2020 Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

Phenylephrine MOA

A

Alpha 1 agonist, decreases mucus production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Selective b 1 agonist

A

Dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pallor and jaundice, 1st day of life

A

RBC destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

6 weeks old, jaundice and pale stool

A

Defect in excretion of conjugated bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Teenager with jaundice the first time he got a viral illness

A

Failure of conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Visual pathway - parietal lesion - superior or inferior lesion

A

Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Visual pathway - temporal cortex lesion - superior or inferior visual problem

A

Superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Common infection with complement deficiency

A

Neisseria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Benefit of conjugated PCV vaccine

A

Boosts immunity response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Absence seizures on EEG

A

3 spikes and a wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Defect in lissencephaly

A

Failure of migration of neuronal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Nerve injured in Colles fracture

A

Median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Child with ALL on multiple drugs, e.g. vincristine presents with foot drop what is the cause

A

S/e of chemo, it is reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drug blocking IL-6

A

Tocilizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Area of the brain commonly affected in HIE

A

? Cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drug causing prolonged QT

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Antihypertensive drug with antiprotineuric effect

A

Enalapril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cause of hypokalaemia in DKA

A

Osmotic diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is secreted by alpha cells in the pancreas

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Action of insulin

A

Fat deposition, glycogenesis, inhibit gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cause of hypophosphataemia in re feeding syndrome

A

Hyperinsulinaemia with intracellular shift of phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Child with blue eyes, fair skin, dislocated lens, macrocytic anaemia, what IX to diagnose

A

Plasma amino acid level

23
Q

Mechanism of cough

A

Inhalation
Closure of larynx
Muscle contraction
Glottis opens
Forced expulsion of air

24
Q

Purpose of using a spacer

A

Less oropharyngeal side effects

25
Main component of surfactant
Phosphatidyl choline
26
Cause of anaemia in coeliac disease
Decreased iron absorption
27
Best diet post biliary atresia repair presenting with faltering growth and steatorrhoea
High carb, high protein rich in MCT
28
Child presenting with haematemesis, has splenomegaly and dilated veins on abdomen - where is the problem
Portal; vein
29
What does otoacoustic emissions test
Cochlear hair cells function
30
Drug used orally in palliative care to reduce resp secretions
Glycopyrrolate
31
Dopamine is given in shock to increase HR, what else does it do
Increases PVR
32
Child with AAL started chemo, his uric acid has become elevated, what explains this?
Nucleic acid destruction
33
Pathophysiology of ITP
Antibody coated platelets are destroyed by splenic macrophages
34
Aneuploidy
47 xxy (an extra chromosome)
35
Baby with suspected DiGeorge, how to confirm
FISH
36
Most common site for accidental injury in female genital area
Posterior fourchette
37
what is octreotide
somatostatin analogue
38
somatostatin places of release and role
produced by the hypothalamus and is carried to the anterior pituitary and suppresses growth hormone secretion also produced by DELTA cells throughout the GI tract
39
where is ghrelin produced
the FUNDUS of the stomach - stimulates appetite
40
chemotherapeutic agent causing haemorrhagic cystitis
cyclophosphamide
41
chemotherapeutic agent causing peripheral neuropathy
vincristine
42
5-drug therapy commonly initiated in Hodgkin's lymphoma
Rituximab Cyclophosphamide Doxorubicin Vincristine Prednisolone
43
what is the most appropriate analgesic in the context of a major injury and severe pain
intranasal diamorphine
44
criteria for a SEVERE asthma attack
PEF 33-50% predicted Resp rate > 25 / min HR > 110 Cant complete sentences in one breath
45
definition of positive predictive value
the likelihood of a patient having a condition when the test is positive (contrasts with sensitivity, which describes the likelihood that a patient with the disease will be picked up by the test)
46
definition of the 'power' of a study
the probability that any result of significance in a study will reflect a true deviation from the null hypothesis
47
age cut off that all require imaging for UTI
< 6 months
48
what imaging is required - UTI in 5 month old that responds well to Abx with no features to suggest atypical infection
USS within 6 weeks
49
what imaging is required - 5 year old with history of recurrent UTI and previous pyelonephritis
USS within 6 weeks and then DMSA 4-6 months after the infection
50
what imaging is required - 2 year old with Klebsiella UTI
USS during acute infection because it is a non-typical organism, then do DMSA scan in 4-6 months
51
CSF route
produced by choroid plexus in the lateral ventricles drains via foramen of munro into the 3rd ventricle then via aqueduct of sylvius into 4th ventricle then drains into the subarachnoid space and is reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi in the superior sagittal sinus
52
what causes hypophosphataemia in refeeding syndreom
increased insulin production in response to feeding
53