217 v1

Question 1

T-38 control instruments

Answer 1

EADI/HUD ADI and RPM/EGT/Nozzles/FF

Question 2

T-38 performance instruments

Answer 2

Altimeter, airspeed/mach indicator, VVI, heading indicator, AOA, and turn and slip indicator

Question 3

As a rule of thumb, if you are 100 feet off altitude, set your pitch that will produce a ____-____ FPM climb/descent on the VVI.

Answer 3

100-200 FPM

Question 4

As a rule of thumb, if your heading deviation is 10 degrees, then ____ degrees of bank would produce a suitable rate of correction, not to exceed ____ degrees of bank

Answer 4

10 degrees; 30 degrees

Question 5

Instrument steep turns are normally any turn greater than ____ degrees of bank

Answer 5

30 degrees

Question 6

Estimating VVI: Using 60:1 rule we know ____ multiplied by ____ in nm/min gives VVI in 100’s of ft/min

Answer 6

pitch x airpseed

Question 7

Unusual attitude definition

Answer 7

An unusual attitude is an aircraft attitude occurring inadvertently.

Question 8

NL unusual attitude recovery: Adjust power and drag devices as appropriate while rolling to a wings level, upright attitude, and correct to level flight on the ADI. Do not add backpressure until less than ____ degrees AOB.

Answer 8

90 degrees AOB

Question 9

TERPS requires the Localizer signal alignment to be within ____ degrees of the runway alignment. If the alignment exceeds ____ degrees, the LOC will be identified as an ____.

Answer 9

3 degrees; 3 ; LDA

Question 10

The signal accuracy of the LDA is the same as a LOC, however the LDA course alignment will be greater than ____ degrees, not to exceed ____ degrees.

Answer 10

3 degrees; 30 degrees

Question 11

Normal localizers have a signal coverage range of ____ degrees out to ____ nm and ____ degrees out to ____nm.

Answer 11

35 degrees; 10nm; 10 degrees; 18nm

Question 12

The TACAN station transmits an aural three-letter Morse code identifier approximately every ____ seconds

Answer 12

35 seconds

Question 13

____ occurs when the pilot places the head of the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line and makes periodic heading changes to keep it there. Failure to apply wind drift corrections results in a curved flight path to the station.

Answer 13

Homing

Question 14

Turn the aircraft in the shorter direction to place the head of the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line. Center the CDI with a TO indication and apply wind drift corrections to maintain the selected course to the station. This is called ____.

Answer 14

Proceeding Direct to a Station

Question 15

A technique for determining intercept heading inbound is to look in the shorter direction to the head of the bearing pointer. Continue beyond the head of the bearing pointer by ____ degrees or the number of degrees off course, whicher is less.

Answer 15

30 degrees

Question 16

A technique for determining intercept heading outbound is from the tail of the bearing pointer, move in the shorter direction to the desired course. Continue beyond the course by ____ degrees, or the number of degrees off course, whichever is less.

Answer 16

45 degrees

Question 17

____ station passage occurs when the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM

Answer 17

VOR and VOR/DME

Question 18

____ station passage occurs when the range indicator stops decreasing.

Answer 18

TACAN

Question 19

Correcting on an arc Rule of Thumb: Displace the bearing pointer ____° below the reference point for each one-half mile deviation to the inside of the arc, and ____° above the reference point for each half mile outside the arc

Answer 19

5°; 10°

Question 20

(T/F) Pilots may not use GPS to substitute for the navigational aid providing lateral guidance for the final approach segment.

Answer 20

True

Question 21

To ensure adequate obstacle clearance the values derived in the Temperature Correction Chart in the FIH will be added to the published DA or MDA and step down fixes whenever the outside air temperature is less than ____ degrees Celsius.

Answer 21

0 degrees Celsius

Question 22

Aircraft approach Category E speed, derived from ____ times the stalling speed in the landing configuration, is ____ or more.

Answer 22

1.3; 166 kts

Question 23

Aircraft approach category D is speeds between ____ kts but less than ____ kts.

Answer 23

141 and 166 kts

Question 24

You (CAN/CANNOT) fly non-US Government IAPs? (I.e. Jeppeson plates)

Answer 24

CANNOT: Do not fly non-US Government IAPs unless properly trained and the procedure(s) are approved by your MAJCOM TERPS.

Question 25

Ensure the approach you select is compatible with the navigation equipment installed and operating on your aircraft, including the ____ ____ instructions. With exception 6.5.1.3.1 in 217v1.

Answer 25

Missed approach

Question 26

(T/F) If there is a requirement to execute an approach procedure with incompatible missed approach instructions, ATC may be able to issue alternate missed approach instructions. Request alternate missed approach instructions prior to accepting approach clearance.

Answer 26

True

Question 27

A ____ on the title of the IAP indicates that more than one type of equipment may be required to execute the final approach.

Answer 27

A slash (/)

Question 28

What does it mean when the title of an IAP has an alphabetical suffix (I.e. ILS Z RWY28L)?

Answer 28

That more than one approach using the same final approach guidance is developed to the same runway and each runway/navigational aid combination will be identified

Question 29

When the name of the approach is followed by a letter such as A, B, C, etc., the approach is designed for ____ only.

Answer 29

Circling minimums

Question 30

If you are unable to comply with the holding speed on the missed approach, coordinate with ATC prior to arriving at the ____.

Answer 30

IAF and commencing the approach.

Question 31

A minimum safe altitude is the minimum altitude that provides at least ____ feet (____ feet in designated mountainous areas) of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon which the procedure is based.

Answer 31

1,000 feet; 1,000 feet (trick question)

Question 32

The minimum sector altitude provides the ____ feet of obstacle clearance (____ feet in designated mountainous areas) within 25 NM of the facility.

Answer 32

1,000 feet; 1,000 feet (trick question)

Question 33

An emergency safe altitude is normally developed only for military procedures and will provide ____ feet of obstacle clearance (____ feet in designated mountainous areas) within 100 NM of the facility.

Answer 33

1,000 feet; 2,000 feet

Question 34

(T/F) Minimum safe altitudes guarantee NAVAID reception.

Answer 34

Minimum safe altitudes do NOT guarantee NAVAID reception.

Question 35

On an IAP, the inner ring gives a scale presentation, on the plan view, of the approach that is normally within a ____ NM radius for low altitude approaches and ____ NM for high altitude approaches.

Answer 35

10NM; 20NM

Question 36

For a low altitude IAP, the initial descent gradient will not exceed ____ ft/nm (approximately ____°).

Answer 36

500 ft/nm; 5 degrees

Question 37

Touchdown zone elevation (TDZE). Note the touchdown zone elevation. This is the highest point in the first ____ feet of the landing surface.

Answer 37

3,000 feet

Question 38

What does “A NA” mean when listed in the notes section of an IAP?

Answer 38

The NA tells civilian and military pilots that the specific approach cannot be used to qualify the field as an alternate either because of lack of weather reporting facilities and/or the lack of capability to monitor the NAVAID.

Question 39

What does the negative D symbol, located on the airport diagram portion of an IAP when applicable, mean?

Answer 39

It means there are declared distances for the airport which are listed in the AFD and IFR supplement

Question 40

What does TORA mean (type of declared distance listed in AFD and IFR supplement)?

Answer 40

TORA. TAKE-OFF RUN AVAILABLE-The length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane take-off. PICs must operate their aircraft at a weight that makes it POSSIBLE to be airborne at or before the TORA distance and then meet or exceed the published climb gradient.

Question 41

Check the altimeter at a known elevation and note any error in feet. If the error exceeds ____ feet, the instrument is out of tolerance for flight.

Answer 41

75 feet

Question 42

In lieu of guidance in aircraft technical orders the aircraft’s primary heading indicator should be within approximately ____ degrees of a known heading (i.e., runway heading or designated ground checkpoint).

Answer 42

5 degrees

Question 43

When checking the VOR/TACAN at a designated ground checkpoint, the allowable CDI error is ±____°

Answer 43

±4°

Question 44

When checking your VOR/TACAN DME, ensure that distance indicated is within ____ mile or ____% of the distance designated on the checkpoint.

Answer 44

1/2 mile; 3%

Question 45

(T/F) IFR operations are permitted in uncontrolled airspace.

Answer 45

True

Question 46

USAF pilots flying under IFR will delay all turns until at least ____ feet above the DER elevation unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure.

Answer 46

400 feet

Question 47

USAF pilots will climb at a minimum rate of ____ ft/NM unless a higher gradient is published and must always meet or exceed the minimum/published climb gradient for the runway used with all engines operating.

Answer 47

200 ft/NM

Question 48

When mission priority dictates, in the absence of more restrictive MAJCOM guidance, an operations supervisor (or equivalent mission execution authority supervisor) may authorize the pilot to reduce the required TERPS climb gradient by up to ____/NM.

Answer 48

48ft/NM

Question 49

The obstacle clearance surface (OCS) at USAF and USN bases normally begins at ____ feet AGL at the DER, but the OCS may be raised as much as ____ feet in order to clear obstacles.

Answer 49

Zero feet AGL; 35 feet; Therefore, for any departure at other than non-joint-use USAF or USN bases, if the screen height is not published in the ODP or other reliable source, pilots will plan to cross the DER at or above 35 feet.

Question 50

At non-joint-use USAF or USN bases, assume a ____ foot runway end crossing height unless a higher altitude is published.

Answer 50

Zero foot AGL

Question 51

If the pilot does not know in advance which procedure will be assigned by ATC, he or she must plan for the ____ for the runway of intended departure.

Answer 51

highest climb gradient

Question 52

(T/F) Pilots are not required to comply with ODPs prior to commencing a SID or radar vector departure unless different procedures and minima are specified on the SID or issued with the departure clearance.

Answer 52

F; Pilots MUST COMPLY with ODPs prior to commencing a SID or radar vector departure unless different procedures and minima are specified on the SID or issued with the departure clearance.

Question 53

(T/F) ODPs are listed in the “Trouble T” section

Answer 53

T

Question 54

As on all SIDs, pilots will comply with the ____, if published for that runway, prior to accepting radar vectors, unless otherwise directed by ATC.

Answer 54

ODP

Question 55

Pilots must notify ATC immediately if they cannot meet the published climb gradient or, if one is not published, a minimum of ____ ft/nm on each segment of the SID up to the ____.

Answer 55

200 feet/nm; MEA

Question 56

(T/F) When told to “fly runway heading,” do not apply wind drift corrections.

Answer 56

True

Question 57

To fly a diverse departure, fly the extended runway centerline ground track until ____ feet above DER elevation before executing any turns. Maintain a minimum climb gradient of ____ feet/NM until reaching a minimum IFR altitude.

Answer 57

400 feet; 200 feet/NM

Question 58

(T/F) A diverse departure allows the pilot to execute a turn in any direction from the runway and remain clear of obstacles.

Answer 58

True

Question 59

The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg of the holding pattern is ____ minute(s) when holding at or below 14,000 feet MSL and ____ minute(s) when holding above 14,000 feet MSL.

Answer 59

1 minute; 1.5 minutes

Question 60

AFMAN 11-226 (TERPS), states that the use of ____ station passage as a fix is not acceptable for holding fixes (regardless of altitude) or high altitude initial approach fixes (those IAFs which are at or above FL180). This restriction is driven by the ____ fix error involved in station passage.

Answer 60

TACAN; TACAN

Question 61

ATC should issue holding instructions at least ____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. When an aircraft is ____ minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed.

Answer 61

5 minutes; 3 minutes

Question 62

Established in Holding. You are considered established in the holding pattern upon ____.

Answer 62

initial passage of the holding fix.

Question 63

Maximum Holding Speeds:

Up to and including 6,000 feet=____; 6,000 feet through 14,000 feet =____; Above 14,000 feet =____.

Answer 63

200 KIAS; 230 KIAS; 265 KIAS

Question 64

Begin outbound timing on a holding pattern when ____ or ____ the fix. If you cannot determine the abeam position, start timing when ____.

Answer 64

Over or abeam the fix; wings level outbound

Question 65

Begin inbound timing on a holding pattern when ____.

Answer 65

Wings level inbound

Question 66

(T/F) In extreme wind conditions, even though the turn inbound is initiated immediately after completing the outbound turn, the inbound leg may exceed the 1 or 1½ minute limit. In this case, you are authorized to exceed the time limit inbound.

Answer 66

True

Question 67

The aircraft must be traveling over ____ knots true airspeed (TAS) for the bank angle in a standard rate turn to exceed 30°

Answer 67

210 KTAS

Question 68

If at any time you are unable to descend at a rate of at least ____ fpm, advise ATC.

Answer 68

500 FPM

Question 69

(T/F) Before starting descent, review the IAP, recheck the weather (if appropriate), check the heading and attitude systems, and coordinate lost communication procedures (if required).

Answer 69

True

Question 70

Once cleared for the approach, maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until ____.

Answer 70

established on a segment of a published route or IAP.

Question 71

Established on course is defined as being within ____ for a VOR/TACAN/RNAV/GPS course, within ____ of the required bearing for an NDB and within full scale deflection for a LOC based course. Therefore, do not consider yourself “established on course” until you are within these limits.

Answer 71

half full-scale deflection; ± 5°

Question 72

(T/F) Before reaching the IAF, review the IAP, recheck the weather (if appropriate), check the heading and attitude systems, and obtain clearance for the approach.

Answer 72

True

Question 73

High altitude penetration descent may be initiated when ____.

Answer 73

abeam or past the IAF with a parallel or intercept heading to the course

Question 74

Aircraft will be vectored to intercept the final approach course at least ____ mile(s) from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of ____°. Exception: When the reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above the minimum vectoring altitude and the visibility is at least 3 miles, it shortens to at least ____ mile(s) from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of ____°

Answer 74

3 miles; 30 degrees; 1 mile; 20 degrees

Question 75

While being radar vectored, the pilot will repeat all ____, ____, and ____; and comply with controller instructions.

Answer 75

headings, altitudes (departing and assigned), and altimeter settings

Question 76

On a high approach, if you arrive at the IAF at an altitude below that published, maintain altitude and proceed outbound ____ seconds for each ____ feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent.

Answer 76

15 seconds; 1,000 feet

Question 77

On a high approach, use a descent gradient of ____-____ ft/NM (____-____°) to ensure you remain within protected airspace.

Answer 77

800-1,000 feet/NM; 8-10 degrees

Question 78

On a high approach, when a penetration turn altitude is not published, start the turn after descending ____.

Answer 78

one-half the total altitude between the IAF and FAF altitudes

Question 79

On a high approach, before reaching the penetration turn altitude, set up the navigation equipment to intercept the published____, ____ and ____ (CAT check)

Answer 79

inbound approach course, Recheck the altimeter and the direction of penetration turn.

Question 80

When would you not execute a procedure turn or HILO PT?

Answer 80

Straight-in (ATC gives you clearance for a “Straight-in” approach)
NoPT (you are flying an approach via NoPT routing)
Established in holding, subsequently cleared for the approach, and holding course and procedure turn course are the same.
Radar vectors to final approach course
Timed approach are in progress when you are established in a holding pattern and given a time to depart the FAF inbound

Question 81

Procedure turns may be safely flown at speeds up to ____ KIAS provided the pilot takes into consideration all factors which may affect the aircraft’s turn performance.

Answer 81

250 KIAS

Question 82

What three common methods are used for executing a procedure turn course reversal?

Answer 82

1) Holding technique, 2) 45/180, 3) 80/260

Question 83

If electing to do the holding technique for a procedure turn course reversal, the teardrop course must be within ____ degrees of the procedure turn course.

Answer 83

30 degrees

Question 84

When executing a 45/180 procedure turn course reversal, category C, D, and E aircraft should fly outbound for ____.

Answer 84

1 minute 15 seconds

Question 85

(T/F) Once inside the FAF, one navigation receiver available to the pilot flying must remain tuned to and display the facility that provides final approach course guidance.

Answer 85

True

Question 86

The optimum final approach course is ____ miles but may be as long as ____ miles.

Answer 86

5 miles; 10 miles

Question 87

How do you calculate a VDP?

Answer 87

HAT/300; 300 because of a 3 degree glideslope *100

Question 88

(T/F) Descent below MDA/DA/DH is not authorized until sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established or the aircraft is in position to execute a safe landing.

Answer 88

False, both conditions must be met in order to descend below MDA/DA/DH

Question 89

Can a pilot descend below MDA/DA/DH without the runway in sight?

Answer 89

Yes, if the pilot has the approach light system in sight, but may not descend below 100 feet above TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating side bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.

Question 90

If the pilot has the approach light system in sight, they may not descend below ____ feet above TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating side bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.

Answer 90

100 feet; CAUTION: Most approach lighting systems serving runways where no electronic glide path guidance is available do not have red termination bars or red side row bars.