2018 Flashcards

1
Q

Symmetric alopecia appears on a 3 years old female guinea pig.
What is your possible diagnosis?
A. Hyperthyreosis
B. Ovarian cysts
C. Zn-deficiency
D. Castratio-responsive alopecia

A

B. Ovarian cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A rodent patient has pruritic dermatitis, and the skin scraping is
negative. Which is the best idea to do?
A. B-lactam antibiotics + glucocorticoids
B. Anti-parasitic treatment
C. Washing with anti-fungal shampoo 2-3 times a day
D. Intracutan allergy test

A

B. Anti-parasitic treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which is the most common cause of fur chewing in chinchillas?
A. Bad husbandry, small cage
B. Vitamin and mineral deficiency
C. Disturbing the mother and the litter
D. Low fiber diet

A

D. Low fiber diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which species does not have marking glands?
A. Syrian golden hamster
B. Roborowsky dwarf hamster
C. Mongolian gerbil
D. Degu

A

D. Degu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the etiology of malocclusion in rodents?
A. Genetic predisposition
B. Iatrogenous harm
C. Malnutrition
D. All three is possible

A

D. All three is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is typical of mucoid enteritis?
A. Disease of old rabbits caused by E. coli
B. Yeast owergrowth in the intestines of weaning rabbits
C. Mucous-like faeces in chinchillas caused by Clostridium spp.
D. Disease of young rabbits with an unknown origin, with pH changes in the caecum

A

D. Disease of young rabbits with an unknown origin, with pH changes in the caecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the antibiotic that can be used orally in rodents?
A. Sulfometoxazol
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
C. Clindamycin
D. None of them

A

A. Sulfometoxazol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is not the etiology of CRD in rats?
A. Mycoplasma pulmonis infection
B. Latent virus infections
C. High ammonia level in the air
D. Traumatic injury

A

D. Traumatic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is typical of hypercalcuria in rabbits?
A. Physiological under 2 months
B. Needs surgical treatment
C. The urinary bladder is full of crystal-sludge
D. Can be treated by lowering the pH of the urine

A

C. The urinary bladder is full of crystal-sludge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which is true for ovarian cysts in guinea pigs?
A. You need an US-examination for the diagnosis
B. It can be palpated during routine physical examination
C. You need to prove your diagnosis by needle aspiration
D. You need to prove your diagnosis by measuring progesterone levels

A

B. It can be palpated during routine physical examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which is true for the reproduction of guinea pigs?
A. It is recommended to breed them in an intensive-way
B. High calcium levels in the diet
C. Males must be kept separately after parturition
D. Males are also taking care of the youths

A

C. Males must be kept separately after parturition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which is true for pregnancy toxicosis in rodents?
A. Low calcium diet plays a big role in the etiology
B. It is not possible to prevent the disease
C. IV. glucose, and hepato-protectans are effective treatments
D. Usually poor prognosis in spite of the treatment

A

D. Usually poor prognosis in spite of the treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

You diagnose a swelling of the mammary gland on a 2 years old rat. What to do next?
A. Give Enrofloxacin, because bacterial mastitis is common
B. Cytology, surgical removal, based on cytology results
C. Glucocorticoid treatment
D. Observing the size, control examination once a year

A

B. Cytology, surgical removal, based on cytology results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can a rabbit get infected with Encephalitozoonosis?
A. The infectious form spreads with the urine
B. It is an arthropod-born disease
C. The infectious form spreads with the faeces
D. Only by eating the meat of an infected individual

A

A. The infectious form spreads with the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When was the ferret domesticated?
A. More than 2000 years ago
B. Approximately 1000 years ago
C. Approximately 500 years ago
D. Approximately 100 years ago

A

A. More than 2000 years ago

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When can you neuter a female ferret?
A. Only if she is older than 9 months
B. Only after the first oestrus
C. Only during the first oestrus
D. At any time, when she is full-grown

A

B. Only after the first oestrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is overproduced in Ferret Adrenal Gland Disease Complex?
A. Sexual steroid
B. Mineralocorticoid
C. Glucocorticoid
D. Adrenalin

A

A. Sexual steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which is false about the GnRH analogues used for treatment of
Ferret Adrenal Gland Disease Complex?
A. In small dose they stimulate the secretion of LH and FSH
B. In high dose they reduce the amount of the GnRH receptors
C. When injected or implanted, they reduce the secretion of the LH and FSH
D. They directly affect the melatonin secretion

A

D. They directly affect the melatonin secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What drug is used for medical treatment of insulinoma?
A. Diazoxid
B. Deslorelin
C. Dehidropiandrosteron
D. Suprelorin

A

A. Diazoxid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which is false about the ferret’s gastrointestinal tract?
A. Cannot use carbohydrates efficiently
B. Cannot digest fiber
C. Minimal gut flora
D. Meat only food is the best for ferrets

A

C. Minimal gut flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 9 moths old, non-neutered female ferret has alopecia, but her skin
is intact. Which causes is the most likely?
A. Insulinoma
B. Ovarian-remnant syndrome
C. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex
D. Prolonged oestrous

A

D. Prolonged oestrous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A spayed female ferret has vulvar swelling, alopecia (intact skin)
four years after the neutering. Which cause is the most likely?
A. Insulinoma
B. Ovarian-remnant syndrome
C. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex
D. Prolonged oestrous

A

C. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Prolonged oestrus in ferrets…
A. …will disappear when the heat ends
B. …will lead to parthenogenesis
C. …can cause the death of the animal, because of the suppression of the bone-marrow function
D. …can cause the death of the animal, because it induces adrenal gland tumour

A

C. …can cause the death of the animal, because of the suppression of the bone-marrow function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which is true for the ovary of birds?
A. Only exists on the left side
B. Only exists on the right side
C. Both sides are the same
D. Ovulation only to the left oviduct from both ovaries

A

A. Only exists on the left side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which is false for the nutrition of parrots? A. Based on sunflower-seeds causes nutritional imbalances B. Pulses and tropical fruits can be added to the food C. The nutrition based on commercial pellets can cause addiction and nutritional imbalances D. Feeding seeds with high fat content can cause hepatic disease
C. The nutrition based on commercial pellets can cause addiction and nutritional imbalances
26
Which one you must not miss, while examining a bird? A. Body temperature B. Palpation of the pulse C. Breathing rate D. Observing the uropygeal gland
C. Breathing rate
27
Which is true for polyuria in birds? A. Excreting much yellowish urine allows easy diagnosis B. It is easy to differentiate from diarrhoea, because birds do not excrete urine C. It can only be differentiated from diarrhoea with lab work D. It is difficult to differentiate from diarrhoea, because birds do not excrete urine
A. Excreting much yellowish urine allows easy diagnosis
28
Spaying of the legs appears in a juvenile African grey parrot. What to do next? A. Careful neurologic examination, vaccination of all birds against Marek-disease B. Measuring uric-acid level, ultrasonography of the kidneys C. X-ray to exclude rachitis D. Biotin supplementation
C. X-ray to exclude rachitis
29
You take a swab-sample from the crop for Trichomonas examination. What do you do with the sample? A. Put it in transport medium and put it in the fridge B. Put it in transport medium, and keep it on room temperature C. Make a smear sample and fixate it D. Examine a native smear directly
D. Examine a native smear directly
30
What is/are the best sites of venepuncture in birds? A. Vena caudalis tibialis and vena cephalica B. Sinus venous occipitalis C. Vena jugularis and vena cutanea ulnaris D. Vena medialis metatarsalis
C. Vena jugularis and vena cutanea ulnaris
31
How is the erythrocyte morphology in birds? A. Oval cells, dark nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm B. Round cells, without nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm C. Square cells, oval nucleus, and small amount of homologous cytoplasm D. Huge, amoeboid cells, small amount of homologous cytoplasm
A. Oval cells, dark nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm
32
What is typical for creatinine in birds? A. It has no clinical significance B. It is sensitive to kidney damage C. After kidney damage it elevates earlier than urea D. Even if it has no clinical significance, you should measure it in every case
B. It is sensitive to kidney damage
33
What is/are the cause(s) if the feather plucking syndrome? A. Boredom only B. Boredom and Ectoparasites only C. Only psychiatric causes D. Lots of infectious and non-infectious causes
D. Lots of infectious and non-infectious causes
34
The main symptom of liver damage in birds are… A. Greenish urates, ascites and abnormal beak/nails B. Abdominal pain and pruritus C. Regurgitation and CNS signs D. Fever and increased appetite
A. Greenish urates, ascites and abnormal beak/nails
35
What are hepatoprotectants in birds? A. Ursodeoxycholic acid, lactulose, metronidazole B. Ursodeoxycholic acid, famotidine, sucralfate C. Ursodeoxycholic acid, S-adenosylmethionine, silymarin, vitamin E D. Ursodeoxycholic acid, ciproheptadin, chloramphenicol
C. Ursodeoxycholic acid, S-adenosylmethionine, silymarin, vitamin E
36
The course of treatment of kidney disease is… A. Fluid therapy, ciproheptadin, melatonin B. Fluid therapy, silimarin, metrondiasole C. Fluid therapy, ketofen, gentamycin D. Fluid therapy, allopurinol, omega-3 fatty acids, vitamin A
D. Fluid therapy, allopurinol, omega-3 fatty acids, vitamin A
37
Etiology of avian tuberculosis… A. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis B. Mycobacterium avium C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Mycobacterium bovis
B. Mycobacterium avium
38
Possible treatment of megabacteriosis? A. Amphotericin b B. Metronidazole C. Fenbendazole D. Enrofloxacin
A. Amphotericin b
39
What is the etiology of Macaw wasting disease (PDD)? A. Intestinal hypomotility B. Degeneration of the ganglions in the wall of the proventriculus C. Less activity of the pancreatic enzymes D. Fungal infection of the gastrointestinal tract
B. Degeneration of the ganglions in the wall of the proventriculus
40
Which is false? A. Snakes are shedding periodically B. Lizard are shedding periodically C. Ceratophagia is physiological in lizards D. There is no shedding in turtles
D. There is no shedding in turtles
41
The nutrition of tortoises is based on… A. Lettuce and tomatoes B. Plants and flowers collected in the garden C. Banana D. Fruits
B. Plants and flowers collected in the garden
42
Which is false for the hibernation of Hermann’s tortoise? A. It needs water during hibernation B. The ideal temperature is 4-8 degrees celsius C. It is only recommended for breeders D. High fibre diet is optimal before hibernation
C. It is only recommended for breeders
43
Where to give great amount of fluid to a turtle? A. Intracoelomial B. Vena jugularis, through IV catheter C. Subcutaneously to the hind legs D. Subcutaneously to the front legs
A. Intracoelomial
44
Which is not connected with the etiology of nutritive osteodystrophia? A. Low calcium diet B. Vitamin D deficiency C. High potassium diet D. High phosphorus diet
C. High potassium diet
45
Which is important in the pathogenesis of vitamin A deficiency? A. Enterocyte proliferation B. Metaplasia in the surface of the mucous membranes C. Pathological fat infiltration in the liver D. Necrosis in the renal tubuli
B. Metaplasia in the surface of the mucous membranes
46
How to treat otitis media in turtles? A. No treatment, it disappears spontaneously sooner or later B. Surgical debridement, antibiotics C. Eardrops D. Systemic antibiotic treatment based on sensitivity
B. Surgical debridement, antibiotics
47
Follicular stasis in a green iguana can be treated with… A. Synthetic progestagens B. Surgery C. Optimal husbandry D. Calcium + oxytocine injection
B. Surgery
48
Which characteristic of reptiles can affect negatively the success of a surgical procedure? A. Great resistance against hypoxia B. Low blood pressure C. Small total blood volume D. Great resistance against infections
C. Small total blood volume
49
Which can cause stomatitis in tortoises? A. Herpes virus infection B. Ophiomyssus natricis infection C. Iron toxicosis D. Too hot feeding place
A. Herpes virus infection
50
What can you see in a turtle patient with wet shell rot? A. Reddish-brownish drawing like areas on the plastron B. Blue colour on the plastron C. Green and purple drawing on the plastron D. Nothing, it is symptomless
A. Reddish-brownish drawing like areas on the plastron
51
What is the etiology of hypertrophic gastritis in snakes? A. Iridovirus infection B. Cryptosporidium serpentis C. Rhabdias sp. infection D. Unknown
B. . Cryptosporidium serpentis
52
Symptoms of the RNS disease are… A. Upper respiratory infection with nasal discharge B. Diarrhoea, inflammation in the cloaca C. Arthritis, limb weakness D. ...
A. Upper respiratory infection with nasal discharge
53
Which can cause pneumonia vermiosa? A. Rhabdias sp. B. Kalicephalus sp. C. Oxyuris sp.
A. Rhabdias sp.
54
What is a possible treatment of septicaemia in turtles? A. Vitamin C B. Ivermectin C. Enrofloxacin
C. Enrofloxacin
55
Why should we protect the integrity of the plumage of an injured bird? A. Because of animal welfare reasons B. This is the only way if we want a successful release to the wild C. If the plumage is damaged abnormal behaviour starts (auto mutilation, feather pecking)
C. If the plumage is damaged abnormal behaviour starts (auto mutilation, feather pecking)
56
Which is false? When the neurological examination of the bird takes place… A. The loss of pain perception means a fair prognosis B. The judgement of the pain perception must be the last act C. The loss of pain perception means a very weak prognosis
A. The loss of pain perception means a fair prognosis
57
The treatment of lead intoxication can be carried out with… A. Ca-EDTA, D-penicillamin B. Ca-EDTA, atropine C. D-penicillamin, atropine
A. Ca-EDTA, D-penicillamin
58
Which statement is true? Atropin can be given “routinely” for intoxicated birds, if… A. Lead intoxication is suspected B. Copper intoxication is suspected C. Organic phosphate intoxication is suspected
C. Organic phosphate intoxication is suspected
59
Which method would you choose in a zoo for interventions with serious pain? A. Neuroleptanalgesia B. Standing sedation C. Physical restraint
A. Neuroleptanalgesia
60
Which statement is true about primates? A. Keeping of them must be avoided, because of zoonosis B. Because of the risk of zoonosis, personal safety must get a high priority C. Because of the risk of zoonosis, certain species can be treated only in protection masks and spectacles
B. Because of the risk of zoonosis, personal safety must get a high priority
61
Which birds can be infected by Histomonas, and what is the vector?
Galliform birds, heterakis gallinae worms
62
What are the clinical signs of histomonosis?
Black head, and yellowish foamy diarrhoea
63
What is the therapy of histomonosis?
Klion (metronidazol)
64
Which birds can suffer from lymphoma?
Canaries and parrots
65
What is the causative agent of lymphoma?
Retroviridae virus
66
What non-infectious agents can cause serous nasal discharge in birds?
Pollen, dust, smoke, and fungal spores
67
What infectious agents can cause serous nasal discharge in birds?
Viruses: Paramyxovirus Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Chlamydophila
68
What is the cause of purulent nasal discharge in birds?
Secondary bacterial infections
69
Which species causes mycoplasmosis of exotic pheasants?
Mycoplasma gallisepticum
70
Is Mycoplasma species resistant or sensitive?
Sensitive (virulence for maximum 1-2 days)
71
How can you treat mycoplasmosis in birds?
Nutritional: Vitamins, proteins and probiotics Antibiotics: Enrofloxacin
72
What is the causative of Amazon tracheitis?
Parrot herpersvirus 2 and 3 (chicken are also sensitive)
73
What are the clinical symptoms of Amazon tracheitis?
Lethargy, loss of appetite, dyspnoea and nasal discharge, and conjunctivitis in peracute cases
74
How can you treat Amazon tracheitis in birds?
Change the place of the cage, treat secondary bacterial infections with antibiotics and vitamins, and inhalation therapy
75
What are the causative and clinical symptoms of paramyxovirus infection in canaries?
Causative: PMV-1 Clinical symptoms: Conjunctivitis, specific noises at respiration, sneezing and shaking the head
76
Which part of the respiratory tract of birds is common for poxvirus, mycobacterium avium and trichomonas, and what is the treatment?
Part: Trachea Treatment: Clean the house/cage of the bird and give Ivermectin
77
What is the causative agent of syngamus infection of pheasants, and what is the intermediate host?
Causative agent: Syngamus tracheae Intermediate host: Ring worms and earth worms
78
What is the diagnosis and therapy of Syngamus infection in pheasants?
Diagnosis: Fecal examination and larval examination Therapy: Mebendazol or Fenbendazol
79
Which bacteria are likely to cause changes in the bird lung?
Tuberculosis, E.coli
80
Which stains are good for differential diagnosis of bacterial infections in the bird lung?
Grocott, HE, PAS and ZN
81
What are the causatives of serous, purulent and chronic fibrinous airsacculitis in birds?
Serous: Virus, Mycoplasma Purulent: Bacteria Chronic fibrinous: Bacteria, Fungi
82
What is the causative of infectious diseases of the pericardial sac in birds?
Microfilaria
83
Which pathogens can cause bleeding in the pericardium?
Bacteria: Paterurella multocida, E. rhusiopathiae, E.coli Viral: Bird flu and other
84
Which bird is very sensitive to Nephritis virus?
Tragopans
85
What is the causative of kidney coccidiosis in young geese?
Eimeria truncata
86
Which bacteria can cause inflammation of the testis in birds?
Salmonella species: Necrotic inflammation Mycobacteria: Tubercles in the testis
87
Which birds are more likley to suffer from infectious diseases in the copulatory organs?
Ducks and geese due to bad keeping tehniques
88
Do chelonians have a diaphragm?
no
89
What does the term poikilotherm mean?
Cold blooded
90
Why does it not make any sense to take the temperature of a reptile?
Because their temperature is equal to the external temperature
91
What is the optimal enviromental temperature for reptiles?
22-27°C
92
How many phases of shedding can be differentiated in snakes?
5
93
What is a common cause of shedding problems?
Keeping
94
Is bigger always better when it comes to the size of the terrarium?
no
95
How many hours of light is necessary each day?
8-10
96
In case of tropical species of reptiles, how high humidity do they need?
90% 70-90%
97
What kind of terrarium type do you have concerning habitat?
Rain forest, Savannah, Mediterranean, Desert
98
What kind of terrarium type do you have concerning way of living?
Higher style, Flat style, Aqua-terrarium
99
Which reptiles are considered herbivourous?
Testudinidae, Green iguana
100
Which reptiles are considered carnivorous?
Snake, Sweet water turtle and Monitors
101
Which reptiles are considered omnivorous?
Some Geckos, Agamas
102
What are the positions for x-rays in a soft shelled turtle?
DV, LL, Cranio-caudal
103
Which sites can be used for blood sampling in a chelonian?
Sub-carpaxial sinus, dorsal coccygeal vein, vena jugularis, other, peripheral veins or heart
104
Which sites can be used for blood sampling in lizards?
Ventral coccygeal vein, heart, abdominal veins
105
Which sites can be used for blood sampling in snakes?
Ventral coccygeal vein, heart and vena palatina
106
What can be the consequence of too high humiditiy?
Dermatitis
107
What can be the consequence of too low humidity?
Shedding problems
108
Poxvirus dermatitis is common in which species?
Kaiman, Green iguana and Sceloporus spp
109
What are the clinical signs of poxvirus dermatitis?
Small brownish papules, localisation
110
What are the most common tick infection of reptiles?
Ophinonyssus natricis
111
What are the clinical signs of Ophinonysussus natricis infection?
Anaemia, sheeding problems
112
What is the correct therapy if suspecting Ophinonyssus natricis infections?
Ivermectin, Frontline
113
Shell diseases is most common in which type of chelonian?
Aqua chelonian (more common than tortoises)
114
In what reptiles do you most commonly find stomatitis?
Snakes and larger lizards, venomous snakes especially
115
How does stomatisis looks like?
Yellowish fibrin layer, under the fibrin you find bleeding mucosa
116
Treatment of stomatitis?
Change the keeping enviroment and remove fibrin layer, and Enrofloxacin 4 mg/kg for 4-5 days + vitamin C injection every day
117
When does stomatitis commonly in terrestrial tortoises?
After hibernation and shipping
118
Which animals are commonly affected by hypertrophic gastritis?
Snakes, Geckos
119
What is the pathogen, which causes hypertorphic gastritis in reptiles?
Cryptosporidium serpentis
120
What are the clincal signs of hypertrophic gastritis in snakes?
Weight loss, good appetite but vomiting and water-like smelly diarrhoea
121
What are the clinical signs of hypertrophic gastritis in geckos?
Weight loss and refusal to eat
122
Treatment for hypertrophic gastritis?
Spiramycin, 160 mg/kg for 7 days, repeat 2 weeks later
123
How to prevent hypertrophic gastritis?
Change in hygiene
124
What are the causative agents for acute mucoid enterocolities?
Parvo and Adenovirus, Proteus and Shigella
125
What are the causative agents for necrotic enterocolities?
Entamoeba invadens, Trichomonas and Hexamita spp
126
What is the pathogen causing ulcerative enteritis?
Kalicephalus species
127
Which species are highly susecptible to enteritis caused by Entamoeba?
Herbivorous reptiles, carnivorous species
128
What are the clinical signs of entamoeba enteritis?
Loss of appetite, diarrhoea and lethargy
129
What are the different forms of viral pneumonia?
Acute respiratory: Wide breaths with open mouth and sneezing Chronic respiratory: Pneumonia CNS form: Incoordination Asymptomatic form: Virus carrier
130
What pathological lesion do you find in viral pneumonia?
Catharrhal or purulent pneumonia
131
What is the treatment for viral pneumonia?
Antibiotics together with vitamin C
132
Fungal pneumonia: susceptible species and predisposing factors?
All reptiles species are affected, and high humiditiy helps fungi overgrowth
133
Which snake species are sensitive to parasitic pneumonia?
All snakes are sensitive
134
What is the causative agent of pneumonia verminosa?
Rhabdias species
135
Routes of infecion of pneumonia verminosa?
Contaminated feed, per cutaneous
136
Therapy in case of parasitic pneumonia of snakes?
Ivermectin injection
137
How to perform a blood examination?
Collect blood, serology examination, blood smear, stain with Giemsa
138
Which reptile species are susceptible to nephritis?
All species are susceptible
139
Most common causative agent for nephritis?
Bacteria
140
Type of nephritis found in reptiles?
Purulent nephrtis
141
What is the treatment for egg myasis?
Infertile egg should be taken out from the hatchery, the healthy egg should be transferred into clean hatching medium, and the hatchery must be cleaned and all edges should be cleaned well
142
In which species is it common to see post-hibernation anorexia?
Snakes and turtles
143
Diseases which are related to hibernation, includes?
Mechanical damage, Post-hibernation anorexia, Post-hibernation icterus, Septicaemia
144
Which antibiotic is not to be given per os/per oral in reptiles?
Gentamycin
145
Which is a very good antibiotic to use with wide spectrum and less resistance?
Enrofloxacin
146
Which antibiotic is highly oto – and neprhotoxic?
Gentamycin
147
For how long should you keep treating reptiles with Amphotericin B?
2 weeks
148
How often should you use Grisofulvin?
Every 3rd day
149
Which disease is nystatin highly effective against?
Enteral mycotic infections
150
Which fungi is Amphotericin B highly effective against?
Aspergillus