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A+ > 220-1101 Hardware > Flashcards

220-1101 Hardware Flashcards

1
Q

Which network cable designation has a speed for 100-Mbps

A

Cat 5

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2
Q

Which network cable designation is enhanced to handle 1-Gbps and 2.5 Gbps networks at 100-meter segments

A

Cat 5e

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3
Q

Which network cable designation supports 1-Gbps, 2.5-Gbps, and 5 Gbps networks at 100-meter segments and 10-Gbps networks up to 55-meter segments?

A

Cat 6

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4
Q

Which network cable designation is a nonstandard term used by a few manufacturers for Cat 6 or Cat 6a

A

Cat 6e

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5
Q

Which network cable designation supports 10-Gbps at 100-meter segments, has shielding for individual wire pairs reduce crosstalk and noise. and is not an ANSI/TIA standard.

A

Cat 7

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6
Q

T/F: Ethernet standards using coax is long gone

A

True

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7
Q

Which cable is primarily used for cable modems and satellite connections?

A

Coaxial

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8
Q

Which cable consists of a center cable (core) surrounded by insulation. Then it is covered with a shield of braided cable?

A

Coaxial

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9
Q

Which cable is protected from interference with a shield of braided cable?

A

Coaxial

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10
Q

Which cable is rated using RG name which rates the cable by impedance

A

Coaxial

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11
Q

Which coaxial RG names (2) are the most important and rated at 75-ohm impedance?

A

RG-59 and RG-6

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12
Q

Which cables are twisted pair wires are surrounded by shielding to protect them from electromagnetic interference?

A

Shielded twisted pair

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13
Q

Which cable is rare for 1000Base-T networks because need is rare?

A

Shielded twisted pair

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14
Q

Which STP has a thicker jacket and some waterproofing for outdoor and burial use?

A

Direct burial

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15
Q

Which cable is the specified cabling for 100/1000BASE-T as well as 10GBASE-T?

A

Unshielded twisted pair

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16
Q

Which cable is the predominant network cabling system used today?

A

Unshielded twisted pair

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17
Q

Which cable is made with a fire-retardant jacket and is required for plenum space. About 3-5 times more expensive?

A

Plenum-grade cable

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18
Q

Which cable standard has a 2000 meter distance?

A

Fiber

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19
Q

Fiber networks mostly use what type of cable?

A

62.5/125 multimode fiber optic cable

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20
Q

When fiber uses two strands, one for sending and one for receiving, it is referred to as what?

A

multimode

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21
Q

Which fiber mode has 10-100+ Gbps, distance ~600 meter?

A

multimode

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22
Q

Which fiber mode is very fast and travels extremely far?

A

singlemode

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23
Q

What are the standards for connecting an RJ45 connector to UTP cable?

A

T568A/T568B

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24
Q

Which version of USB was marketed as Hi-Speed; runs at 480 Mbps?

A

2.0

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25
Q

Which version of USB was marketed as SuperSpeed; speeds up to 5 Gbps?

A

3.0

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26
Q

Which version of USB was marketed as Superspeed; handles speeds up to 10 Gbps?

A

3.1

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27
Q

Which version of USB has speeds up to 20 Gbps using a pair of 10-Gbps lanes?

A

3.2

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28
Q

Which connection standard is older, uses 9-pin, D-shell male socket, called a DB9 or an RS232?

A

Serial

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29
Q

Which cable supports video up to a single 4k video monitor, audio and storage devices?

A

Thunderbolt

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30
Q

What do Thunderbolt 1 and 2 connect with?

A

Mini DisplayPort (mDP) connector

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31
Q

What does Thunderbolt 3 connect with?

A

USB Type-C connector

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32
Q

What is the distance of copper Thunderbolt?

A

3 meters

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33
Q

What is the distance of fiber Thunderbolt?

A

60 meters

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34
Q

What is the icon for USB Type-C thunderbolt ports?

A

a lightning bolt

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35
Q

Which version of Thunderbolt runs full duplex at 10 Gbps?

A

version 1

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36
Q

Which version of Thunderbolt runs full duplex at 20 Gbps?

A

version 2

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37
Q

Which version of Thunderbolt runs full duplex at 40 Gbps?

A

version 3

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38
Q

T/F: HDMI carries both video and audio signals.

A

True

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39
Q

T/F: All versions of HDMI can handle any resolution.

A

False

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40
Q

T/F: Full-sized display port connection are not common.

A

False

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41
Q

Which Thunderbolt version uses the same connector types as Mini DisplayPort (mDP)?

A

Version 1 and 2

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42
Q

Which versions (2) of USB support using the Type-C connector to drive a display without TB?

A

Version 3 and 4

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43
Q

Which display port involves an analog to digital connection?

A

Digital visual Interface (DVI)

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44
Q

Which DVI was digital?

A

DVI-D

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45
Q

Which DVI was analog?

A

DVI-A

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46
Q

Which DVI (2) was interchangeable?

A

DVI-A/D or DVI-I

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47
Q

Which DVI (2) can be single-link or dual-link?

A

DVI-D or DVI-I

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48
Q

Which DVI link can drive 1920 x 1080 at 60 Hz?

A

single-link

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49
Q

Which DVI link can drive a 2048 x 1536 display at 60 Hz?

A

dual-link

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50
Q

Which graphics cable is very old, the least-capable monitor connection type and has a 15-pin, three-row, D-Type connection?

A

Video Graphics Array (VGA)

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51
Q

Which storage drive cable creates a point-to-point connection between the drive and the the host bus adapter (HBA)?

A

Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA)

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52
Q

Which hard drive cable has a max length of 40 inches?

A

Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA)

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53
Q

For SATA, how much of the speed is used for overhead?

A

20%

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54
Q

Which version of SATA has 1.5 Gbps, 150 MBps throughput?

A

SATA 1.0

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55
Q

Which version of SATA has 3 Gbps, 300 MBps throughput?

A

SATA 2.0

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56
Q

Which version of SATA has 6 Gbps bandwidth, 600 MBps throughput?

A

SATA 3.0

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57
Q

Which version of SATA has up to 16 Gbps, 2000 MBps throughput?

A

SATA 3.2 (SATAe)

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58
Q

Which storage drive cable standard was the first standard that supports hot swapping?

A

SATA

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59
Q

Which storage drive cable standard ties drives directly to the PCI Express bus on the motherboard?

A

SATA Express (SATAe)

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60
Q

Each lane of PCIe 3.0 is capable of how much throughput?

A

8 Gbps

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61
Q

T/F: you can’t connect SATA cables into a SATAe port.

A

False

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62
Q

Which storage drive cable standard is used primarily in the server market?

A

Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)

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63
Q

Which storage drive cable standard uses a variety of ribbon cables depending on the version

A

Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)

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64
Q

Which storage drives provide fast and robust storage for servers and storage arrays today?

A

Serial Attached Storage (SAS)

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65
Q

Which SAS version has speeds up to 22.5 Gbps?

A

SAS-4

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66
Q

T/F: SAS controllers also support SATA drives.

A

True

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67
Q

Which standard allows you to connect external drives to the SATA bus?

A

External SATA (eSATA)

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68
Q

External SATA (eSATA) has cable lengths up to what length?

A

2 meters

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69
Q

T/F: eSATA is hot swappable.

A

True

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70
Q

Which standard dissapeared with the advent of USB 3.0?

A

External SATA (eSATA)

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71
Q

What is the cable length for PATA (IDE)?

A

18 inches

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72
Q

What is the cable length for SATA?

A

1 meter

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73
Q

What is the cable length for eSATA?

A

2 meters

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74
Q

Which standard uses 40-pin ribbon cables?

A

Integrated Drive Elecrtonics (IDE): also known as PATA

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75
Q

What kind of power connector does PATA use?

A

Molex

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76
Q

What kind of adapter do you use when you don’t need access to a number of ports at once. Examples: wired Ethernet and optical drives

A

USB Adapters

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77
Q

What does RJ stand for?

A

registered jack

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78
Q

Which RJ connects to a traditional telephone connection?

A

RJ11

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79
Q

Which RJ has connections for two wires?

A

RJ11

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80
Q

Which RJ is standard for UTP connectors?

A

RJ45

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81
Q

Which RJ is used by twisted pair cat 3,5,5e etc?

A

RJ45

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82
Q

Which RJ has connections for up to four pairs and wider than RJ11?

A

RJ45

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83
Q

What are the two standards exists for connecting the UTP cable to the RJ45 connector?

A

T568A and T568B

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84
Q

T/F: It doesn’t matter if you use T568A and T568B as long as you keep it consistent.

A

True

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85
Q

What is the standard Coax connection?

A

F type

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86
Q

Which (2) are fiber connections and half duplex?

A

Straight tip (ST) and Subscriber connector (SC)

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87
Q

What is a fiber connection and full duplex

A

Lucent connector (LC)

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88
Q

What is the most common type of patch panel?

A

Punchdown block

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89
Q

What is a punchdown block also commonly referred as?

A

110-punchdown block

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90
Q

What cables are patch panels used to connect to?

A

fragile solid core cables

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91
Q

What has small metal-lined grooves for individual wires?

A

Punchdown block

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92
Q

What tool is used to make connections to a Punchdown block?

A

A punchdown tool

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93
Q

T/F: Mini A and micro USB A connectors were basically ignored

A

True

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94
Q

microUSB B and miniUSB B connectors connect what?

A

smaller devices such as cameras and smartphones

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95
Q

USB-C is also known as what?

A

Type-C

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96
Q

What does USB-C replace?

A

both A and B plugs of all sizes

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97
Q

Which standard uses 24 pins and can be inserted in either orientation?

A

USB-C

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98
Q

Which standard supports USB 3.1 and Thunderbolt?

A

USB-C

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99
Q

Which standard supplies 5-V and 12-V current for fans and older drives?

A

Molex

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100
Q

Which power standard Can be plugged in upside down but not a good thing?

A

Molex

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101
Q

Current iPhones and most iPads use what port for all physical connectivity?

A

Lightning

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102
Q

Which port is Apple proprietary?

A

Lightning

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103
Q

What is a 9-pin D-shell serial port Also known as a RS232 (recommended standard 232)?

A

DB9

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104
Q

What is Virtual RAM also known as?

A

virtual memory

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105
Q

What uses a portion of the HDD or SDD as memory?

A

Virtual RAM

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106
Q

What saves memory to a page file or swap file?

A

Virtual RAM

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107
Q

In Windows, where can Virtual RAM be found?

A

pagefile.sys and can find it in the root directory of the C: drive

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108
Q

Where is small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) found?

A

laptops

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109
Q

How many pins for DDR3 SO-DIMMS?

A

204 pins

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110
Q

How many pins for DDR4 SO-DIMMS?

A

260 pins

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111
Q

How many pins for DDR5 SO-DIMMS?

A

262 pins

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112
Q

What is the advantage of each newer version of DDR

A

Higher speeds more efficient architecture and around 30 percent lower power consumption

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113
Q

Which DDR has a maximum capacity of 16-GB for each module?

A

Double Data Rate 3 (DDR3)

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114
Q

Which DDR version theoretically up to 512 GB modules, but DIMMs are sold at 64GB max (256GB for enterprise)

A

Double Data Rate 4 (DDR4)

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115
Q

Which DDR has 64GB to 256 GB DIMMs?

A

Double Data Rate 5 (DDR5)

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116
Q

What RAM detects and corrects any time a single bit is flipped on-the-fly?

A

Error correction code (ECC) RAM

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117
Q

T/F: ECC can detect, but not correct, a double bit error.

A

True

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118
Q

T/F: ECC is faster than other types of RAM

A

False

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119
Q

What type of RAM is regular use of ram and not paired with other sticks?

A

Single-channel

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120
Q

Which type of RAM uses two sticks of DDR SDRAM together to increase throughput, requires two identical sticks of DDR and they must snap into two paired slots?

A

Dual-channel

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121
Q

What is the results of getting a hard drive with faster spindle speeds?

A

the faster the drive stores and retrieves data
the more noise and heat is generated

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122
Q

What is the result of excess hard drive heat

A

reduces drive life dramatically

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123
Q

Which hard drive spindle speeds are common?

A

5,400 and 7,200 rpm

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124
Q

Which hard drive spindle speeds are less common?

A

10,000 and 15,000 rpm

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125
Q

How do you mitigate excess hard drive heat?

A

more/better airflow

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126
Q

Which storage drive form factor is mostly used by laptops, but can also be used by desktops and servers?

A

2.5

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127
Q

Which storage drive form factor is only used by desktops and servers?

A

3.5

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128
Q

Which storage communication interfaces (2) uses the PCIe bus lane?

A

Non-volatile Memory Express (NVMe) and Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe)

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129
Q

Which storage communication interface can be a 2.5-inch SATAe connector, but most of the time is a M.2 format?

A

Non-volatile Memory Express (NVMe)

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130
Q

Which storage communication cables have 7 connectors instead of PATA 40?

A

SATA

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131
Q

Which drive connection form factor is a flat form, most motherboards offer two or more of them, and is the current form factor?

A

M.2

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132
Q

Which storage drive form factor is a low profile form but older than M.2?

A

mSATA

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133
Q

Which RAID
1. requires at least two drives
2. any loss of drives results in lost data

A

RAID 0

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134
Q

Which RAID is disk striping where files are split, no redundancy is provided, and should not be done?

A

RAID 0

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135
Q

How much storage do you get from RAID 0

A

all storage between drives

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136
Q

Which RAID is described by disk mirroring; two redundant drives. Safe but slow?

A

RAID 1

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137
Q

What is it called in RAID if you use two separate drive controllers?

A

disk duplexing

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138
Q

What is the advantage to disk duplexing?

A

It is safter and faster than mirroring

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139
Q

Which RAID
1. requires as least two drives
2. can lose 1 drive without losing data

A

RAID 1

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140
Q

How much effective storage do you get from RAID 1?

A

half

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141
Q

Which RAID is disk striping with distributed parity?

A

RAID 5

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142
Q

Which RAID
1. distributes data and parity throughout the drives
2. fastest way to provide data redundancy
3. requires at least 3 drives
4. can lose 1 drive without losing data

A

RAID 5

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143
Q

How much effective storage do you get from RAID 5?

A

-1 drive for parity

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144
Q

Which RAID is referred to as nested, striped mirrors, stripe of mirrors

A

RAID 10

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145
Q

Which RAID
1. multiple RAID levels combined to achieve multiple benefits, including speed, capacity, and reliability
2. lowers efficiency
3. minimum of four drives
4. has up to two failures before data loss

A

RAID 10

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146
Q

How much effective storage do you get from RAID 10?

A

half

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147
Q

Thumb drives, jump drives, and flash drives are collectively known as what?

A

USB flash memory drives

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148
Q

USB thumb drives have what type of connector?

A

standard USB connector

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149
Q

Which storage media has replaced almost all other rewritable removable media?

A

USB thumb drives

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150
Q

What is the generic term for storage used in cameras, smartphones and other devices?

A

Memory cards

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151
Q

What is the oldest removable flash media card standard?

A

CompactFlash (CF)

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152
Q

What comes in two sizes: CFI (3.3 mm thick) and CFII (5 mm thick)?

A

CompactFlash (CF)

153
Q

What are the smaller versions of Secure Digital (SD) cards?

A

mini Secure Digital (miniSD) and micro Secure Digital (microSD)

154
Q

Where are SD cards commonly found?

A

Cameras

155
Q

Where is microSD commonly found?

A

in devices where small size is an advantage

156
Q

What are SD cards that can store 4 MB to 4 GB?

A

Standard SD cards

157
Q

What are SD cards that can store 4GB to 32 GB?

A

Secure Digital High Capacity (SDHC)

158
Q

What are SD cards that can store 32 GB to 2 TB?

A

Secure Digital Extended Capacity (SDXC)

159
Q

Which SD generation has speeds classes: 2, 4, 6 and 10 indicates the cards minimum MB/s write speed?

A

first generation

160
Q

Which SD generation has the Ultra High Speed (UHS) bus and can use the UHS Speed Class standard?

A

second generation

161
Q

Class U1 cards (second generation SD) should both read and write at what speed?

A

a min of 10 MB/s

162
Q

U3 cards (second generation SD) should read and write at what speed?

A

a minimum of 30 MB/s

163
Q

Which SD generation is the Video Speed Class?

A

third generation

164
Q

The SD Video Speed Class supports what resolutions?

A

4K and 8K

165
Q

The SD Video Speed Class V6 runs at what speed?

A

6 MB/s

166
Q

The SD Video Speed Class V90 runs at what speed?

A

90 MB/s

167
Q

Which SD class is used for smartphones?

A

Application Performance Class

168
Q

The SD Application Performance Class A1 and A2 supports what speed?

A

minimum of 10 MB/s sustained write

169
Q

The SD Application Performance Class A1 supports how many IOPS?

A

1500 IOPS while reading
500 IOPS while writing

170
Q

What does IOPS stand for?

A

input/output operations per second

171
Q

The SD Application Performance Class A2 supports how many IOPS?

A

4000 IOPS reading
2000 IOPS while writing

172
Q

What is the solution for when Apple stopped including optical drives on their laptops?

A

Remote disks allows you to stream optical media from another computer

173
Q

What is the optical format for music where the disk is separated into variable-length tracks?

A

CD-Digital Audio (CDDA) or CD-audio

174
Q

What is the issue for CD-Digital Audio (CDDA) or CD-audio?

A

lacks advanced error checking, file support, or directory structure

175
Q

What is the purpose of CD-ROM?

A

storing data

176
Q

How is the speed for CD-ROM designated?

A

speeds are multiplied from the original 150-KBps speed (2x = 300 KBps)

177
Q

What device allowed consumers to write to CD-R and CD-RW?

A

CD burner

178
Q

What are the different types of CD-Rs and what are their capacities

A

74-minute disc that holds approx 650 MB
80-minute disk that holds 700 MB

179
Q

T/F: CD-Rs has separate read and write speeds

A

True

180
Q

What are the three speed values for CD-RW?

A

write, rewrite and read

181
Q

What is the purpose of CD-RW drives?

A

allows you to burn over existing data on a CD-RW disk

182
Q

What optical media had >4.37 GB of data, two hours of standard definition video?

A

DVD

183
Q

which DVD format has 4.37 GB > 2 hours of video?

A

DVD-5 (12 cm, SS/SL)

184
Q

What are the different DVD formats?

A

single/double sided formats and single/dual-layer formats

185
Q

which DVD format has 7.95 GB >4 hours of video?

A

DVD-9 (12 cm, SS/DL)

186
Q

which DVD format has 8.74 GB >4.5 hours of video?

A

DVD-10 (12 cm, DS/SL)

187
Q

which DVD format has 15.90 GB >8 hours of video?

A

DVD-18 (12 cm, DS/DL)

188
Q

Which standard is the dvd equivalent of the standard cd-rom except it can store almost 16 GB of data?

A

DVD-ROM

189
Q

What are the recordable DVD formats?

A

DVD-R, DVD-RW and DVD-RW DL

190
Q

Which optical media format has 25 GB (single-layer), 50 GB (dual-layer) and 100GB (BDXL)?

A

Blu-ray

191
Q

T/F: BD-ROM: drives are fully backward compatable with DVD-video and CD-ROM formats

A

True

192
Q

Which motherboard form factor was created in 1995?

A

Advanced Technology eXtended (ATX)

193
Q

Which motherboard form factor is the most common form factor?

A

Advanced Technology eXtended (ATX)

194
Q

Which motherboard form factor has rear panel that has all the ports built in?

A

Advanced Technology eXtended (ATX)

195
Q

Which motherboard form factor is 12 by 9.6 inches?

A

Full sized Advanced Technology eXtended (ATX)

196
Q

Which motherboard form factor is 9.6 by 9.6 inches?

A

microATX

197
Q

Which form factor did not catch on, but the mini form did?

A

Information Technology eXtended (ITX)

198
Q

Which motherboard form factor is 6.7 x 6.7 inches?

A

mini-ITX

199
Q

Which motherboard form factor is low power usage and low heat?

A

mini-ITX

200
Q

What are the seven steps for installing a motherboard?

A
  1. watch out for ESD
  2. Remove the old motherboard, if applicable
  3. Place the standoffs in the correct position for the new motherboard
  4. connect LEDs, buttons, and front mounted ports
  5. Install CPU, RAM and fans
  6. screw the motherboard in with appropriate screws
  7. Insert the power connects and test
201
Q

Which motherboard connector type:
1. released to open domain
2. 32 bits wide running at 33 Mhz
3. self-configuring (plug-and-play)

A

Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)

202
Q

Which motherboard connection type uses a point-to-point serial connection instead of PCI’s shared parallel communications?

A

PCI Express (PCIe)

203
Q

With PCIe 1.x, each lane provides how many gigatransfers per second?

A

2.5

204
Q

With PCIe 2.x, each lane provides how many gigatransfers per second?

A

5

205
Q

With PCIe 3.x, each lane provides how many gigatransfers per second?

A

8

206
Q

With PCIe 4.0, each lane provides how many gigatransfers per second?

A

16

207
Q

Which PCI standard is often used for video cards, and it is the most common PCIe?

A

PCIe x16

208
Q

Which PCI standard is also common for non-video card needs?

A

PCIe x1

209
Q

What are 4 PCIe installation notes?

A
  1. PCIe slot may be wired for fewer lanes than its size suggests
  2. some motherboards don’t have enough lanes for each slot to use its max at the same time
  3. Lower PCIe versions have less bandwidth, and motherboards may have multiple versions. CPUs can also limit available versions
  4. PCIe lanes can also be used by other things on the board such as network interfaces, newer generations of USB, Thunderbolt, and M.2
210
Q

What is the 5 step PCIe installation process?

A
  1. Knowledge: learn whether the device works with the system and operating system. Does it require drivers?
  2. Physical Installation: avoid ESD; place the card firmly and completely into a slot; secure with case screw
  3. Always unplug a PC before inserting an expansion card
  4. Device Drivers: all devices require BIOS. For expansion cards, the BIOS comes in the form of device drivers.
  5. Verification: check device manager and then test the device
211
Q

Which motherboard power connector voltage rating provides current to power motors on devices such as hard drives and optical drives?

A

12V

212
Q

Which motherboard power connector voltage rating provides current for on-board electronics?

A

3.3 and 5V

213
Q

Which motherboard power connector supplies power to the motherboard?

A

20- or 24 pin P1 power connector

214
Q

Motherboards may require what in addition to the 20- or 24 pin P1 power connector?

A

4- 6- or 8-pin connectors

215
Q

Which motherboard power connector supplies power for fans and older drives?

A

Molex: 5-V and 12-V

216
Q

Which motherboard power connector was originally needed for floppy drives?

A

Mini connector: 5V and 12V

217
Q

Which motherboard power standard introduced motherboard power connector and soft power? Used 20-pin P1 motherboard power connector.

A

ATX

218
Q

Which motherboard power standard came out in 2003, included a 4-pin motherboard power connector referred to as the P4 power connector?

A

ATX12V 1.3

219
Q

What was the purpose of the ATX12V 4-pin connector?

A

provides more 12-V power to assist the 20/24 pin P1 motherboard power connector

220
Q

ATX12V 1.3 also included a 6-pin auxiliary connector. What was its purpose?

A

to supply increased 3.3- and 5-V to motherboard

221
Q

Which motherboard power standard specifically addressed power hungry motherboards?

A

EPS12V

222
Q

Which motherboard power standard has 24-pin main motherboard conector, aux connector, ATX12V P4 connector and unique 8-pin connector?

A

EPS12V

223
Q

What technology was used to increase 12V, 5V, and 3.3V output?

A

multiple rails

224
Q

Which motherboard power standard uses a 24-pin connector, may include 8-pin CPU power connector, and includes PCI express 6/8-pin connectors?

A

ATX12V 2.0

225
Q

Where can you find the eSATA connector?

A

look for red connector on back of PC

226
Q

What are internal connectors to plug in cables for additional external ports, such as the USB on the front of cases?

A

Headers

227
Q

How do you install an M.2 drive

A

Plug it in and secure with a screw

228
Q

Identify this socket:
Intel –> Core i3/i5/i7, Xeon (Skylake, Kaby Lake, Cascade Lake)

A

LGA 2066

229
Q

Identify this socket:
Intel –> Core i5/i7/i9, Xeon (Comet Lake, Rocket Lake)

A

LGA 1200

230
Q

Identify this socket:
Intel –> Core i5/i7/i9, Xeon (Alder Lake)

A

LGA 1700

231
Q

Identify this socket:
AMD –> Ryzen

A

AM4

232
Q

Identify this socket:
AMD –> Ryzen Threadripper

A

TR4

233
Q

Identify this socket:
AMD –> AMD Zen 4

A

AM5

234
Q

What are the three steps of installing a CPU?

A
  1. Don’t bend any of the tiny pins on the CPU or socket
  2. Make sure the power supply can supply enough electricity for the processor + all other components
  3. Provide adequate cooling
235
Q

Which processors do servers typically have?

A

Intel Xeon or AMD EPYC

236
Q

What processors do mainstream desktops usually have?

A

Core i3/i5/i7 or Ryzen 5/7

237
Q

What processors do phones typically have?

A

ARM

238
Q

T/F: The terms CMOS setup program/utility, CMOS, system setup, BIOS/UEFI setup utlity, BIOS/UEFI settings, or UEFI firmware settings, and system setup utility are functionally interchangeable today

A

True

239
Q

What is the purpose of secure boot?

A

secures the boot process by requiring properly signed software

240
Q

What does secure boot require?

A

requires an Intel CPU, a UEFI BIOS, and an operating system designed for it

241
Q

What needs to be signed for secure boot to work?

A

boot software and software that supports specific, essential components

242
Q

What is secure boot protecting you from?

A

malware during the boot process

243
Q

How does secure boot perform its job?

A

runs a signature check of each piece of boot software, UEFI drivers and checks the core operating system files

244
Q

When is it best to use a boot password?

A

Public computers, such as computer kiosks at a convention or systems at a public library

245
Q

What acts as a secure cryptoprocessor, a hardware platform for the acceleration of cryptographic functions and secure storage of associated information?

A

TPM

246
Q

Where does the TPM spec come from?

A

Trusted computing group

247
Q

How is the TPM integrated with the rest of the computer?

A

can be a circuit on the motherboard or can be built directly into the chipset

248
Q

What is the TPM used for?

A

disk encryption, DRM, network access control, application execution control, and password protection

249
Q

When is a TPM a Hardware security module (HSM)?

A

When it is integrated into the motherboard

250
Q

What is the processor architecture made by the Intel Corporation?

A

x86-64

251
Q

What is the primary benefit to selecting a 64-bit processor?

A

to support more than 4GB of memory

252
Q

How does ARM make processors?

A

ARM licenses it’s ARM architecture to other companies to make processors

253
Q

What are the benefits of an ARM processor?

A

incredibly energy efficient/low heat and has great processing power

254
Q

T/F: ARM processors are typically integrated into the motherboard

A

True

255
Q

What is the typical speed limit of single-core processors

A

roughly 4 Ghz

256
Q

What is it called when many processing cores that share caches and RAM?

A

Multicore

257
Q

Multithreading is also known as:

A

Hyperthreading

258
Q

What are the two limitations of Multithreading

A

OS and application must support it
Though the CPU acts like 2 processors, it doesn’t double processing power since main execution resources are not duplicated

259
Q

What is the technology where support is built into the CPU for running more than one operating system at a time?

A

Virtualization support

260
Q

What is it called when motherboards come with sound support

A

built in sound

261
Q

A computer that needs more robust sound capabilities, such as a recording studio computer, would use what?

A

dedicated sound expansion card

262
Q

What color is the main speaker out jack?

A

green

263
Q

What is the purpose of the line out jack?

A

often used to connect to an external devices such as a DVD or MP3 player to output sounds from the computer

264
Q

What is the purpose of the line in jack?

A

connects to an external devices such as a DVD or MP3 player to import sounds to the computer

265
Q

What color is the line in jack?

A

blue

266
Q

What is the purpose of the analog/digital out?

A

multifunction analog/digital out jack acts as a special digital connection to external digital devices/speakers and also acts as the analog connection to center and subwoofer channels.

267
Q

What color is the microphone jack?

A

pink

268
Q

What is the purpose of Sony/Philips Digital Interface (S/PDIF or SPDIF)?

A

connects sound card directly to 5.1 speaker system or receiver

269
Q

What is the primary benefit of Sony/Philips Digital Interface (S/PDIF or SPDIF)?

A

simplifies sound setup

270
Q

Sony/Philips Digital Interface (S/PDIF or SPDIF) comes in what two types?

A

optical and coaxial

271
Q

Where do you configure sound?

A

with the sound applet/preferences (in control panel for Windows; System Preferences in MacOS)

272
Q

In addition to plugging into the motherboard, what else do graphics cards often require?

A

dedicated power

273
Q

What are the 3 issues commonly encountered when installing a graphics card?

A

long cards, proximity of the nearest expansion card, and the presence of power connectors

274
Q

What is the purpose of a capture card?

A

connects one or more video connectors to record, stream or watch video from another video source

275
Q

T/F: capture cards often often supports passthrough for simultaneous viewing

A

True

276
Q

Heat sinks alone are considered what kind of cooling?

A

Passive

277
Q

Heat sinks with a fan are considered what kind of cooling?

A

Active

278
Q

T/F: many heat sinks come with some thermal paste already on them

A

True

279
Q

What is the process of applying thermal paste?

A

only use a little bit and then spread it around thinly and evenly

280
Q

What are the three parts of a liquid cooling system?

A
  1. a hollow metal block on the CPU
  2. A pump to move the liquid around
  3. Some device to cool the liquid
281
Q

Where would you use 110-120 VAC power?

A

US

282
Q

Where would you use 220-240 VAC power?

A

Anywhere not US

283
Q

How do you change power input from 110-120 VAC to 220-240 VAC?

A

There is a switch in the back of the power supply to select the correct power

284
Q

What is it called where two identical RPS power supplies are used in a server?

A

Redundant power supply

285
Q

What is the purpose of redundant power supplies?

A

Electrical load is shared between them aka: load balancing

286
Q

What is the benefit to a modular power supply?

A
  1. Removable cables
  2. Improves optics and airflow
287
Q

Why do we check a power supplies Wattage rating?

A

Make sure a power supply can supply power to all components

288
Q

T/F: Power supplies convert all of the power supplied for internal components

A

False

289
Q

What do we check to see how much power supplied to the power supply is transferred to internal components

A

efficiency rating

290
Q

Which programs rates power supplies from 80-94 percent efficiency and gives them a bronze, gold, titanium rating?

A

80 plus programs

291
Q

What are multifunction devices/printers setup location considerations?

A

convenient for everyone who needs to use it (not in hallway or person’s office)
good power and ventillation

292
Q

What are multifunction devices/printers unboxing considerations?

A

Read the instructions included with the device
Make sure all packaging that must be removed from the device is removed

293
Q

What is the most common mistake setting up printers?

A

selecting the wrong driver

294
Q

Which printer driver is a device-independent printer language capable of high-res graphics and scalable fonts?

A

PostScript

295
Q

Which printer driver has the majority of image processing done by printers?

A

PostScript

296
Q

PostScript vs PCL: Which has printers print faster?

A

Postscript

297
Q

Which printer driver defines files as a raster image?

A

Postscript

298
Q

Which printer driver is a set of printer commands greatly expanded from ASCII?

A

PCL

299
Q

Which printer driver has text-based output in mind, though it does support graphics?

A

PCL

300
Q

What is the most recent version of PCL?

A

PCL6

301
Q

What are the features of PCL6?

A

scalable fonts and additional line-drawing commands

302
Q

What is the main disadvantage of PCL?

A

PCL uses commands, and these commands must be supported by each printer model. This makes it less portable.

303
Q

T/F: when adding a printer in Windows, installing a local printer does not add networked printers.

A

False. Installing a Local Printer is used to install standalone network printers using an IP address

304
Q

What do most wired printers use to connect?

A

a USB type A to USB type B connector

305
Q

T/F: Wireless printers should use ad hoc connections for easy configuration.

A

False. Avoid ad hoc connections for security

306
Q

T/F: Most network printers come with an integrated 802.11 WiFi adapter

A

True

307
Q

What are the steps for setting up a printer share?

A
  1. Assumes the system has printer sharing services loaded
  2. Go to devices and printers settings in the control panel
  3. right-click the name of the printer you want to share
  4. select printer properties (not Printers)
  5. select the sharing tab
  6. Click “share this printer”, add a share name, and click OK or Apply
308
Q

If you want to use a printer on the network, but it doens’t have ethernet or WiFi, what do you do?

A

Buy a print server to connect it to the network

309
Q

What are the 4 considerations for using a print server?

A
  1. May not be able to use all the features of an MFD on a print server
  2. Check if your router has an integrated print server
  3. Plug printer into USB port on print server
  4. Print servers aren’t necessarily standalone devices. Windows systems can be a print server to
310
Q

What resolution setting makes decent images from a scanner?

A

2400 x 2400 dpi or better

311
Q

What color setting makes decent images from a scanner?

A

48-bit or better

312
Q

With scanner color depth, each bit adds how much additional information?

A

it doubles the color detail

313
Q

What scanner feature simplifies selecting quality settings?

A

graphic or text setting presets

314
Q

Printer/scanner user authentication works with what other system?

A

Windows domains

315
Q

Having some people only able to print black and white is an example of what?

A

User authentication security

316
Q

What are three considerations for securing printer/scanner data?

A
  1. sensitive data may be cached on the printer’s drive
  2. common to remove this feature or schedule deletion of cache
  3. user authentication on the printer prevents people from changing these settings
317
Q

Where is it common to use badging on printers/scanners?

A

For photocopy to prevent copying and stealing information

318
Q

What kind of badging technology is commonly used for printers/scanners?

A

NFT

319
Q

Where can you find printer/scanner logs?

A

often reside in the printer itself, but may also work with Windows Event Viewer or Linux Syslog

320
Q

How does secured printers work?

A
  1. user enters a password or PIN before the print job starts
  2. job does not automatically print
  3. user must enter the passcode again at the printer
321
Q

If you use SMB as a network scan service, where do you find your scanned image?

A

in a networked folder

322
Q

How can using SMB as a network scan service be a security concern?

A

when older version of the protocol is supported

323
Q

What is an imaging drum?

A

aluminum cylinder coated with particles of photosensitive compounds.

324
Q

What is a fuser assembly?

A

Sticks the toner to the paper

325
Q

Where can you find the fuser assembly?

A
  1. almost always separate from the toner cartridge
  2. Usually close to the bottom of the toner cartridge and has two rollers to fuse the toner
326
Q

What is the transfer belt?

A

Allows the printer to print multiple colors at one time on the paper

327
Q

What is the transfer roller (transfer corona)?

A

Transfers image from the drum to the paper

328
Q

What are the pickup rollers?

A

picks up paper from the tray

329
Q

What are the separation pads?

A

separates paper picked up by the tray

330
Q

What is the duplexing assembly?

A

reverses the paper for two-sided printing

331
Q

What is the imaging processing step where CPU processes the image and sends it to the printer where the printer finishes processing?

A

processing

332
Q

What is the imaging processing step where to make the drum receptive to new images, primary corona wire or primary charge roller applies negative charge to the entire surface of the drum?

A

charging

333
Q

What is the imaging processing step where a laser creates a positive image on the surface of the drum?

A

exposing

334
Q

What is the imaging processing step where lesser negative charge parts of the drum attracts toner particles?

A

developing

335
Q

What is the imaging processing step where transfer corona or transfer roller gives the paper a positive charge and negative charged toner leaps onto the paper?

A

transferring

336
Q

What is the imaging processing step where toner particles are melted to the paper?

A

fusing

337
Q

What is the imaging processing step where a rubber cleaning blade scrapes the drum.

A

cleaning

338
Q

What is your ultimate source of replacement printer parts?

A

the printer manufacturer

339
Q

When should you clean a printer

A

each time you replace the toner cartridge

340
Q

How do you clean a printer

A
  1. clean excess toner, paper dust (paper dander)
  2. use compressed air (outside) or an low static vacuum (toner vac)
  3. clean rubber guide rollers. clean with 90% or better denatured alcohol
  4. each printer has its own cleaning method
  5. don’t scratch the drum
  6. clean ozone, follow the manufacturer’s recommendation
  7. clean fuser & transfer corona with 90% or better denatured alcohol
341
Q

What are included in manufacturer’s maintenance kits for printers?

A

typically includes replacement parts such as a fuser, rollers and pads

342
Q

What is the purpose of printer calibration

A

ensures the quality of color prints

343
Q

What is the purpose of printer calibration registration?

A

ensure that each color prints in the correct location

344
Q

What is the purpose of printer color calibration?

A

ensures that the printer lays down the right amount of each color

345
Q

When do you replace toner?

A

when your printer says to do it

346
Q

T/F: If an inkjet is used within parameters, does not require much maintenance

A

True

347
Q

T/F: Most inkjet manufacturers recommend periodic cleaning

A

False

348
Q

What part of an inkjet printer contains the ink?

A

Ink cartridge

349
Q

What part of an inkjet printer is connected to a carriage that contains the ink?

A

print head

350
Q

What part of an inkjet printer grabs paper from a paper tray?

A

roller

351
Q

What part of an inkjet printer advances pages through the feeder?

A

feeder

352
Q

What part of an inkjet printer allows two sided printing?

A

duplexing assembly

353
Q

What part of an inkjet printer moves the carriage (printheads) back and forth so ink can cover the page?

A

carriage belt

354
Q

How do you clean inkjet heads

A
  1. water works better than denatured alcohol to clean them
  2. older printers you could start cleaning process via a printer button or menu
  3. current inkjets have a maintenance program built into Windows
  4. only recommended when there is a problem, because it uses a lot of ink
  5. best maintenance is to print regularly. If you don’t have anything real to print, print a test page
355
Q

How do you replace inkjet cartridges

A

pretty easy, but the exact process can differ. Reference the documentation

356
Q

How do you calibrate inkjet printers?

A

can be done anytime from the printer maintenance software

357
Q

What causes injet printer jams?

A

can be caused by humidity or printer overheating causing pages to stick together

358
Q

What thermal printer component burns dots into the surface of the heat-sensitive thermal paper?

A

heating element

359
Q

T/F: retail businesses don’t use feed assemblies in their thermal printers

A

False. many retail businesses still use thermal paper for receipts, using large rolls of thermal paper housed in a feed assembly.

360
Q

How do you replace thermal printer paper

A

slide off the old roll and replace it with a new one. Remember to feed the paper through the heating element

361
Q

How do you clean thermal printer’s heating element

A
  1. turn off the thermal printer and open it according to manufacturer’s instructions
  2. use denatured alcohol and a lint-free cloth to wipe off the heating element
362
Q

How do you remove debris from thermal printers

A

clean rollers with a cloth and compressed air to remove debris

363
Q

Which impact printer component is the case that holds the printwires?

A

print head

364
Q

Which impact printer component is inked paper that the printer strikes to produce images on paper

A

ribbon

365
Q

Which impact printer component is dot-matrix continuous feed paper with holes on the side

A

tractor feed

366
Q

Which impact printer component is special paper that can print receipts in duplicate, triplicate, or more

A

Impact paper

367
Q

What do you do if an impact printer print covered with dots and small smudges

A

clean platen with denatured alcohol

368
Q

What do you do if characters degraded or grown faint over time and the impact printer used frequently.

A

Printhead may be wearing out, replace it

369
Q

What do you do if an impact printer print covered with dots and small smudges?

A

try adjusting printhead closer to the platen

370
Q

What do you do if an impact printer print is ok on one side of paper but fades on the other?

A

platen is out of adjustment, take to repair center/warranty repair

371
Q

What do you do if an impact printer prints white lines through text?

A

points to dirty print head. if you have problems, try cleaning the printhead with denatured alcohol. if that doesn’t fix the problem, replace the print head.

372
Q

What do you do if an impact printer characters look chopped off at top or bottom

A

printhead needs to be adjusted. Refer to manufacturer’s instructions

373
Q

How do you replace impact printer paper

A

swap the roll of paper/move the new ream into position, then feed the new paper

374
Q

What is the farthest and the fastest a single mode fiber optical cable has traveled?

A

319 terabits per second up to 1800 miles

375
Q

Which two pieces of hardware allows you to switch features on or off such as wireless networking, cellular networking, and bluetooth?

A

-Hardware Switches
-Function keys

376
Q

What are the benefits to using hardware switches/function keys to turn off wifi, cellular, GPS and/or bluetooth?

A

To save battery life

377
Q

What should you look for if you are getting numbers when you are expecting to get letters?

A

The number lock function key is turned on

378
Q

What are special keys used on many laptops that enable some keys to perform a third duty?

A

Function Keys

A+ (10 decks)

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