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Pharmo Test Two Old Test Review > 2019 Exam 3 > Flashcards

2019 Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

If a drug is not producing the effect that it’s supposed to, the FDA has the right to take it off the shelves

A

true

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2
Q

A patient with gingivitis hates the taste of chx mouthwash. What else could they use?

A

.2%TTO

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3
Q

What drug has a similar effect of captopril without the side effect of cough

A

sartans

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4
Q

All of the following ultimately result in an increase in cGMP EXCEPT

A

Hydralazine

MOA: decreases Ca++ through direct acting interference on IP3, so there is no increase in CGMP or CAMP.

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5
Q

Fibrates work by

A

Binding to the PPAR alpha nuclear receptor and increasing its activity

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6
Q

Which drug decreases the cholesterol of absorption and can be combined with statins?

A

Ezetimibe

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7
Q

Which drug has the major side effect of flushing?

A

niacin

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8
Q

What does PCSK-9 do?

A

Answer:
promotes degradation of the LDL receptors

Explanation

that is why to lower LDL, we must use a PCSK-9 Inhibitor to keep the PCSK-9 to degrade LDL.

—-> that is my explanation, let me know if you disagree.

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9
Q

Named a statin. What is the major ADR

A

myopathy

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10
Q

What drug inhibits VKORC1?

A

warfarin

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11
Q

Argatroban is monitored using what 0parameter?

A

aPTT

Argatroban is `a Direct thrombin inhibitor.

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12
Q

what converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

A

renin

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13
Q

What is the key mediator in fibrinolysis?

A

plasmin

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14
Q

St John’s wart is a major inducer of drugs that are metabolized by what

A

3A4

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15
Q

What binds to the PAR-1 receptor?

A

thromboxane A2

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16
Q

Which of the following is true o0f cAMP?

A

Increased cAMP leads to vasodilation

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17
Q

Which of the following blocks L type calcium channels?

A
  • dipines

explanation: these are direct acting vasodilators. The example given was amlodipine.

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18
Q

Which of the following has the side effect of hair growth?

A

minoxidil

this drug opens Katp channels and turns off the voltage gated Ca2+ channels

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19
Q

Which increases intracellular NO?

A

Sodium nitroprusside

20
Q

Someone with marked limitation is classified as what by WHO?

A

Class III

explanation:

this is referring to pulmonary hypertension

21
Q

Which of the following is a PDE-5 inhibitor?

A

Sildenafil

explanation: this is a drug that has drug to drug interaction with Sodium Nitroprussides.

22
Q

When does IP3 cause vasoconstriction?

A

When Ca is released from the SR

EXPLANATION
Hydralazine works to combat this

23
Q

Which of the following has the highest proportion of TGs

A

chylomicrons

Descending order: chylo-, VLDL, LDL, and HDL

24
Q

Which of the following is good cholesterol

A

HDL

25
Q

10 year risk assessment is

A

ASCVD

Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease markers

26
Q

When cholesterol and TGs are taken in from the diet, what pathway are they metabolized by?

A

exogenous

27
Q

Which of the following has intense GI problems?

A

welchol

MOA: binds bile acid preventing resorption. Mainly has GI effect.

28
Q

Which of the following affects Xa and thrombin?

A

heparin

MOA:

heparin activates antithromin III which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa

29
Q

Negative effect of bile acid binding agents?

A

increased TGs

30
Q

Which of the following is a PCSK9 inhibitor?

A

Evoloumab

PCSK9 prmotoes the degradation of LDL receptors, but evoloumab, which is a PCSK9 inhibitor keeps the LDL receptors around to degrade LDL.

31
Q

If supplements have a proprietary blend, they do not have to list out the individual ingredients?

A

true

32
Q

Which of the following interferes with the final platelet aggregation?

A

Eptifibatide

is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors

33
Q

Patient wants supplement that increases salivary flow

A

Co-Q

34
Q

Which of the following helps with burning mouth?

A

Alpha lipoic acid

35
Q

Which of the following has the shortest onset of action?

A

cangrelor

Cangrelar is a P2Y12 inhibitor and has an onset action time of 2 minutes.

36
Q

Which factor is not vitamin K dependent

A

factro IV

37
Q

Which of the following is an anti-fibrinolytic agent?

A

Aminocaproic acid

this antifibrinic agent works to prevent plasminogen to plasmin and fibrin to clot formation..

38
Q

Which of these can be taken orally, inhalation, intravenous, and subcutaneously?

  • Sildenafil
  • Treprostinil
  • Bosentan
A

treprostinil

39
Q

A patient wants to take 250mg of ginger before treatment and 250mg after treatment. What should you tell her?

A

That’s fine as long as she takes the dose as she described above

40
Q

A patient likes to take Valium but you know they also took Echinacea, which inhibits the enzyme that normally metabolizes Valium. What should you tell the patient?

A

Be careful driving home bc the effects will be increased

41
Q

A patient undergoes radiation therapy. Which of the following can you use to prevent oral mucositis?

a- Tea tree oil
B- Chamomile
C- Co-enzyme Q10
D- Tumeric
E- B and D
A

B and D

42
Q

Which of the following should have a warming to avoid drinking alcohol?

A

Valerian

43
Q

You colleague does not believe in taking or prescribing dietary substances. Which of the following would you NOT do?

A- Ask because it can have drug interactions with medications you prescribe
B-Ask because it could cause increased risks in the procedure
C-Both of the above are true
D- There is no need to ask the patient about these supplements.

A

d- There is no need to ask the patient about these supplements.

44
Q

The 4 Gs cause increased bleeding risk due to what mechanism?

A

Decrease platelet activation and platelet aggregation

45
Q

Which of the following does IIb/IIIa receptor do?

A

Platlet Aggregation

Pharmo Test Two Old Test Review (8 decks)

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