b. CSF
c. G-CSF

A

b. CSF

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11
Q

What is the consequence of antithrombin mutation at 3’ UTR?

a. increase activity of factor V leiden
b. Stabilization of Prothrombin mRNA
c. Protein C becomes inactive
d. DNA of antithrombin becomes more active

A

b. Stabilization of Prothrombin mRNA

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12
Q

Why do we use a blood filter to prevent febrile non hemolytic reaction?

a. To inhibit WBCs
b. Bacterial infections

A

(not sure, maybe A)

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13
Q

Which of the following drugs causes hemorrhagic cystitis?

a. methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. cyclophosphamide

A

d. cyclophosphamide

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14
Q

What suppresses trilineage stem cells?

a. TNF
b. CSF
c. G-CSF

A

a. TNF

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15
Q

Which disease is diagnosed with hairy leukemia?

a) HIV
b) Hepatitis C
c) HTLV-1
d) HTLV-2

A

d) HTLV-2

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16
Q

Which disease is diagnosed with hairy leukemia?

a) EBV
b) Hepatitis C
c) HTLV-1
d) HTLV-2

A

d) HTLV-2

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17
Q

Why are spherocytes fragile?
A) Because cytoskeleton is not well attached to basement membrane
B) increase peramability of membrane

A

A) Because cytoskeleton is not well attached to basement membrane

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18
Q
Allopurinol decreases the metabolism of which drug? 
a- Imatinib
b- Cyclophosphamide
c- Doxorubicin
d- 6-Mercaptopurine
A

d- 6-Mercaptopurine

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19
Q
45 year old previously healthy female presented with 3 days history of progressive fatigue and tea colored urine. physical examination was unremarkable apart from marked pallor and jaundice.
CBC parameters: normal platelet count, normal WBCs, normal MCV, decreaced hemoglobin. Peripheral blood smear shows Spherocytosis
what is the likely causative agent?
a. G6PD
b. sickle cell anemia 
c. thalassemia major 
d. auto immue hemolysis 
e. DIC
A

d. auto immue hemolysis

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20
Q

What shifts Oxygen-Saturation hemoglobin to the right?

a. 2,3-BPG
b. O2

A

a. 2,3-BPG

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21
Q

the general characteristics of alkylating agents?

a. Disrupt protein folding
b. Act on proliferating and non-proliferating cells
c. Act on proliferating cells only

A

b. Act on proliferating and non-proliferating cells

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22
Q

A 25 years old female presented w/ merrohagia, epitaxis, normal platelet count, moderately reduced factor 8, and prolonged APTT?

a. pancytopenia
b. vWF
c. DIC

A

b. vWF

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23
Q

What best applies to a person with O+ ?

a. no Rh and no A/B antigens on his RBCs
b. has Rh but not A/B antigens on his RBCs

A

b. has Rh but not A/B antigens on his RBCs

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24
Q

What determines the irons absorption in the body?

a. Increase Fe demand
b. Increase erythropoietin

A

(no answer provided; both correct)

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25
Every spring a man complains of nasal congestion, sneezing, watery eyes. He has no cough. On physical examination he was afebrile. Antihistamine relieves his condition. Which one of the following WBCs causes this condition? a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Erythroblast d. Macrophages
b. Eosinophils
26
Every spring a man complains of nasal congestion, sneezing, watery eyes. He has no cough. On physical examination he was afebrile. Antihistamine relieves his condition. Which one of the following WBCs causes this condition? a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Erythroblast d. Macrophages
b. Eosinophils
27
Which of the following is found in tissues? a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Erythroblast d. Macrophages
d. Macrophages
28
A chinese boy presented with nasopharngyeal carcinoma. What most likely would be the causative agent? Which disease is diagnosed with hairy leukemia? a) EBV b) Hepatitis C c) HTLV-1 d) HTLV-2
a) EBV
29
A chinese boy presented with nasopharngyeal carcinoma. What most likely would be the causative agent? Which disease is diagnosed with hairy leukemia? a) EBV b) Hepatitis C c) HTLV-1 d) HTLV-2
a) EBV
30
Which of the following Iron chelators characterized by poor compliance? a. Deferoxamine b. Deferasirox
a. Deferoxamine
31
Which of the following drugs is characterized by lipophilicity and small mwt? a. Deferoxamine b. Deferasirox
b. Deferasirox
32
What anti-bacterial factor exists in neutrophil granules?
Defensins
33
What anti-bacterial factor exists in neutrophil granules? a. Defensins b. Major Basic Protein
a. Defensins
34
A 60 yrs old male presented with fatigue, and tiredness | CBC shows:Hb low, WBC low, plts low, MCV high. what most likely would be the cause?
Bone Marrow infiltration
35
A 20 yrs old female presented with fever, fatigue, and pharyngitis. Physical exam shows cervical lymphadenopathy. Heterophile Test +ve. What most likely would be the cause? a) EBV b) Hepatitis C c) HTLV-1 d) HTLV-2
a) EBV
36
How does a drug induce porphyria? A. Increase demand of heme B. Suppression of P450
A. Increase demand of heme
37
A patient presented with dark-urine and photosensitivity, which substance in responsible for these symptoms? a. porphyrin b. hemin
a. porphyrin
38
What is used as a natural treatment for acute hepatic porphyrias? a. porphyrin b. hemin
b. hemin
39
A 1 week-old male prematurely delivered presented to the ER with oozing blood from the umbilical cord. coagulation profile shows prolonged PT & APTT. what most likely would be the cause? a. Vitamin K deficiency b. vWF deficiency
a. Vitamin K deficiency
40
Which of the following is an antibacterial substance released from Eosinophils? a. Defensins b. Major Basic Protein
b. Major Basic Protein
41
If there was a mutation in one of the coagulation factors that leads to bleeding disorder even if Vitamin k was normal. What most likely would cause This mutation?
Glutamine substitution
42
What is the difference between Th1 & Th2? a. Th1 activates CMI, Th2 activates HI b. Th2 activates CMI, Th1 activates HI
a. Th1 activates CMI, Th2 activates HI
43
A patient presented with lymphadenopathy. A lymph node biopsy showed nodular pattern & scattered binucleated cells surrounded by proinflammatory cells. What most likely would be the condition? a. Hogkin Lymphoma b. Viral infection
a. Hogkin Lymphoma
44
A 49 years old female presented with pancytopenia and normal MCV. what most likely would be the cause?
BM aplasia
45
What will PCR show for EBV associated lymphomas? a. CD 20 b. CD 5 c. c-myc
c. c-myc
46
Which type of anti-Rh antibodies cross the placenta causing hemolytic disease of the new born? a. IgM b. IgD c. IgG
c. IgG
47
46. What happens when LDH levels decrease in RBC?
NAD+ depletion
48
What is the Gold standard test for pancytopenia? a. CBC b. BM biopsy
b. BM biopsy
49
What happens when LDH levels decrease in RBC?
NAD+ depletion
50
a patient presented with fatigue, fever, pallor, cbc shows pancytopenia and pbs show immature cells with intracytoplasmic rods? a. ALL b. AML c. CLL d. CML
b. AML
51
a patient presented with fatigue, fever, pallor, cbc shows pancytopenia and pbs show immature cells with intracytoplasmic rods? a. ALL b. AML c. CLL d. CML
b. AML
52
a patient presented with dizziness palpitation and dysnea on exertion, he had gastrectomy and pbs showed microcytic rbcs? a. high serun hepcidin b. Low serum ferritin c. high serum hematocrit
b. Low serum ferritin
53
What mediates damage in type II hypersensitivity? a. Complement activation b. Fc receptors c. Defensins
a. Complement activation
54
a person with yellow sputum, fever and chest X-ray shows bilateral effusion of cells, what is these cells? a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Erythroblast d. Macrophages
a. Neutrophils | bacterial infection
55
which of the following changes in RBCs in responsible for shifting o2 curve to the right from the left to the right? a. O2 b. Acidification
b. Acidification
56
which is caused by translocation (9-22) ? a. ALL b. AML c. CLL d. CML
d. CML
57
What does translocation t(9,22) lead to? a. Tyrosine kinase inhibition b. Tyrosine kinase activation
b. Tyrosine kinase activation
58
a patient presented with splenomegaly, cbc shows leukocytosis and basophilia? a. ALL b. AML c. CLL d. CML
d. CML
59
A child presented with knee joint, bleeding with mild trauma? a. Thrombocytopenia b. Thrombophilia c. Hemophilia A
c. Hemophilia A
60
which of the following is deficient in hemophilia A? a. Factor 7 b. Factor 8 c. Factor 13
b. Factor 8
61
what is the difference about hemophilia A,B,C ? a. autosomal , X-linked, autosomal b. X-linked , X-linked, autosomal c. dominant, recessive, recessive d. dominant, dominant, recessive
b. X-linked , X-linked, autosomal
62
Which of the chromosomal abnormality causes MDS? a. t(15;17) b. inversion of chromosome 17 c. gain or loss of chromosomes
c. gain or loss of chromosomes
63
which of the following is involved in platelet aggregation? a. Ib b. IIb/IIIa c. fibrinogen
b. IIb/IIIa
64
what is the mechanism of action of warfarin? A) direct inhibitor of thrombin B) increases activity of antithrombin III C) Inhibit coagulation factor that inhibit vit. K D) reversibly inhibit cyclooxygenase
C) Inhibit coagulation factor that inhibit vit. K
65
What needs vit. K for its synthesis?
GLA protein
66
what is the mechanism of action of aspirin? A) direct inhibitor of thrombin B) increases activity of antithrombin III C) Inhibit coagulation factor that inhibit vit. K D) reversibly inhibit cyclooxygenase
D) reversibly inhibit cyclooxygenase
67
``` a middle aged previously healthy female presented with normocytic anemia and jaundice, cbc shows low Hb low MCH high retics PBS shows spherocytosis ? a. spaherocytosis b. auto immune hemolytic anemia c. aplastic anemia ```
b. auto immune hemolytic anemia
68
a patient presented with fever, sore throat and lymphoadenopathy, a lymph node biopsy showed signs of hodgkin lymphoma after that his cbc showed pancytopenia and low retics?
Bone marrow infiltration
69
what is a characteristic of deferiprone?
Orally active chelating agent
70
Which of the following is involved in drug-induced hemolysis ? a. MHC class2 w antigen b. MHC class1 w antigen
(no answer provided)
71
a patient coagulation profile shows high FDP , high D-dimer, low fibrinogen, and prolonged PT and APTT? a. aplastic anemia b. CF8 deficiency c. Multiple factor deficiency
c. Multiple factor deficiency
72
which factor triggers coagulation cascade?
Tissue factor
73
what does granezymes and cytokines do ?
Apoptosis
74
What is the mechanism of action of heparin? a. Inhibits platelets cyclooxygenase b. Increase activity of anti-thrombin c. Inhibit coagulation factor that inhibit vit. K
b. Increase activity of anti-thrombin
75
in which phase the blood islands starts to develop?
Yolk sac phase
76
What initiate the conformation to relax state? a. Iron enters the porphryin ring b. Iron leaves the porphryin ring
a. Iron enters the porphryin ring
77
What is homing mediated by?
Adhesion molecules
78
what determines ABO antigens on RBCs surface?
Genetics