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NAVEDTRA 14295B HOSPITAL CORPSMAN > Pharmacy > Flashcards

Pharmacy Flashcards

1
Q

Deals with biological, biochemical, and economic features of natural meds?

A

Pharmacognosy

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2
Q

Preparation, dispensing, and proper use of meds?

A

Pharmacy

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3
Q

Study of dosages and the criteria that influence it?

A

Posology

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4
Q

Study of the action or the effects of medications on living organisms?

A

Pharmacodynamics

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5
Q

Uses of meds in the treatment of disease?

A

Pharmacotherapeutics

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6
Q

Study of poisons?

A

Toxicology

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7
Q

Science of treating disease by any method that will relieve pain, treat, or cure infections?

A

Therapeutics

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8
Q

Therapeutics may use what treatment method other than medications?

A

Radiological treatment, diathermy, hydrotherapy

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9
Q

What text sets the standards for the quality, purity, strength and provides standards for medication?

A

United States Pharmacopeia & National Formulary (USP-NF)

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10
Q

What designates the USP-NF as the official reference for medications marketed in the US?

A

The U.S. Federal Food, Medication, and Cosmetics Act

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11
Q

How is the reference Drug Facts and Comparisons organized?

A

Therapeutic medications class

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12
Q

What reference contains quick and concise medication info?

A

Drug Information Handbook

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13
Q

What is known as the “blue bible” of pharmacology for its wide use in American pharmacies?

A

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

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14
Q

The term “dosage range” is applied what?

A

The minimum and maximum amount to produce the desired effect

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15
Q

What term describes the least amount of medication required to produce therapeutic effect?

A

Minimum dose

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16
Q

What term describes the largest amount of medication that can be given without reaching the toxic effect?

A

Maximum dose

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17
Q

What is the least amount of medication that will produce symptoms of poisoning?

A

Toxic dose

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18
Q

What term is used to describe the normal adult dose?

A

Therapeutic dose

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19
Q

What is a minimum lethal dose?

A

Least amount of med that can produce death

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20
Q

What are the two primary factors affecting dosage?

A

Age (most common), weight

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21
Q

How is Young’s Rule expressed?

A

Age in years over age in years plus 12 multiplied by normal adult

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22
Q

What has more direct bearing on the dose than any other factor?

A

Weight

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23
Q

How is Clark’s Rule expressed?

A

Pt weight in lbs over 150 times adult dose

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24
Q

Injections may require ________ doses than oral meds?

A

smaller

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25
Q

What two methods of administration are closely associated with oral administration?

A

Sublingual, Buccal

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26
Q

What are pyrogens?

A

Products of the growth of microorganisms

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27
Q

Parenteral meds are examined at least what 3 times?

A

Reception of solution, periodically, immediately before use

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28
Q

Unless stated on the label, parenteral solutions must be free of what?

A

Turbidity or undissolved material

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29
Q

Inhalation is divided into what three major types?

A

Vaporization, Gas Inhalation, Nebulization (med converted to fine spray via compressed gas)

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30
Q

Topically applied meds serve what two purposes?

A

Local effect, systemic effect

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31
Q

What are the 6 “rights” of patient medication administration?

A

Patient, Medication, Dose, Route, Time, Documentation

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32
Q

What is a MAR?

A

Medication administration record

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33
Q

Medications normally have what 3 names?

A

Chemical, Generic, Brand/Trade

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34
Q

Astringents cause ______ of the skin?

A

Shrinkage

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35
Q

Aluminum Acetate solution (Burrow’s Solution, Domeboro) is used as what?

A

Wet to dry dressing for the relief of inflammatory conditions of the skin

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36
Q

What is used as a topical astringent and protectant to blistered, raw, or oozing areas of the skin?

A

Calamine lotion

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37
Q

Bland or fatty substances applied to skin to make it more pliable and soft?

A

Emollients

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38
Q

What is the generic name for cocoa butter?

A

Theobroma oil

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39
Q

Zinc Oxide is a white petrolatum emollient containing what percentage of zinc oxide powder?

A

Approximately 20%

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40
Q

Expectorants are more accurately known as what?

A

Bronchomucotropic agents

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41
Q

Guaifenesin and codeine phosphate (Robitussin AC) relieve symptoms of what?

A

Common cold (may cause dependency)

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42
Q

What is used to relieve Eustachian tube congestion?

A

Nasal decongestants

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43
Q

What is HCL?

A

Pseudophedrine Hydrochloride

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44
Q

Actifed is the trade name for HCL and Triprolidine Hydrochloride which reduces congestion and?

A

Swelling of mucous membranes

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45
Q

What is the generic name for Mucinex D?

A

Pseudophedrine and Guaifenesin

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46
Q

This drug is used for motion sickness, nighttime sleep aid, urticaria, and allergic rhinitis?

A

Diphenhydramine HCL (Benadryl)

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47
Q

Chlor-Trimeton is used for what?

A

Symptomatic treatment of urticaria

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48
Q

Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) may control nausea/vomiting in connection with?

A

Radiation sickness

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49
Q

What medication is used to treat GERD?

A

Ranitidine (Zantac)

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50
Q

Histamine H2 Receptor Antagonists are effective in preventing complications of?

A

Peptic ulcer disease

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51
Q

A low PH may cause the intestinal tract to become?

A

Excessively acidic

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52
Q

Oral medications normally should not be taken within ______ hours of taking an antacid?

A

Two

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53
Q

Is used to reduce phosphate absorption in patients with chronic renal failure?

A

Magnesium Hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)

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54
Q

Magnesium Hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) should be taken on an empty stomach with lots of fluid, and therefore should not be given in the presence of what?

A

Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting

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55
Q

Magnesium Hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) may have a laxative effect and prolonged use may cause?

A

Kidney stones

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56
Q

Although it may cause constipation, the major advantage to Aluminum Hydroxide Gel (Amphojel) is what?

A

No systemic alkalosis is produced

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57
Q

Alumina (Maalox) coats the stomach lining and is better than Amphojel for what reason?

A

Less constipating

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58
Q

Antiseptics _______ growth of microorganisms?

A

Suppress

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59
Q

Germicides ______ susceptible organisms?

A

Kill

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60
Q

Disinfectants are primarily _______ in their action?

A

Germicidal

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61
Q

What is the standard by which all other antiseptic agents are measured for effectiveness?

A

Phenol (carbolic acid)

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62
Q

High concentration of Phenol can cause what?

A

Tissue destruction

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63
Q

Phenol is inactivated by what?

A

Alcohol

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64
Q

What does Betadine release into the skin?

A

Free iodine

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65
Q

Isopropyl Alcohol is used in what percentage as a skin antiseptic?

A

70% solution

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66
Q

Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex) is a neurotoxin agent effective against gram-positive organisms. What decreases its effectiveness?

A

Presence of pus or serum

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67
Q

pHisoHex should not be used on what?

A

Premature infants, denuded skin, burns, or mucous membranes

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68
Q

Residual amounts of pHisoHex can be removed with what?

A

Alcohol

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69
Q

Glutaraldehyde (Cidex) is used to sterilize materials that are not resistant to heat and is effective against what kind of gram positive/negative bacteria?

A

Vegatative

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70
Q

Hydrogen Peroxide is normally available in ____ % solution and is effective against what dental condition known as trench mouth?

A

3%, NUG

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71
Q

In a solid form, this is most commonly used to cauterize mucous membranes and to treat aphthous ulcers?

A

Silver Nitrate

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72
Q

What is the most common side effect of Silver Nitrate?

A

Causes the skin to turn black

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73
Q

Silver Nitrate in liquid form is used to prevent what in newborns?

A

Gonorrheal ophthalmia

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74
Q

What happens if a wet dressing of Silver Nitrate dries out?

A

Turns the skin slate grey, a condition known as argyria

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75
Q

Prior to penicillin, what was the first effective chemotherapeutic agent available in safe dosage ranges?

A

Sulfonamides

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76
Q

What year were penicillins introduced?

A

1941

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77
Q

Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) is a ______ sulfonamide used to treat UTIs?

A

Bacteriostatic

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78
Q

Trimethoprim and Sufamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) is an ______ sulfonamide used to treat UTIs?

A

anti-infective

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79
Q

Sulfacetamide Sodium (Sodium Sulamyd, Bleph-10 _______ bacteriostatic used to treat conjunvtivitis?

A

Ophthalmic

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80
Q

Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadene Creme) is topical antimicrobial agent used to treat what?

A

Second and third degree burns

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81
Q

Penicillins are derived from what?

A

Molds on bread and fruit

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82
Q

What is Penicillin’s mechanism of action?

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis during the reproductive phase of bacterial growth

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83
Q

Penicillin G, Aqueous is administered how?

A

Parenteral IV only

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84
Q

Penicillin G, Benazathine (Bicillin LA) is injected into a large muscle to treat syphilis and upper respiratory infections caused by what group of bacteria?

A

Streptococcal Group-A

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85
Q

What has a longer duration of action than most other penicillins?

A

Penicillin G Procaine, Aqueous (Wycillin)

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86
Q

What is usually the drug of choice for uncomplicated group-A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections?

A

Penicillin V Potassium (tablets of powder)

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87
Q

Dicloxacillin Sodium (Dynapen) is used to treat what?

A

Penicillin-G resistant staphylococci

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88
Q

What is used to treat shigella, salmonella, e-coli, gonorrhea?

A

Ampicillin (Polycillin)

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89
Q

Amoxicillin (Amoxil) is preferred over Ampicillin due to its effectiveness against what?

A

Shiggella (has more complete absorption)

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90
Q

Amoxicillin and Clavulante potassium (Augmentin) is used to treat many different infections caused by?

A

Bacteria

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91
Q

Cephalosporin C is an antimicrobial agent of what origin?

A

Fungal

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92
Q

What percentage of patients allergic to penicillin may also be allergic to cephalosporin?

A

5-16%

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93
Q

Cephalosporin antibiotics are generally divided into how many generations?

A

Three

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94
Q

What is unique about third generation cephalosporin agents?

A

They have a much broader gram-negative spectrum than earlier generations

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95
Q

What is used preoperatively to reduce the chance of certain infections following surgical procedures?

A

Cefazolin Sodium (Ancef, Kefzol)

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96
Q

What cephalosporin is used to treat infection of the respiratory tract, otitis media, skin and genitourinary system?

A

Cephalexin (Keflex)

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97
Q

What are mixed infections?

A

Infections that include both aerobic and anaerobic pathogenic organisms

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98
Q

What was the first truly broad spectrum antibiotics?

A

Tetracyclines (introduced in 1948)

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99
Q

What is the tetracycline’s most important mechanism of action?

A

Blocking the formation of polypeptides used in protein synthesis

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100
Q

What is the most common side effect of tetracyclines?

A

Mild gastrointestinal disturbances (not indicated for children or pregnant women)

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101
Q

Why should children and pregnant women not take tetracyclines?

A

Discolors teeth and depresses bone marrow growth

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102
Q

Why should tetracyclines not be administered with milk products, antacids and iron preparations?

A

They combine with metal ions to form non-absorbable compounds

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103
Q

Tetracycline HCL (Achromycin, Sumycin) is indicated for what?

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever, typhus fever, and severe acne

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104
Q

When should Tetracycline HCL be given?

A

1 hr before and 2 hrs after meals

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105
Q

Doxycycline Hyclate (Vibramycin) has a low affinity for binding with calcium, is used for malaria prophylaxis and what else?

A

Uncomplicated chlamydial and gonococcal infections

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106
Q

What drug class can cause varying degrees of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

A

Aminoglycoside (more prevalent toxicity when used with diuretics)

107
Q

What is the aminoglycoside’s method of action?

A

Inhibiting protein synthesis

108
Q

Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) is used to treat what?

A

Serious systemic infections of susceptible gram-negative organisms. Topically for burns, infected wounds and eyes

109
Q

What is used to treat serious infections such as septicemia, meningitis, and infections of the eye?

A

Tobramycin sulfate (Nebcin)

110
Q

Neomycin sulfate (Mycifradin) is used in what two ways?

A

Topical: skin infections, burn wounds, ulcers, dermatoses. ORALLY: Reduce intestinal flora prior to bowel/anus surgery

111
Q

Used in patients sensative to penicillin, this drug class is effective against gram-positive cocci, Neisseria, Hemophilus, and microbacteria.

A

Macrolides

112
Q

What is the drug of choice when penicillin is contraindicated?

A

Erythromycin (Ilotycin)

113
Q

What drug can make the skin more sensitive to sunlight and sunburn may result?

A

Erythromycin (Ilotycin)

114
Q

The use of what drug is often associated with colitis and profuse diarrhea?

A

Clindamycin HCL (Cleocin)

115
Q

When is Vancomycin HCL indicated?

A

Potential life threatening infections not treatable with less toxic antimicrobials

116
Q

Given in a one dose treatment, this drug is used for the treatment of community-acquired pneumonia and chancroid?

A

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

117
Q

If the human cell can resist a chemical’s action, what can be assumed about most fungi?

A

Completely resistant to the same chemical

118
Q

Systemic antifungals should be limited to what conditions?

A

Systemic or potentially fatal

119
Q

Drug is most often used to treat candidiasis and can be used with tetracycline for overgrowth in the bowel?

A

Nystatin (Mycostatin)

120
Q

Generally reserved for chronic infections, this fungistatic is given orally to treat what?

A

Fungal infections of the nails, hair, and skin.

121
Q

Monistat, a synthetic antifungal which inhibits the growth of dermatophytes has what generic name?

A

Miconazole nitrate

122
Q

What is the treatment for Vincent’s angina?

A

Hydrogen Peroxide

123
Q

Undecyclenic acid (Desenex) is generally used to treat what?

A

Tinea pedis

124
Q

What broad spectrum antifungal inhibits various fungal growth including Candida albicans?

A

Clortrimazole (Lotrimin, Mycelex)

125
Q

What accounts for the largest number of chronic disabling diseases known?

A

Parasitic infections or infestations

126
Q

Although it has potential for poisoning, it is indicated for scabies and ectoparasites?

A

Permethrin (Elimite/Nix)

127
Q

What are the proper names for head lice and crab lice?

A

Pediculosis capitis and phthirus pubis

128
Q

What anti-parasitic is effective in treating amebiasis and should not be combined with alcohol?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

129
Q

What is the drug of choice for pinworm and roundworm infestations?

A

Mebendazole (Vermox)

130
Q

Effective in treating infestations of hook/round/pin/whip worm?

A

Pyrantel pamoate

131
Q

A vermicide not indicated as a prophylactic agent and can destroy threadworms?

A

Thiabendazole (Mintezol)

132
Q

What does Chloroquine phosphate treat?

A

Acute malarial attacks

133
Q

Primaquine phosphate is the drug of choice for the prevention or relapse of malaria caused by what?

A

P.vivax and P.ovale (Contraindicated in G-6-PD deficient pts)

134
Q

Primaquine phosphate is the drug of choice for the prevention or relapse of malaria caused by what?

A

P.vivax and P.ovale (Contraindicated in G-6-PD deficient pts)

135
Q

What drug group is used to clean catharsis?

A

Laxatives

136
Q

What laxative is normally taken at bedtime, stimulates the colon on contact and produces soft stools in 6-12 hours?

A

Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)

137
Q

What laxative is preferred by the x-ray department and inhibits water absorption?

A

Magnesium citrate (Citrate of magnesia)

138
Q

What laxative produces the desired effect in 12-72 hours?

A

Psyllium hydrophillic (Metamucil)

139
Q

Ducosate calcium (Surfak) promotes what?

A

Water retention in the fecal mass

140
Q

What should be monitored and replenished when using diuretics?

A

Lost sodium and potassium

141
Q

What diuretic is used for edema associated with congestive heart failure?

A

Hydrochlrothiazide (Esidrix, Oretic)

142
Q

What diuretic is used to treat edema associated with congestive hear failure as well as cirrhosis of the liver and renal disease?

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

143
Q

What diuretic is used to treat glaucoma, congestive heart failure and acute mountain sickness?

A

Acetazolamide (Diamox)

144
Q

What diuretic is known as potassium-sparing and potassium-depleting?

A

Triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide

145
Q

Used to treat conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and bursitis and is the most economical drug in its class?

A

Aspirin (ASA, Ecotrin)

146
Q

What analgesic/antipyretic is used to relieve pain and fever accompanying diseases and for pts allergic to aspirin?

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

147
Q

When is Ibuprofen (Motrin) not recommended?

A

Gastrointestinal bleeding, renal impairment, third trimester of pregnancy

148
Q

What anti-inflammatory is reserved for cases of chronic rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, and acute gout?

A

Indomethacin (Indocin)

149
Q

What analgesic is not indicated for pts with a hx of gastrointestinal disease, especially peptic ulcer disease?

A

Naproxen (Naprosyn, Anaprox)

150
Q

When is the anti-inflammatory Meloxicam (Mobic) contraindicated?

A

3rd trimester of pregnancy

151
Q

Used to relieve symptoms of arthritis?

A

Piroxicam (Feldene)

152
Q

What chapter of the MANMED sets forth the control, custody and accountability for controlled substances?

A

Chapter 21

153
Q

What CNS stimulant is indicated for use in hyperkinetic children and narcolepsy in adults?

A

Methylphenidate HCL (Ritalin)

154
Q

What CNS stimulant is occasionally used as an adjunct to diet therapy for obesity?

A

Dextroamphetamine sulfate (Dexadrine)

155
Q

What CNS depressant is the drug of choice for petit mal epilepsy?

A

Phenobarbital (Luminal)

156
Q

What CNS depressant is indicated for short-term treatment of insomnia?

A

Pentobarbital (Nembutal)

157
Q

What CNS depressant is preferred to Phenobarbital in treating seizure disorders because it possesses no hypnotic disorders?

A

Phenytoin sodium

158
Q

The major medical use for opium has been for what?

A

Antiperistaltic activity

159
Q

Morphine Sulfate (Roxanol, MS Cotin) is an opium alkaloid indicated for what?

A

Relief of sever pain

160
Q

What synthetic analgesic is not as effective as morphine in its analgesic properties?

A

Meperidine HCL (Demerol)

161
Q

Psychotherapeutic agents are classified as what three types?

A

Major tranquilizers, minor tranquilizers and mood modifiers.

162
Q

Considered to be a good all around tranquilizer?

A

Thioridazine (Mellaril)

163
Q

What psychotherapeutic agent is most often used for symptomatic treatment of nausea and vomiting?

A

Prochlorperizine (Compazine)

164
Q

What drug is indicated for schizophrenia?

A

Haloperidol (Haldol)

165
Q

What is Amitriptyline HCL (Elavil)?

A

Anti-depressive mood elevator. Long term treatment.

166
Q

What drug is a rapid-acting antianxiety and antiemetic with antispasmodic effects?

A

Hydroxyzine pamoate (Vistaril, Atarax)

167
Q

Diazepam (Valium) is useful in treating what?

A

Moderate depression, spastic muscle conditions. Drug of choice for status epilepticus.

168
Q

In the U.S. Military, Diazepam is also known as what?

A

CANA - Convulsive Antidote, Nerve Agent

169
Q

Fluoxetine HCL (Prozac) is an oral antidepressant that may be useful in treating what?

A

Bulimia nervosa and obsessive compulsive disorders.

170
Q

Zolpidem (Ambien) is indicated for what?

A

Short term treatment of insomnia

171
Q

What skeletal muscle relaxant is indicated as an adjunct to physical therapy?

A

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

172
Q

What drug is indicated for congestive heart failure and increases force of contractions.

A

Digoxin (Lanoxin)

173
Q

Quinidine Sulfate is indicated for premature atrial and ventricular contractions and should not be confused with what drug?

A

Quinine sulfate (antimalarial)

174
Q

What cardiovascular agent is used to treat angina and for the prevention of erection following circumcision?

A

Amyl Nitrite

175
Q

What drug is indicated for acute and chronic angina pectoris?

A

Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat, Nitro-Bid)

176
Q

Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil, Sorbitrate) is similar to what drug?

A

Nitroglycerin

177
Q

What drug is used in the prevention of postoperative thromboembolic complications of cardiac valve replacement and is similar to warfarin sodium?

A

Dipyridamole (Persantine)

178
Q

Indicated for premature ventricular contractions?

A

Procainamide hydrochloride (Pronstyl, Procan SR)

179
Q

Manages essential hypertension?

A

Verapamil (Isoptin) and Diltiazem (Cardizem)

180
Q

What vasoconstrictor is an ophthalmic preparation for symptomatic relief of irritated eyes?

A

Tetahydrozaline

181
Q

What vasoconstrictor shrinks mucous membranes of the nose to relieve local congestion?

A

Phenyephrine HCL (Neo-Synephrine)

182
Q

What topical vasoconstrictor is used to relieve nasal congestion?

A

Oxymetazonline

183
Q

What should be done before an anticoagulant agent is prescribed and dosage determined?

A

Lab testing for blood clotting capabilities

184
Q

What anticoagulant is used in prophylaxis and treatment of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism?

A

Heparin sodium

185
Q

What anticoagulant is used extensively to treat embolism in the prevention of occlusions?

A

Warfarin sodium (Coumadin)

186
Q

What is the benefit of vitamin A (Retinol)?

A

Visual adaptation to darkness

187
Q

What vitamin is necessary for carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Bitamin B1 (Thiamine HCL)

188
Q

Beriberi is caused by a deficiency of what vitamin?

A

Bitamin B1 (Thiamine HCL)

189
Q

What vitamin functions as a coenzyme necessary in tissue respiratory processes?

A

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

190
Q

A deficiency in what vitamin is associated with cheilosis, glossitis, visual disturbances/fatigue?

A

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

191
Q

What vitamin is used in the treatment of pellagra?

A

Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

192
Q

What vitamin is used during isoniazid (INH) therapy to prevent the development of peripheral neuritis?

A

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine hydrochloride)

193
Q

What vitamin is necessary for the prevention of scurvy?

A

Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)

194
Q

What vitamin regulates calcium and phosphorous metabolism?

A

Vitamin D

195
Q

What does a deficiency in n vitamin D lead to?

A

Rickets in children and asteomalacia in adults

196
Q

How does vitamin-E prevent the destruction of red blood cells?

A

Prevents fatty acids in the red blood cells from taking on too much oxygen

197
Q

Which fat soluble vitamin has many synthetic forms that are water soluble?

A

Vitamin K

198
Q

Commonly called laughing gas, this anesthetic is commonly used in dentistry or as a preinduction agent to other general anesthesia?

A

Nitrous oxide

199
Q

High concentrations of nitrous oxide may cause what?

A

Cyanosis or asphyxia

200
Q

What inhalation anesthesia is used in most operative procedures with patients of all ages?

A

Halothane (Fluothane)

201
Q

What anesthetic is used for procedures that do not require skelatal muscle relaxation, may cuase psychological manifestations and is contraindicated for patients with hypertensive disease.

A

Ketamine HCL (Ketalar)

202
Q

What injectable drug may be used for spinal anesthesia?

A

Procaine hydrochloride (Novocain)

203
Q

What drug is the standard to which all other anesthetics are compared?

A

Lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine).

{CAUTION}
.05g max per 24hr when used with epinephrine

204
Q

What topical local anesthetic is used on mucous membranes?

A

Dibucaine (Nupercainal)

205
Q

What topical anesthetic is used for almost every ophthalmic procedure?

A

Proparacaine (Ophthectic, Ophthaine)

206
Q

What oxytocic treats postpartum and post-abortal hemmorage?

A

Ergonovine maleate (Ergotrate, Maleate)

207
Q

What oxytocic improves uterine contractions?

A

Oxytocin (Pitocin)

208
Q

What instruction should be referred to for immunizations?

A

BUMEDINST 6230.15

209
Q

What bacteria causes anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

210
Q

Hep-A vaccination is to prevent acute infection of what?

A

The liver [acquired through food/water]

211
Q

How is Hep-B acquired?

A

Exposure to blood and body fluid

212
Q

What causes acute febrile respiratory viral infections that can cause epidemics within military populations?

A

Influenza A/B

213
Q

How is MMR spread?

A

Respiratory or person-to-person contact

214
Q

The World Health Organization (WHO) declared the global eradication of what?

A

Naturally occuring smallpox.

215
Q

Tetanus is an acute illness caused by an exotoxin called?

A

Clostridium tetani

216
Q

Diptheria is an acute disease caused by a cytotoxin of the bacteria called?

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

217
Q

Pertussis is an acute illness caused by the bacteria called?

A

Bordetella pertussis

218
Q

Tdap is preferred to Td so that people sustain immunity to what?

A

Pertussis

219
Q

Called the arithmetic of pharmacy, study and science of weights and measures

A

Metrology

220
Q

Official system of weights and measures?

A

Metric system

221
Q

RELATIONSHIP of one quality to another of like value

A

RATIO

222
Q

EXPRESSION of equality of two ratios?

A

Proportion

a:b = c:d
a:b :: c:d
a/b = c/d

223
Q

Aromatic, sweetened hydroalcoholic solutions containing meds?

A

Elixirs

224
Q

Course dispersions comprised of finely divided insoluble material suspended in a liquid medium?

A

Suspensions

225
Q

Semisolid, fatty, or oily preparations of medicinal substances?

A

Ointments

226
Q

Two types of balances?

A

Torsion

Electronic

227
Q

All dispensing pharmacies are required to have at least how many Class-A balances on hand at all times

A

one

228
Q

The inside surface of what utensil tapers at 60 degrees and is used in the filtering process?

A

Ribbed funnel

229
Q

Glass container with metric measurements inscribed on it, used for mixing and measuring?

A

Erlenmeyer flask

230
Q

Used to reduce substances to fine powders?

A

Mortar and Pestle

231
Q

Knife-like utensil with a rounded, flexible, smoothly ground blade, used to transfer quantities?

A

Spatula

232
Q

Used to measure liquids volumetrically?

A

Graduates

233
Q

Occurs when agents antagonistic to one another are prescribed together?

A

Therapeutic incompatibilities

234
Q

Failure of medications to combine properly?

A

Physical incompatibilities

235
Q

Prescribed agents react chemically upon combination to alter the composition of one or more ingredients?

A

Chemical incompatibilities

236
Q

Immiscibility

A

incapable of being mixed of two or more liquids

237
Q

Precipitation due to change in solution that results in decreased solubility?

A

Salting out

238
Q

Liquification of solids mixed in a dry state?

A

eutexia

239
Q

Metric system is also called?

A

International System of Units

240
Q

Prefixes for
10
100
1,000

A

Deka
Hecto
Kilo

241
Q

Prefixes for
1
01
001

A

deci 1/10
centi 1/100
milli 1/1,000

242
Q

Symbol for liter may be expressed how?

A

Capitalized or not

243
Q

What should not follow metric symbols?

A

period

244
Q

Use 3 mg/ml

A

NOT 3 mg/milliliter (spelled out)

245
Q

Basic units in Apothecaries’ system?

A

WEIGH: grain “gr”
Volume: minim “m”

246
Q

Basic units in AVOIRDUPOIS system?

A

dram (27.344 grains)
ounce (16 drams)
pound (16 ounces)

247
Q

Metric to household measurements

A

5ml = 1 TEASPOONFUL

15ml = 1 TABLESPOONFUL (1/2 fl oz)

248
Q

Most important tool used by the pharmacy?

A

Prescription

249
Q

Two standardized forms used for prescriptions?

A

DoD prescription, DD Form 1289 (one medication order)

Polyprescription, NAVMED 6710/6 (up to four prescriptions)

250
Q

Controlled meds should be written on what form?

A

DD 1289

251
Q

Center of the DD 1289 contains how many parts?

A

4

252
Q

Superscription?

A

“Take thou”

253
Q

Inscription?

A

Quantity of medication

254
Q

Subscription

A

directions to the compounder

255
Q

Signa

A

directions for the patient

256
Q

Verify label on meds ___ times when filling a prescirption

A

3

257
Q

Schedule II

A

Narcotics

proceeded by the letter “N”

258
Q

Schedule III, IV, V

A

Controlled meds

proceeded by the letter “C”

259
Q

All prescriptions not filed separately are maintained in?

A

General files

260
Q

Prescriptions are required to be kept on file for how long?

A

At least 2 yrs

261
Q

Controlled substances have how many categories?

A

five

262
Q

Sheduled drugs abuse potential

A 
I - high (no accepted use)
II - high (fill w/in 7 days)
III - Moderate (fill w/in 30 days)
IV - Limited
V Limited

(IV & V: up to 5 refills in 6 months)

263
Q

Inventory of controlled substances should occur how often?

A

Quarterly

264
Q

The CO appoints how many members of the CSIB?

A

3

NAVEDTRA 14295B HOSPITAL CORPSMAN (17 decks)

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