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Flashcards in 217 v1 Deck (90)
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1
Q

T-38 control instruments

A

EADI/HUD ADI and RPM/EGT/Nozzles/FF

2
Q

T-38 performance instruments

A

Altimeter, airspeed/mach indicator, VVI, heading indicator, AOA, and turn and slip indicator

3
Q

As a rule of thumb, if you are 100 feet off altitude, set your pitch that will produce a ____-____ FPM climb/descent on the VVI.

A

100-200 FPM

4
Q

As a rule of thumb, if your heading deviation is 10 degrees, then ____ degrees of bank would produce a suitable rate of correction, not to exceed ____ degrees of bank

A

10 degrees; 30 degrees

5
Q

Instrument steep turns are normally any turn greater than ____ degrees of bank

A

30 degrees

6
Q

Estimating VVI: Using 60:1 rule we know ____ multiplied by ____ in nm/min gives VVI in 100’s of ft/min

A

pitch x airpseed

7
Q

Unusual attitude definition

A

An unusual attitude is an aircraft attitude occurring inadvertently.

8
Q

NL unusual attitude recovery: Adjust power and drag devices as appropriate while rolling to a wings level, upright attitude, and correct to level flight on the ADI. Do not add backpressure until less than ____ degrees AOB.

A

90 degrees AOB

9
Q

TERPS requires the Localizer signal alignment to be within ____ degrees of the runway alignment. If the alignment exceeds ____ degrees, the LOC will be identified as an ____.

A

3 degrees; 3 ; LDA

10
Q

The signal accuracy of the LDA is the same as a LOC, however the LDA course alignment will be greater than ____ degrees, not to exceed ____ degrees.

A

3 degrees; 30 degrees

11
Q

Normal localizers have a signal coverage range of ____ degrees out to ____ nm and ____ degrees out to ____nm.

A

35 degrees; 10nm; 10 degrees; 18nm

12
Q

The TACAN station transmits an aural three-letter Morse code identifier approximately every ____ seconds

A

35 seconds

13
Q

____ occurs when the pilot places the head of the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line and makes periodic heading changes to keep it there. Failure to apply wind drift corrections results in a curved flight path to the station.

A

Homing

14
Q

Turn the aircraft in the shorter direction to place the head of the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line. Center the CDI with a TO indication and apply wind drift corrections to maintain the selected course to the station. This is called ____.

A

Proceeding Direct to a Station

15
Q

A technique for determining intercept heading inbound is to look in the shorter direction to the head of the bearing pointer. Continue beyond the head of the bearing pointer by ____ degrees or the number of degrees off course, whicher is less.

A

30 degrees

16
Q

A technique for determining intercept heading outbound is from the tail of the bearing pointer, move in the shorter direction to the desired course. Continue beyond the course by ____ degrees, or the number of degrees off course, whichever is less.

A

45 degrees

17
Q

____ station passage occurs when the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM

A

VOR and VOR/DME

18
Q

____ station passage occurs when the range indicator stops decreasing.

A

TACAN

19
Q

Correcting on an arc Rule of Thumb: Displace the bearing pointer ____° below the reference point for each one-half mile deviation to the inside of the arc, and ____° above the reference point for each half mile outside the arc

A

5°; 10°

20
Q

(T/F) Pilots may not use GPS to substitute for the navigational aid providing lateral guidance for the final approach segment.

A

True

21
Q

To ensure adequate obstacle clearance the values derived in the Temperature Correction Chart in the FIH will be added to the published DA or MDA and step down fixes whenever the outside air temperature is less than ____ degrees Celsius.

A

0 degrees Celsius

22
Q

Aircraft approach Category E speed, derived from ____ times the stalling speed in the landing configuration, is ____ or more.

A

1.3; 166 kts

23
Q

Aircraft approach category D is speeds between ____ kts but less than ____ kts.

A

141 and 166 kts

24
Q

You (CAN/CANNOT) fly non-US Government IAPs? (I.e. Jeppeson plates)

A

CANNOT: Do not fly non-US Government IAPs unless properly trained and the procedure(s) are approved by your MAJCOM TERPS.

25
Q

Ensure the approach you select is compatible with the navigation equipment installed and operating on your aircraft, including the ____ ____ instructions. With exception 6.5.1.3.1 in 217v1.

A

Missed approach

26
Q

(T/F) If there is a requirement to execute an approach procedure with incompatible missed approach instructions, ATC may be able to issue alternate missed approach instructions. Request alternate missed approach instructions prior to accepting approach clearance.

A

True

27
Q

A ____ on the title of the IAP indicates that more than one type of equipment may be required to execute the final approach.

A

A slash (/)

28
Q

What does it mean when the title of an IAP has an alphabetical suffix (I.e. ILS Z RWY28L)?

A

That more than one approach using the same final approach guidance is developed to the same runway and each runway/navigational aid combination will be identified

29
Q

When the name of the approach is followed by a letter such as A, B, C, etc., the approach is designed for ____ only.

A

Circling minimums

30
Q

If you are unable to comply with the holding speed on the missed approach, coordinate with ATC prior to arriving at the ____.

A

IAF and commencing the approach.

31
Q

A minimum safe altitude is the minimum altitude that provides at least ____ feet (____ feet in designated mountainous areas) of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon which the procedure is based.

A

1,000 feet; 1,000 feet (trick question)

32
Q

The minimum sector altitude provides the ____ feet of obstacle clearance (____ feet in designated mountainous areas) within 25 NM of the facility.

A

1,000 feet; 1,000 feet (trick question)

33
Q

An emergency safe altitude is normally developed only for military procedures and will provide ____ feet of obstacle clearance (____ feet in designated mountainous areas) within 100 NM of the facility.

A

1,000 feet; 2,000 feet

34
Q

(T/F) Minimum safe altitudes guarantee NAVAID reception.

A

Minimum safe altitudes do NOT guarantee NAVAID reception.

35
Q

On an IAP, the inner ring gives a scale presentation, on the plan view, of the approach that is normally within a ____ NM radius for low altitude approaches and ____ NM for high altitude approaches.

A

10NM; 20NM

36
Q

For a low altitude IAP, the initial descent gradient will not exceed ____ ft/nm (approximately ____°).

A

500 ft/nm; 5 degrees

37
Q

Touchdown zone elevation (TDZE). Note the touchdown zone elevation. This is the highest point in the first ____ feet of the landing surface.

A

3,000 feet

38
Q

What does “A NA” mean when listed in the notes section of an IAP?

A

The NA tells civilian and military pilots that the specific approach cannot be used to qualify the field as an alternate either because of lack of weather reporting facilities and/or the lack of capability to monitor the NAVAID.

39
Q

What does the negative D symbol, located on the airport diagram portion of an IAP when applicable, mean?

A

It means there are declared distances for the airport which are listed in the AFD and IFR supplement

40
Q

What does TORA mean (type of declared distance listed in AFD and IFR supplement)?

A

TORA. TAKE-OFF RUN AVAILABLE-The length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane take-off. PICs must operate their aircraft at a weight that makes it POSSIBLE to be airborne at or before the TORA distance and then meet or exceed the published climb gradient.

41
Q

Check the altimeter at a known elevation and note any error in feet. If the error exceeds ____ feet, the instrument is out of tolerance for flight.

A

75 feet

42
Q

In lieu of guidance in aircraft technical orders the aircraft’s primary heading indicator should be within approximately ____ degrees of a known heading (i.e., runway heading or designated ground checkpoint).

A

5 degrees

43
Q

When checking the VOR/TACAN at a designated ground checkpoint, the allowable CDI error is ±____°

A

±4°

44
Q

When checking your VOR/TACAN DME, ensure that distance indicated is within ____ mile or ____% of the distance designated on the checkpoint.

A

1/2 mile; 3%

45
Q

(T/F) IFR operations are permitted in uncontrolled airspace.

A

True

46
Q

USAF pilots flying under IFR will delay all turns until at least ____ feet above the DER elevation unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure.

A

400 feet

47
Q

USAF pilots will climb at a minimum rate of ____ ft/NM unless a higher gradient is published and must always meet or exceed the minimum/published climb gradient for the runway used with all engines operating.

A

200 ft/NM

48
Q

When mission priority dictates, in the absence of more restrictive MAJCOM guidance, an operations supervisor (or equivalent mission execution authority supervisor) may authorize the pilot to reduce the required TERPS climb gradient by up to ____/NM.

A

48ft/NM

49
Q

The obstacle clearance surface (OCS) at USAF and USN bases normally begins at ____ feet AGL at the DER, but the OCS may be raised as much as ____ feet in order to clear obstacles.

A

Zero feet AGL; 35 feet; Therefore, for any departure at other than non-joint-use USAF or USN bases, if the screen height is not published in the ODP or other reliable source, pilots will plan to cross the DER at or above 35 feet.

50
Q

At non-joint-use USAF or USN bases, assume a ____ foot runway end crossing height unless a higher altitude is published.

A

Zero foot AGL

51
Q

If the pilot does not know in advance which procedure will be assigned by ATC, he or she must plan for the ____ for the runway of intended departure.

A

highest climb gradient

52
Q

(T/F) Pilots are not required to comply with ODPs prior to commencing a SID or radar vector departure unless different procedures and minima are specified on the SID or issued with the departure clearance.

A

F; Pilots MUST COMPLY with ODPs prior to commencing a SID or radar vector departure unless different procedures and minima are specified on the SID or issued with the departure clearance.

53
Q

(T/F) ODPs are listed in the “Trouble T” section

A

T

54
Q

As on all SIDs, pilots will comply with the ____, if published for that runway, prior to accepting radar vectors, unless otherwise directed by ATC.

A

ODP

55
Q

Pilots must notify ATC immediately if they cannot meet the published climb gradient or, if one is not published, a minimum of ____ ft/nm on each segment of the SID up to the ____.

A

200 feet/nm; MEA

56
Q

(T/F) When told to “fly runway heading,” do not apply wind drift corrections.

A

True

57
Q

To fly a diverse departure, fly the extended runway centerline ground track until ____ feet above DER elevation before executing any turns. Maintain a minimum climb gradient of ____ feet/NM until reaching a minimum IFR altitude.

A

400 feet; 200 feet/NM

58
Q

(T/F) A diverse departure allows the pilot to execute a turn in any direction from the runway and remain clear of obstacles.

A

True

59
Q

The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg of the holding pattern is ____ minute(s) when holding at or below 14,000 feet MSL and ____ minute(s) when holding above 14,000 feet MSL.

A

1 minute; 1.5 minutes

60
Q

AFMAN 11-226 (TERPS), states that the use of ____ station passage as a fix is not acceptable for holding fixes (regardless of altitude) or high altitude initial approach fixes (those IAFs which are at or above FL180). This restriction is driven by the ____ fix error involved in station passage.

A

TACAN; TACAN

61
Q

ATC should issue holding instructions at least ____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. When an aircraft is ____ minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed.

A

5 minutes; 3 minutes

62
Q

Established in Holding. You are considered established in the holding pattern upon ____.

A

initial passage of the holding fix.

63
Q

Maximum Holding Speeds:

Up to and including 6,000 feet=____; 6,000 feet through 14,000 feet =____; Above 14,000 feet =____.

A

200 KIAS; 230 KIAS; 265 KIAS

64
Q

Begin outbound timing on a holding pattern when ____ or ____ the fix. If you cannot determine the abeam position, start timing when ____.

A

Over or abeam the fix; wings level outbound

65
Q

Begin inbound timing on a holding pattern when ____.

A

Wings level inbound

66
Q

(T/F) In extreme wind conditions, even though the turn inbound is initiated immediately after completing the outbound turn, the inbound leg may exceed the 1 or 1½ minute limit. In this case, you are authorized to exceed the time limit inbound.

A

True

67
Q

The aircraft must be traveling over ____ knots true airspeed (TAS) for the bank angle in a standard rate turn to exceed 30°

A

210 KTAS

68
Q

If at any time you are unable to descend at a rate of at least ____ fpm, advise ATC.

A

500 FPM

69
Q

(T/F) Before starting descent, review the IAP, recheck the weather (if appropriate), check the heading and attitude systems, and coordinate lost communication procedures (if required).

A

True

70
Q

Once cleared for the approach, maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until ____.

A

established on a segment of a published route or IAP.

71
Q

Established on course is defined as being within ____ for a VOR/TACAN/RNAV/GPS course, within ____ of the required bearing for an NDB and within full scale deflection for a LOC based course. Therefore, do not consider yourself “established on course” until you are within these limits.

A

half full-scale deflection; ± 5°

72
Q

(T/F) Before reaching the IAF, review the IAP, recheck the weather (if appropriate), check the heading and attitude systems, and obtain clearance for the approach.

A

True

73
Q

High altitude penetration descent may be initiated when ____.

A

abeam or past the IAF with a parallel or intercept heading to the course

74
Q

Aircraft will be vectored to intercept the final approach course at least ____ mile(s) from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of ____°. Exception: When the reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above the minimum vectoring altitude and the visibility is at least 3 miles, it shortens to at least ____ mile(s) from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of ____°

A

3 miles; 30 degrees; 1 mile; 20 degrees

75
Q

While being radar vectored, the pilot will repeat all ____, ____, and ____; and comply with controller instructions.

A

headings, altitudes (departing and assigned), and altimeter settings

76
Q

On a high approach, if you arrive at the IAF at an altitude below that published, maintain altitude and proceed outbound ____ seconds for each ____ feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent.

A

15 seconds; 1,000 feet

77
Q

On a high approach, use a descent gradient of ____-____ ft/NM (____-____°) to ensure you remain within protected airspace.

A

800-1,000 feet/NM; 8-10 degrees

78
Q

On a high approach, when a penetration turn altitude is not published, start the turn after descending ____.

A

one-half the total altitude between the IAF and FAF altitudes

79
Q

On a high approach, before reaching the penetration turn altitude, set up the navigation equipment to intercept the published____, ____ and ____ (CAT check)

A

inbound approach course, Recheck the altimeter and the direction of penetration turn.

80
Q

When would you not execute a procedure turn or HILO PT?

A

Straight-in (ATC gives you clearance for a “Straight-in” approach)
NoPT (you are flying an approach via NoPT routing)
Established in holding, subsequently cleared for the approach, and holding course and procedure turn course are the same.
Radar vectors to final approach course
Timed approach are in progress when you are established in a holding pattern and given a time to depart the FAF inbound

81
Q

Procedure turns may be safely flown at speeds up to ____ KIAS provided the pilot takes into consideration all factors which may affect the aircraft’s turn performance.

A

250 KIAS

82
Q

What three common methods are used for executing a procedure turn course reversal?

A

1) Holding technique, 2) 45/180, 3) 80/260

83
Q

If electing to do the holding technique for a procedure turn course reversal, the teardrop course must be within ____ degrees of the procedure turn course.

A

30 degrees

84
Q

When executing a 45/180 procedure turn course reversal, category C, D, and E aircraft should fly outbound for ____.

A

1 minute 15 seconds

85
Q

(T/F) Once inside the FAF, one navigation receiver available to the pilot flying must remain tuned to and display the facility that provides final approach course guidance.

A

True

86
Q

The optimum final approach course is ____ miles but may be as long as ____ miles.

A

5 miles; 10 miles

87
Q

How do you calculate a VDP?

A

HAT/300; 300 because of a 3 degree glideslope *100

88
Q

(T/F) Descent below MDA/DA/DH is not authorized until sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established or the aircraft is in position to execute a safe landing.

A

False, both conditions must be met in order to descend below MDA/DA/DH

89
Q

Can a pilot descend below MDA/DA/DH without the runway in sight?

A

Yes, if the pilot has the approach light system in sight, but may not descend below 100 feet above TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating side bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.

90
Q

If the pilot has the approach light system in sight, they may not descend below ____ feet above TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating side bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.

A

100 feet; CAUTION: Most approach lighting systems serving runways where no electronic glide path guidance is available do not have red termination bars or red side row bars.