3 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q
  1. The smallest organized unit of living tissue is the

A. nucleus
B. cell
C. organelle
D. cytoplasm

A

B. cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. The cell membrane’s major components are

A. carbohydrates and proteins
B. proteins and lipids
C. lipids and glycoproteins
D. polysaccharides and lipids

A

B. proteins and lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of osmosis?

A. Requires energy (ATP)
B. Movement of water molecules
C. An unusual cellular activity
D. Requires a carrier molecule

A

B. Movement of water molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of active transport?

A. Requires energy (ATP)
B. Movement of molecules up the concentration gradient
C. Requires a carrier molecule
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Phagocytosis is

A. a type of endocytosis
B. the engulfment of fluid molecules
C. the engulfment of particulate matter
D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. The appropriate function of centrioles is

A. protein production
B. concentration of secretory granules
C. lipid synthesis
D. points of attachment of the spindle fibers

A

D. points of attachment of the spindle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. The appropriate function of the rough ER is

A. protein production
B. concentration of secretory granules
C. lipid synthesis
D. DNA synthesis

A

A. protein production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. The appropriate function of the smooth ER is

A. protein production
B. concentration of secretory granules
C. lipid synthesis
D. DNA synthesis

A

C. lipid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. The appropriate function of the Golgi apparatus is

A. protein production
B. concentration of secretory granules
C. lipid synthesis
D. DNA synthesis

A

B. concentration of secretory granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. The appropriate function of the lysosomes is

A. energy production and heme synthesis
B. protein synthesis
C. cytoskeleton
D. intracellular digestion

A

D. intracellular digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The appropriate function of the microtubules is

A. energy production and heme synthesis
B. protein synthesis
C. cytoskeleton
D. intracellular digestion

A

C. cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. The appropriate function of the mitochondria is

A. energy production and heme synthesis
B. protein synthesis
C. cytoskeleton
D. intracellular digestion

A

A. energy production and heme synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. The appropriate function of the ribosomes is

A. energy production and heme synthesis
B. protein synthesis
C. cytoskeleton
D. intracellular digestion

A

B. protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Glycogen is a

A. protein
B. lipid
C. carbohydrate
D. hormone

A

C. carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. A cellular inclusion that represents a common storage form of iron is

A. glycogen
B. vacuoles
C. Auer body
D. ferritin

A

D. ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. The nucleus of the cell contains

A. chromatin, nucleoli, and nucleoplasm
B. chromatin, nucleoli, and ribosomes
C. DNA, RNA, and ribosomes
D. DNA, RNA, and mitochondria

A

A. chromatin, nucleoli, and nucleoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The overall function of DNA is

A. protein and enzyme production
B. control of cellular function and transmission of genetic information
C. control of heterochromatin and euchromatin synthesis
D. production of cellular energy and transmission of genetic

A

B. control of cellular function and transmission of genetic information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Heterochromatin is

A. genetically inactive
B. found in patches or clumps
C. genetically inactive and pale staining
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Chromosomal translocation is

A. a frequent activity of homologous chromosomes in meiosis
B. a rearrangement of genetic material
C. the process in which a segment of one chromosome breaks away from its normal location
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. A chromosomal deletion is

A. loss of a pair of chromosomes
B. loss of a segment of chromosome
C. attachment of a piece of a chromosome
D. an exchange of genetic material

A

B. loss of a segment of chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. In the G1 phase of mitotic activity, _____.

A. DNA replication occurs
B. a protracted state of mitotic inactivity occurs
C. immediately precedes actual mitotic division
D. protein synthesis and cellular metabolism are active

A

D. protein synthesis and cellular metabolism are active

22
Q
  1. In the S phase of mitotic division, _________.

A. DNA replication occurs
B. a protracted state of mitotic inactivity occurs
C. immediately precedes actual mitotic division
D. protein synthesis and cellular metabolism are active

A

A. DNA replication occurs

23
Q
  1. In the G2 phase of mitotic activity, ________.

A. DNA replication occurs
B. a protracted state of mitotic inactivity occurs
C. immediately precedes actual mitotic division
D. protein synthesis and cellular metabolism are active

A

C. immediately precedes actual mitotic division

24
Q
  1. In the G0 phase, _________.

A. DNA replication occurs
B. a protracted state of mitotic inactivity occurs
C. actual mitotic division occurs
D. protein synthesis and cellular metabolism are active

A

B. a protracted state of mitotic inactivity occurs

25
25. In prophase A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator B. Two identical daughter cells form C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm occurs D. Chromosomes tightly coil and condense
D. Chromosomes tightly coil and condense
26
26. In metaphase A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator B. Two identical daughter cells form C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm occurs D. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the mitotic spindle
A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator
27
27. In anaphase A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator B. Two identical daughter cells form C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm occurs D. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the mitotic spindle
D. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the mitotic spindle
28
28. In telophase A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator B. Two identical daughter cells form C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm occurs D. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the mitotic spindle
B. Two identical daughter cells form
29
29. In cytokinesis A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator B. Two identical daughter cells form C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm occurs D. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the mitotic spindle
C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm occurs
30
Apoptosis is described as A. active cell growth B. active cell death C. passive cell growth D. passive cell death
B. active cell death
31
31. Apoptosis is characterized by A. chromatin condensation and fragmentation B. cell shrinkage C. elimination of dead cells by phagocytosis D. all of the above
D. all of the above
32
32Apoptosis can be prevented by A. synthesis of antiapoptotic proteins B. hematopoietic progenitor cell growth factors C. caspases activity D. either A or B
A. synthesis of antiapoptotic proteins
33
33. Beneficial outcomes of apoptosis can include all of the following except: A. controlling the size of the lymphocyte pool B. removal of tumor cells C. removal of virally infected lymphocytes D. removal of natural killer (NK) cells
D. removal of natural killer (NK) cells
34
34. The intrinsic pathway of apoptosis focuses on A. mitochondria as initiators of cell death B. tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family death receptors C. Bcl-2 as the antideath gene D. stressed endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
A. mitochondria as initiators of cell death
35
35. Apoptosis is morphologically identified by A. nuclear condensation B. cell membrane rupture C. nuclear rupture D. development of cytoplasmic granules
B. cell membrane rupture
36
The extrinsic pathway of apoptosis focuses on A. mitochondria as initiators of cell death B. tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family death receptors C. stressed endoplasmic reticulum D. CD95
B. tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family death receptors
37
37. A major function of protein p53 is to A. promote cell cycle arrest B. promote apoptosis to eliminate defective cells C. induce genes involved in cell growth, differentiation, and development D. activate NF-kB molecules
A. promote cell cycle arrest
38
38. Decreased apoptosis is found in A. cancers with p53 mutations B. aplastic anemias C. myelodysplastic syndromes D. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
A. cancers with p53 mutations
39
39. In meiosis, the cells produced contain A. a 2n number of chromosomes B. 22 pairs of chromosomes C. 23 pairs of chromosomes D. 23 chromosomes
D. 23 chromosomes
40
40. Hematologists are interested in inherited disorders. Which of the following are inherited disorders? A. Sickle cell trait B. Sickle cell anemia C. Hemophilia D. All of the above
D. All of the above
41
41. The first inherited hematologic disorder to be diagnosed using molecular biologic assay was A. hemophilia A B. factor V Leiden C. sickle cell anemia D. CML
C. sickle cell anemia
42
42. Genomics is the study of: A. the entire genetic composition of an organism B. the composition, structure, function, and interaction of proteins C. the mitotic cell cycle D. the frequency of genetic distribution
A. the entire genetic composition of an organism
43
43. All of the following are deoxyribonucleotide bases except: A. adenine (A) B. thymine (T) C. cytosine (C) D. uracil (U)
D. uracil (U)
44
44. The pre-mRNA template includes A. the entire gene B. exons C. introns D. all of the above
D. all of the above
45
45. Exons are ultimately translated on the ribosomes into A. carbohydrate B. lipid C. protein D. spliced out and ultimately processed into mature RNA
C. protein
46
46. All of the following characteristics are true of UTRs except: A. effect the stability of mRNA B. effect the efficiency of translation protein C. regulate many cellular proteins D. regulate the cell cycle rate of division
D. regulate the cell cycle rate of division
47
47. A region of DNA that differs in only a single DNA nucleotide is specifically called A. a mutation B. a polymorphism C. allele D. an SNP
D. an SNP
48
48. Mutations usually affect A. a single base in the DNA B. multiple base pairs in DNA C. translation of mRNA into protein D. Both A and C
A. a single base in the DNA
49
49. In chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), all of the characteristics are accurate except: A. initiated by a reciprocal to t(9;22) chromosomal translocation B. a fusion of the ABL protooncogene to the BCR gene C. a state of enhanced tyrosine kinase activity exists D. a fusion gene is found in only the most serious cases of CML
D. a fusion gene is found in only the most serious cases of CML
50
50. A cluster of differentiation (CD) for specific lineages of cells A. aids in determining the cellular lineage of malignant proliferating cells B. identifies antibodies on the cell surface of hematopoietic cells C. detect heavy chain or kappa chain rearrangements D. both A and B
A. aids in determining the cellular lineage of malignant proliferating cells