217 v3

Question 1

L Class VOR range: Normally usable from 1,000 feet AGL up to and including 18,000 feet AGL at a radial distance out to ____ NM

Answer 1

40 NM

Question 2

HA Class VOR range: Between 1,000 feet AGL up to and including 14,500 feet, out to a distance of ____NM; between 14,500 feet and 60,000 feet, usable up to ____ NM; between 18,000 feet and 45,000 feet AGL, usable range increases to ____ NM.

Answer 2

40 NM; 100 NM; 130 NM

Question 3

T Class VOR range: Normally usable only within ____ NM between 1,000 feet AGL up to 12,000 feet AGL

Answer 3

25 NM

Question 4

VOR tuned to a VOT should have the CDI centered and the bearing pointer reading 0 degrees with a ____ indication or 180 degrees with a ____ indication. The allowable tolerance is +/- ____ degrees

Answer 4

FROM; TO; +/- 4 degrees

Question 5

Designated ground checkpoint for VOR: Should read within ____ degrees of the specified course TO or FROm the VOR.

Answer 5

4 degrees

Question 6

DME check should be within ____ mile(s) or ____% of the total distance (whichever is greater).

Answer 6

1/2 mile or 3%

Question 7

Airborne checkpoints for VOR consist of certified radials that should be received over specific points or landmarks while airborne in the immediate vicinity of an airport. Must be +/- ____ degrees of the specified radial.

Answer 7

+/- 6 degrees

Question 8

Dual VOR check must be within ____ degrees of each other

Answer 8

4 degrees

Question 9

Localizer transmitter normally sits at the ____ end of the runway, specifically about ____ feet beyond the ____ end of the ILS runway, so that it transmits its course signal along the extended runway centerline.

Answer 9

departure end; 1,000 feet; departure end

Question 10

Glideslope transmitter normally sits about ____ feet from the runway threshold so the TCH of a 3 degree glideslope is between 30-50 feet.

Answer 10

1,000 feet

Question 11

Localizer width may vary between ____ and ____ degrees.

Answer 11

3 and 6 degrees

Question 12

Localizer width produces a signal +/- ____ feet either side of centerline at the threshold

Answer 12

350 feet

Question 13

A localizer is approximately ____ times more sensitive than a VOR signal, therefore, a full scale deflection means you are ____-____ degrees off course.

Answer 13

4 times; 1.5-3 degrees

Question 14

Localizer may be offset up to ____ degrees, if it exceeds ____ degrees offset then it will be published as an ____ approach.

Answer 14

3 degrees; 3 degrees; LDA

Question 15

ILS critical area: ATC will not authorize aircraft or vehicles to operate inside the ILS critical area when an aircraft is between the ILS FAF and the airport when the weather is below ____ ft ceiling and/or

Answer 15

800 foot; <2SM vis

Question 16

The glideslope of an ILS has a usable range of ____ NM

Answer 16

10 NM

Question 17

ATC is required to provide vector headings to within ____ degrees of the localizer course, at least ____ NM from the glideslope intercept point, and at an altitude ____ glideslope.

Answer 17

30 degrees; 2 NM; below

Question 18

The localizer course may be flown outside of the ____ NM flight check distance if the instrument procedure depicts a greater distance or radar services are provided. If the controller clears you to intercept a localizer course, regardless of the distance from the antenna, radar service is being provided and you are expected to intercept the localizer

Answer 18

18 NM

Question 19

Except during high crosswind situations, an accepted technique is to limit heading corrections to within ____ degrees of the inbound course

Answer 19

5 degrees

Question 20

Should a minor deviation from the GS occur on an ILS, an accepted technique is to make small coordinated pitch and power changes that result in a VVI change of less than ____ to ____ FPM, which equates to ~____-____ degrees of pitch change

Answer 20

200 to 300 FPM; 1-2 degrees

Question 21

(T/F) If the MA is initiated at the DH, obstacle clearance takes into account the momentary dip below DH during the go-around maneuver to accommodate for the downward vector an aircraft has when flying a constant rate descent.

Answer 21

True

Question 22

If the course warning flag is displayed during the final approach, ____.

Answer 22

Initiate a MA procedure.

Question 23

If the glideslope warning is displayed, the approach may be flown no lower than the published ____ or, if not publushed, no lower than the ____ for that aircraft category.

Answer 23

localizer-only altitude; circling minimum altitude

Question 24

During localizer back course approaches, the CDI is more sensitive because ____.

Answer 24

The localizer antannae is located at the approach end of the runway compared to the departure end of the runway with a normal localizer approach

Question 25

Localizer Back Course Approach: To maintain the proper aircraft heading/localizer course relationship, set the ____ in the course selector window.

Answer 25

published front course

Question 26

An LDA approach is of comparable use and accuracy to a localizer but is offset more than ____ degrees but not more than ____ for straight-in minimums.

Answer 26

3 degrees; 30 degrees

Question 27

Simplified Directional Facility (SFD) Approach: This facility provides a final approach course similar to that of the ILS localizer and the LDA; however, a SFD approach will not have ____ capability.

Answer 27

Glideslope

Question 28

The SFD signal width is fixed at either ____ or ____ degrees as necessary to provide for maximum flyability and optimum course quality.

Answer 28

6 or 12 degrees

Question 29

Wake Turbulence: The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is ____, ____, and ____.

Answer 29

Heavy, clean and slow.

Question 30

Wake Turbulence: Aircraft with ____ wing spans (relative to the vortex generating aircraft) will usually find it more difficult to counter the imposed roll produced by vortex flow.

Answer 30

Short

Question 31

Wake Turbulence: A light wind with a cross-runway component of ____-____ kts (depending on conditions) can result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown zone and hasten the drift of the downwind vortex toward another runway.

Answer 31

1-5 kts

Question 32

Wake Turbulence: CAUTION: The ____ ____ _____ requires maximum caution regarding the effects of wake turbulence.

Answer 32

light quartering tailwind

Question 33

Wake Turbulence: When departing behind a large aircraft; note the other aircraft’s rotation point and, if able rotate your aircraft ____ that point. If unable, consider waiting ____ minutes to allow the wake induced vortices to dissipate.

Answer 33

prior to; 2 minutes

Question 34

Wake Turbulence: Helicopters. In a slow hover taxi or stationary hover near the surface, helicopter main rotor(s) generate downwash producing high velocity outwash vortices to a distance that equates to approximately ____ times the diameter of the rotor.

Answer 34

3

Question 35

RVSM is a program that enables vertical separation to be reduced from ____ feet to ____ feet between properly equipped aircraft and appropriately trained aircrew operating from FL ____ to FL 410.

Answer 35

2,000 feet to 1,000 feet; FL 290

Question 36

Magnetic course 000-179 degrees = ____ Flight Levels

Answer 36

Odd

Question 37

Pilots and crews that are operating in RVSM airspace in a non-RVSM compliant aircraft will state “____ ____” upon initial contact with each frequency change.

Answer 37

Negative RVSM

Question 38

(T/F) Never follow a TCAS RA if it requires maneuvering contrary to “right-of-way” rules, “cloud clearance” rules for VFR, IFR, or other such criteria.

Answer 38

F; Pilots are expected to follow the RAs to resolve the immediate traffic conflict. Deviations from rules or clearances should be kept to the minimum necessary to satisfy an RA, but the RA must be satified.

Question 39

Setting the Altimeter to QNE sets the altimeter to __.__

Answer 39

29.92

Question 40

____ Altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

Answer 40

Density Altitude

Question 41

If the pitot tube freezes over, trapping air inside, as the aircraft climbs the airspeed will ____.

Answer 41

Increase.

Question 42

On a High Altitude Teardrop Penetration approach, the optimum descent gradient is ____ ft/nm. The maximum descent gradient is ____ ft/nm.

Answer 42

800 ft/nm; 1,000 ft/nm

Question 43

Approach Category E provides a minimum of 300 ft obstacle clearance in the circling area with an arc radii of ____ miles.

Answer 43

4.5 miles

Question 44

When the missed approach course is within ____ degrees of the final approach course, it is considered a straight missed approach.

Answer 44

15 degees

Question 45

Most missed approach climb gradients require the standard ____ ft/nm.

Answer 45

200 ft/nm