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Turgeon 6th > 29 > Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. The anatomical structures associated with the circulation of CSF are
    A. ventricles and subarachnoid spaces
    B. subarachnoid space and pia mater
    C. ependyma and pia mater
    D. arachnoid mater and pia mater
A

A. ventricles and subarachnoid spaces

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2
Q

*2. CSF production is associated with the
A. arachnoid mater and pia mater
B. choroid plexus and ependymal lining
C. arachnoid mater and subarachnoid space
D. subarachnoid space and pia mater

A

B. choroid plexus and ependymal lining

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3
Q

*3. CSF is collected from an intervertebral space between the
_ and
vertebrae.
A. T4, T5
B. L2, L3
C. L3, L4
D. L4, L5

A

D. L4, L5

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4
Q
  1. Tube 1 is commonly used for
    A. gross examination, cell counting, and morphology examination
    B. microbial examination
    C. chemical and serological examination
    D. a discard tube
A

C. chemical and serological examination

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5
Q
  1. Tube 2 is commonly used for
    A. gross examination, cell counting, and morphology examination
    B. microbial examination
    C. chemical and serological examination
    D. a discard tube
A

B. microbial examination

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6
Q
  1. Tube 3 or the final tube is commonly used for
    A. gross examination, cell counting, and morphology examination
    B. microbial examination
    C. chemical and serological examination
    D. a discard tube
A

A. gross examination, cell counting, and morphology examination

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7
Q
  1. A cloudy and turbid specimen is most commonly caused by
    A. increased fibrinogen
    B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
    C. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hours after the bleed)
    D. increased numbers of leukocytes
A

D. increased numbers of leukocytes

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8
Q

*8. A grossly bloody specimen is most commonly caused by
A. increased fibrinogen
B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hours after the bleed)
D. pleocytosis

A

B. subarachnoid hemorrhage

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9
Q

*8. A grossly bloody specimen is most commonly caused by
A. increased fibrinogen
B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hours after the bleed)
D. pleocytosis

A

B. subarachnoid hemorrhage

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10
Q
  1. A xanthochromic (yellow color) specimen is most commonly caused by
    A. increased fibrinogen
    B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
    C. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hr bleed)
    D. pleocytosis
A

C. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hr bleed)

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11
Q
  1. Gel formation in a specimen is most commonly caused by
    A. increased fibrinogen
    B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
    C. subarachnoid hemorrhage (more than 12 hours after the bleed)
    D. pleocytosis
A

A. increased fibrinogen

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12
Q

*11. Intraventricular rupture of brain abscess is associated with
A. lymphocytosis
B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs)
C. macrophages
D. extremely elevated leukocyte count in CSF

A

D. extremely elevated leukocyte count in CSF

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13
Q

*12. Viral infection is associated with
A. lymphocytosis
B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs)
C. macrophages
D. extremely elevated leukocyte count in CSF
E. normal leukocyte reference range for CSF

A

A. lymphocytosis

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14
Q
  1. A leukocyte count of 0 to 5 x 10^6/L is associated with
    A. lymphocytosis
    B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs)
    C. macrophages
    D. normal leukocyte reference range for CSF
A

D. normal leukocyte reference range for CSF

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15
Q

*14. Bacterial infection is associated with
A. lymphocytosis
B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs) in CSF
C. macrophages
D. normal leukocyte reference range for CSF

A

B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs) in CSF

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16
Q

*15. CNS leukemia or lymphoma is associated with
A. lymphocytosis
B. increased polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils (PMNs)
C. macrophages
D. extremely elevated leukocyte count in CSF

A

C. macrophages

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17
Q
  1. Normal CSF contains
    A. lymphocytes and ependymal cells
    B. ependymal and choroidal cells
    C. mesothelial and ependymal cells
    D. erythrocytes and leukocytes
A

A. lymphocytes and ependymal cells

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18
Q
  1. The cell count on a CSF specimen should be performed within _ of collection.
    A. 30 minutes
    B. 1 hour
    c. 2 hours
    D. 12 hours
    E. 22 hours
A

B. 1 hour

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19
Q
  1. Clotting in CSF may be caused by

A. increased protein concentration
B. increased electrolyte concentration
C. increased glucose concentration
D. the presence of bacteria

A

A. increased protein concentration

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20
Q
  1. An increased total leukocyte count in a CSF specimen can be caused by

A. bacterial meningitis
B. viral meningoencephalitis
C. intravascular rupture of a brain abscess
D. both A and C

A

D. both A and C

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21
Q
  1. An increase in the number of lymphocytes in a CSF specimen can be caused by

A. multiple sclerosis
B. viral meningoencephalitis
C. fungal meningitis
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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22
Q
  1. Based on the information in case 29.1, the observation of cloudy
    CSF samples suggests

A. normal condition of a CSF specimen
B. viral infection of the meninges
C. parasitic infection of the brain
D. bacterial infection present

A

D. bacterial infection present

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23
Q
  1. Based on the information in case 29.1, the differential diagnosis for the patient could be

A. multiple sclerosis
B. acute brain hemorrhage
C. pulmonary embolism
D. bacterial meningitis

A

D. bacterial meningitis

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) characteristic of an effusion?

A. Abnormal accumulation of fluid
B. Can be a transudate
C. Can be an exudate
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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25
24. A transudate can be described as A. specific gravity greater than 1.016, low to moderate number of leukocytes, and lactic dehydrogenase less than 200 IU/L B. specific gravity less than 1.016, pH 7.4 to 7.5, and lactic dehydrogenase less than 200 IU/L C. pH 7.35 to 7.45 and protein concentration greater than 3.0 g/dL D. lactic dehydrogenase less than 200 IU/L and protein concentration greater than 3.0 g/dL
B. specific gravity less than 1.016, pH 7.4 to 7.5, and lactic dehydrogenase less than 200 IU/L
26
25. Pleura A. covers abdominal walls and viscera of the abdomen B. covers the lungs C. is a fibrous sac around the heart D. is lining of the spinal cord
B. covers the lungs
27
26. Peritoneum A. covers abdominal walls and viscera of the abdomen B. covers the lungs C. is a fibrous sac around the heart D. is lining of the spinal cord
A. covers abdominal walls and viscera of the abdomen
28
27. Pericardium A. covers abdominal walls and viscera of the abdomen B. covers the lungs C. is a fibrous sac around the heart D. is lining of the spinal cord
C. is a fibrous sac around the heart
29
28. Conditions not associated with pleural effusion include A. tuberculosis B. infectious diseases C. mesothelioma D. viral pneumonia
D. viral pneumonia
30
29. Yellow and turbid is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with A. empyema B. infectious process C. anaerobic bacterial infection D. chylothorax
B. infectious process
31
30. Milky is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with A. empyema B. infectious process C. anaerobic bacterial infection D. chylothorax
D. chylothorax
32
31. Bloody is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with A. empyema B. infectious process C. anaerobic bacterial infection D. malignancy in the absence of trauma
D. malignancy in the absence of trauma
33
32. Clearly visible pus is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with A. empyema B. infectious process C. anaerobic bacterial infection D. malignancy in the absence of trauma
A. empyema
34
33. Foul odor is a representative exudate appearance typically associated with A. empyema B. infectious process C. anaerobic bacterial infection D. chylothorax
C. anaerobic bacterial infection
35
34. Pleural fluid can have a white supernatant fluid after centrifugation owing to A. increased concentration of leukocytes B. presence of lipids C. presence of chylomicrons D. both A and B
C. presence of chylomicrons
36
35. An extremely elevated leukocyte concentration in pleural fluid is typically associated with A. hemothorax B. malignancy C. empyema D. classic rheumatoid effusion
C. empyema
37
36. Which of the following cells can be seen in pleural fluid? A. LE cells B. Mononuclear phagocytes C. Mesothelial cells D. All of the above
D. All of the above
38
37. All of the following describe the characteristics of malignant cells except A. multiple round aggregates of cells B. high N:C ratio C. large, irregular nucleoli D. smooth chromatin
D. smooth chromatin
39
38. Many neutrophils, histiocytes, and mesothelial cells are associated with (a) A. viral infection B. acute bacterial inflammation C. metastatic adenocarcinoma D. malignant mesothelioma
B. acute bacterial inflammation
40
39. Abundant, multinuclear cells and clusters of cells are associated with a(n) A. viral infection B. acute bacterial inflammation C. metastatic adenocarcinoma D. chronic granulomatous inflammation
C. metastatic adenocarcinoma
41
40. Many malignant cells (in clusters) are associated with a(n) A. viral infection B. acute bacterial inflammation C. metastatic adenocarcinoma D. malignant mesothelioma
D. malignant mesothelioma
42
41. Many lymphocytes, mesothelial cells, histiocytes, and plasma cells are associated with a(n) A. viral infection B. acute bacterial inflammation C. malignant mesothelioma D. chronic granulomatous inflammation
A. viral infection
43
42 and 43. In a pleural effusion, the percentage of ______ is extremely high in pneumonia and the percentage of ______ is extremely high in viral peritonitis. 42. A. polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils B. eosinophils C. basophils D. monocytes 43. A. polymorphonuclear segmented neutrophils B. eosinophils C. basophils D. lymphocytes
42. A 43. D
44
44. The causes of peritoneal effusion include all of the following except A. bacterial peritonitis B. hepatic cirrhosis C. congestive heart failure D. tuberculosis
D. tuberculosis
45
45. An abnormal-appearing peritoneal effusion can be caused by all of the following except A. bacterial peritonitis B. pancreatitis C. neoplasm D. tuberculous peritonitis
D. tuberculous peritonitis
46
46. The peritoneal effusion color of pale yellow is associated with A. normal B. pulmonary infarct C. congestive heart failure D. sepsis
A. normal
47
47. The peritoneal effusion color of straw colored is associated with A. normal B. pulmonary infarct C. congestive heart failure D. sepsis
C. congestive heart failure
48
48. The peritoneal effusion color of bloody is associated with A. normal B. pulmonary infarct C. congestive heart failure D. sepsis
B. pulmonary infarct
49
49. An extremely increased leukocyte concentration in peritoneal fluid can be caused by A. bacterial peritonitis B. pancreatitis C. cirrhosis D. none of the above
A. bacterial peritonitis
50
50. Eosinophils are associated with A. chronic peritoneal dialysis B. congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome C. tuberculous peritonitis
A. chronic peritoneal dialysis
51
51. Lymphocytes are associated with A. chronic peritoneal dialysis B. congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome C. tuberculous peritonitis
B. congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome
52
52. Mesothelial cells are associated with A. chronic peritoneal dialysis B. congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome C. tuberculous peritonitis D. coxsackie group viruses
C. tuberculous peritonitis
53
53. Infectious agents are associated with A. rheumatic disease B. mesothelioma C. Dressler’s postinfarction syndrome D. coxsackie group viruses
D. coxsackie group viruses
54
54. Collagen vascular disease is associated with A. rheumatic disease B. mesothelioma C. Dressler’s postinfarction syndrome D. coxsackie group viruses
A. rheumatic disease
55
55. Neoplastic disease is associated with A. rheumatic disease B. mesothelioma C. Dressler’s postinfarction syndrome D. coxsackie group viruses
B. mesothelioma
56
56. A cause of an increased concentration of cells in pericardial fluid is A. microbial infection B. malignancy C. congestive heart failure D. both A and B
D. both A and B
57
57. Testicles are associated with A. fructose and prostaglandins B. unknown C. sperm D. p30 glycoprotein
C. sperm
58
58. Seminal vesicles are associated with A. fructose and prostaglandins B. unknown C. sperm D. p30 glycoprotein
A. fructose and prostaglandins
59
59. Prostate gland is associated with A. fructose and prostaglandins B. unknown C. sperm D. p30 glycoprotein
D. p30 glycoprotein
60
60. Cowper glands are associated with A. fructose and prostaglandins B. unknown C. sperm D. p30 glycoprotein
B. unknown
61
61. Sperm motility can become decreased if the specimen is A. stored at room temperature B. stored in a plastic container for more than 1 hour C. examined after 2 hours of storage D. all of the above
D
62
62. The normal value of sperm cells is ______ × 10^9/L. A. 15 to 30 B. 30 to 45 C. 30 to 60 D. 60 to 150
D. 60 to 150
63
63. The reference value for sperm motility (fresh specimen) is A. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed) B. test for infectious disease C. prostatitis or sperm-agglutinating antibodies D. greater than 60%
D. greater than 60
64
64. The reference value for sperm morphology is A. at least 50% B. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed) C. test for infectious disease D. greater than 60%
B. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed)
65
65. The reference value for sperm agglutination is A. at least 50% B. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed) C. test for infectious disease D. greater than 60%
A. at least 50%
66
66. A consideration value for specimens used for artificial insemination A. at least 50% B. 40% to 90% (mature and oval headed) C. test for infectious disease D. prostatitis or sperm-agglutinating antibodies
C. test for infectious disease
67
67. Based on the information presented in case 29.2, the patient would be considered A. infertile B. subfertile C. fertile D. superfertile
C. fertile
68
68. Based on the information presented in case 29.2, when a seminal sample was stained with eosin Y as the stain and nigrosin as a counterstain, viable sperm cells would be A. unstained B. pink C. orange D. blue
B. pink
69
69. Arthrocentesis is A. a bone biopsy B. a liquid biopsy C. not as accurate as blood testing D. a good test to monitor the effects of chemotherapy
B. a liquid biopsy
70
70. Disorders that can be diagnosed definitively by synovial fluid analysis are A. gout, CPPD deposition disease, and rheumatoid arthritis B. CPPD deposit disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and SLE C. rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and septic arthritis D. gout, CPPD deposition disease, and septic arthritis
D. gout, CPPD deposition disease, and septic arthritis
71
71. Which of the following would not be an aspiration site for synovial fluid? A. Knee B. Elbow C. Posterior iliac crest D. Ankle
C. Posterior iliac crest
72
72. If a synovial fluid aspirate is very turbid and septic arthritis is suspected, a ______ should definitely be performed. A. total cell count and differential count B. crystal examination C. Gram’s stain and culture D. all of the above
C. Gram’s stain and culture
73
73. Crystals that are in multiple three-dimensional forms are A. CPPD crystals B. BCP crystals C. MSU crystals D. cholesterol
C. Gram’s stain and culture
74
74. MSU is associated with A. chronic renal disease B. chronic rheumatoid effusions C. acute and chronic arthritis D. acute gouty arthritis
B. chronic rheumatoid effusions
75
76. Calcium oxalate is associated with A. chronic renal disease B. chronic rheumatoid effusions C. acute and chronic arthritis D. acute gouty arthritis
A. chronic renal disease
76
77. Cholesterol is associated with A. chronic renal disease B. chronic rheumatoid effusions C. acute and chronic arthritis D. acute gouty arthritis
B. chronic rheumatoid effusions
77
78. Lipid liquid “maltese cross” is associated with A. chronic renal disease B. chronic rheumatoid effusions C. acute and chronic arthritis D. acute gouty arthritis
C. acute and chronic arthritis
78
79. Amniotic fluid consists of A. water B. proteins C. carbohydrates D. all of the above
D. all of the above
79
80. Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is A. a protein produced during pregnancy B. a biological glue, attaching the fetal sac to the uterine lining C. associated with fetal lung maturity D. all of the above
D. all of the above
80
81. Lamellae bodies are A. associated with the risk of developing respiratory stress syndrome in a premature infant B. composed of concentrated layers of phospholipid secreted by type II alveolar cells C. act as storage packets for surfactants in amniotic fluid D. all of the above
all of the above

Turgeon 6th (32 decks)

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