251 (no form or LL) Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

Never taxi within ____feet of an object.

A

10 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Do not taxi within ____feet of an obstacle without a wing walker.

A

25 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Instrument cockpit check: Ensure your EHSI is within ____ degrees of your magnetic compass and ____ degrees of a known heading.

A

8 and 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ensure predicted INS accuracy is ____ or less.

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The final check of the aileron and rudder neutrality should occur no earlier than ____ and no later than ____.

A

Arriving at the EOR/hold short area;

Taking the active runway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rolling takeoffs may increase takeoff distance by ____ to ____ feet.

A

150-300 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Reduce power out of MAX between ____ and ____, and terminate afterburner by ____ KCAS.

A

220-280 KCAS, 300 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

On initial takeoff, what do you set the boresight on?

A

7 degrees NH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When executing a MAX power climb (afterburner climb), how many degrees NH is necessary to hold 300 KCAS approximately?

A

20-25 degrees NH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

On a MAX power climb (afterburner climb), after passing 10,000 feet, what airspeed do you hold?

A

0.9 IMN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When IVV is less than ____ fpm use ____% of your VV for level off.

A

6,000 fpm; 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When IVV is greater than ____fpm, reduce power and lower the nose to cut the picture in half about ____ feet prior in MIL power (____feet prior in MAX), and then ____% of your VVI

A

2,000 feet; 4,000 feet; 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Normal overhead: Initiate the break between ____ and ____ feet down the runway.

A

Approach end; 3,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normal overhead: Do not break until ____ degrees off from preceding aircraft to ensure ____ feet separation and ____ to ensure ____ feet separation.

A

45 degrees; 3,000 feet; abeam; 6,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Begin closed pullup with a minimum of ____ KCAS

A

240 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maintain a minimum of ____ KCAS on a closed pullup until wings level on downwind

A

200 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal no-wind spacing on inside downwind

A

1-1.3 miles for a 1,500 foot AGL traffic pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inside downwind spacing adjustments for cross wind.

A

0.1 miles for every 10 kts of crosswind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Prior to beginning the final turn, ensure the landing gear is down and locked and the flaps have traveled ____ to ensure no asymmetry exists

A

a sufficient amount (approximately 60 degrees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Minimum speed on inside downwind?

A

Final turn airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Normal rollout point on final from final turn is ____ to ____ feet AGL at ____ to ____ NM from the threshold.

A

300-390 feet; 1-1.3 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Final Turn: Preceding aircraft should be ____ around the turn to ensure a minimum of 3,000 feet separation or ____ to ensure 6,000 feet separation.

A

2/3; abeam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Final Turn: Maintain approximately ____ AOA throughout final turn.

A

0.6 AOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Final Turn: Confirm configuration and enter approximately a ____ degree banked turn.

A

45 degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Final Turn: FPM should be ~ ____ to ____ NL in HUD for 1,500 foot AGL pattern
6-7 degrees
26
VVI will eventually indicate approximately ____ the pattern altitude.
double (3,600 FPM for 1,800 AGL pattern)
27
Final Turn: Halfway around the turn you should be at ____feet at a heading of ____ regardless of north/south flow.
2,050-2,140 feet (~2100 feet); 060 degrees
28
Consider the final turn made when
30 degrees; 0.6 AOA; 30 degrees
29
Once established on final, VVI should be ~ ____-____ FPM.
700-900 FPM
30
Ideal glidepath for T-38 is ____-____ degrees (FPM on HUD)
2.5-3.0 degrees
31
HUD OFF aimpoint (Full Flap)
~top of HUD combining glass
32
With gusty winds, increase ____ and ____ speed by ____ the gust factor IAW the flight manual.
final approach and landing speed; 1/2
33
What is the desired touchdown speed?
20-25 kts below approach speed
34
Landing zone is ____ - ____ down the runway.
150-1,000 feet
35
Crosswind conditions differences
Land on upwind side of runway, hold landing attitude with no aerobrake, 6,000 foot spacing
36
No-flap inside downwind spacing
~1.5 miles for a 1,500 foot AGL traffic pattern (no wind)
37
No-flap final turn, use approximately ____-____ degrees NL
4-6 degrees NL
38
HUD OFF aimpoint (No-Flap)
Slightly above the top of the AOA indexer
39
During SSE approach, what is the minimum power setting for the "bad" engine?
60%
40
On a SSE go-around, when do you advance the "bad" engine to MIL?
Before cancelling AB on the "good" engine.
41
Light buffet AOA
0.6 AOA
42
Moderate buffet AOA
0.7 AOA
43
Definite increase in buffet intensity (DIBI) AOA
0.8 AOA
44
Heavy buffet AOA
higher than DIBI AOA (DIBI AOA = 0.8)
45
Aural, HUD, and MFD stall warning AOA
Gear extended at or above 0.8 AOA
46
Minimum fuel for practice No-Flap landing
2500#'s
47
Energy Management: ~____ feet = ____ kts of airspeed
1,000 feet = 50 kts
48
Rudder is more effective at ____ AOA
high AOA
49
Aileron is most effective at ____ AOA and becomes less effective as AOA ____.
low; increases
50
Speed Brake has minimal effect below ____ KCAS
250 KCAS
51
Slow flight is accomplished at ____ kts below computed final approach speed
10 kts
52
TP stalls: Perform at or below ____ and set power at ____ % RPM minimum no later than deceleration through ____ KCAS.
FL 200; 80%; 200 KCAS
53
During NH and NL recoveries, ____ to ____ Gs are sufficient for an expeditious recovery in the MOA, maintaining between ~____-____ KCAS.
4-5 G's; 250-400 KCAS
54
Lazy 8 entry parameters
350-400 KCAS @95% RPM
55
Barrel Roll entry parameters
375-400 KCAS @ 95% RPM
56
Loop entry parameters
500 KCAS @ MIL power
57
Split-S entry parameters
200 KCAS@ MIL power
58
Immelmann entry parameters
500 KCAS@ MIL power
59
Cuban 8 entry parameters
500 KCAS@ MIL power
60
Cloverleaf entry parameters
450 KCAS @ MIL power
61
Entering a maneuver from a dive: One technique is to lead the pullout by ____ kts and/or ____ feet for each 10 degrees NL
10 kts; 500 feet
62
Lazy 8: At the 45 degree point, your nose should be ~ ____-____ degrees NH, at the 90 degree point your airspeed should be ~ ____ kts at 90 degrees of bank. At 135 degrees of turn, nose should be ~____-____ degrees NL
20-30 degrees NH; 200 kts; 20-30 degrees NL
63
Loop entry: Smoothly apply backstick pressure until reaching ~____-____ Gs in a straight pull. Continue to increase backstick pressure to maintain the ____ buffet with ____ indication on AOA.
4.5-5 Gs; light; 0.6/green donut
64
Expect to lose ____ feet of energy per loop
500 feet
65
Cockpit reference for inverted, level-flight attitude?
Canopy bow on the horizon
66
Cuban 8: To obtain entry airspeed for the second half of the maneuver, lead the pull-up by ~____ kts (10 kts for each ____ degrees NL). Initiating a 4.5-5 G pull at 450 KCAS will allow the aircraft to descend another ____-____ feet before the FPM passes through the horizon.
50 kts; 10 degrees NL; 2,500-3,000 feet
67
Cloverleaf: Approaching ____ degrees NH, begin a slow, rolling pull to lay the aircraft on its back at your selected 90 degree reference point. The airspeed should be between ____-____KCAS as the aircraft passes through the inverted, level-flight attitude.
45 degrees NH; 175-200 KCAS
68
The purpose of flying formation is to provide ____
To provide the mutual support required to accomplish a given mission.
69
The ____ is ultimately responsible for the safe and effective conduct of the mission.
Flight lead
70
____ may be used when the flight lead wants the wingman to navigate and clear.
Nav lead
71
The ____ retains primary responsibility for deconfliction between flight members.
Wingman