[2S] UNIT 3.1 Gram (+) Cocci - Staphylococci Flashcards

(231 cards)

1
Q

BACTERIA ACCORDING TO SHAPE

Rod-shaped

A

bacillus/bacilli

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2
Q

Gr(+) or Gr(-) & Shape?

Neisseria and Moraxella

A

Gr(-) cocci

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3
Q

BACTERIA ACCORDING TO SHAPE

Round/Spherical

A

coccus/cocci

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4
Q

Gr(+) or Gr(-) & Shape?

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

A

Gr(+) cocci

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5
Q

Gr(+) or Gr(-) & Shape?

Bacillus & Erysipelothrix

A

Gr(+) bacilli

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6
Q

Gr(+) or Gr(-) & Shape?

most bacilli

A

Gr(-) bacilli

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6
Q

Gr(+) or Gr(-) & Shape?

Listeria & Mycobacterium

A

Gr(+) bacilli

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7
Q

Gr(+) or Gr(-) & Shape?

Enterobacteriaceae & Haemophilus

A

Gr(-) bacilli

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8
Q

Gr(+) or Gr(-) & Shape?

Spirochetes: Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira

A

Gr(-) spiral

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9
Q

GENERALITIES

grape-like clusters; due to their morphological arrangement when seen under the light microscope

A

Staphylococcus

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10
Q

GENERALITIES

Belong to Family Staphylococcaceae

A

Staphylococcus

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11
Q

GENERALITIES

○ Generally seen as cocci in clusters (most cases)
○ No tetrads

A

Gr (+) Cocci in clusters, in pairs, singly

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12
Q

GENERALITIES

All are Catalase (+) except?

A

S.aureus subsp. anaerobius
and S. saccharolyticus

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13
Q

If tetrads are seen, it might be?

A

micrococcus

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14
Q

GENERALITIES

would detect the enzyme catalase

A

Catalase test

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15
Q

GENERALITIES

Positive result for Catalase Test

A

bubbling of solution or effervescence after addition of 3% hydrogen peroxide

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16
Q

T/F: All staphyloccocus are modified oxidase negative except t S. sciuri, S. lentus, S. vitulus (are modified oxidase positive)

A

T

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17
Q

Modified Oxidase Test is also known as?

A

Microdase Test

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18
Q

Positive result for Modified Oxidase Test

A

blue-purple coloration

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19
Q

All are non-motile and non-spore formers

A

Staphylococcus

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20
Q

T/F: Majority of motile bacteria are bacilli and has no flagella

A

T

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21
Q

T/F: All are halophilic. Growing in high amount of NaCl or salt, at around 7.5%

A

T

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21
Q

T/F: Motility test is commonly done on gram (+)

A

F; gram -

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22
Q

Gaseous Requirement: _________ except Staphylococcus aureus subspecies anaerobius &
Staphylococcus saccharolyticus

A

Aerobic or Facultative Anaerobe

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23
T/F: Staphylococcus are nitrate reducers
T
24
○ Medium sized ■ Pinhead (larger than pinpoint) ○ Raised ○ Creamy with smooth margin ○ Lemon yellow or golden colonies ○ Buttery-looking
Staphylococcus
25
STAPH W/ DISTINCT COLORS white
S. albus
26
Colonies produced after 18 to 24 hours of incubation are medium sized (4 to 8 mm)
Staphylococcus
27
STAPH W/ DISTINCT COLORS golden yellow (due to the pigment staphyloxanthin)
S. aureus
28
STAPH W/ DISTINCT COLORS lemon yellow (more pronounced in Loeffler’s serum slant)
S. citreus
29
Rare strains of _______ are fastidious, requiring carbon dioxide, hemin, or menadione for growth.
staphylococci
30
These so-called small colony variants (SCVs) grow on media containing ______, forming colonies about 1/10 the size of wild-type strains even after 48 hours or more of incubation.
blood
31
an initial test is performed to differentiate Staphylococcus spp.
Coagulase Test
32
T/F: Catalase test is more useful in differentiating Staphylococcus from Streptococcus
T
33
Usually done after the catalase test (have identified that the organism is Staphylococcus spp.)
Coagulase Test
34
CONS OR COPS Staphylococcus aureus
35
CONS OR COPS S. intermedius (associated with animal infections)
COP
36
CONS OR COPS S. aureus subspecies anaerobius
COPS
37
CONS OR COPS S. delphini
COPS
37
CONS OR COPS S. epidermidis, S. haemolyticus
CONS - Novobiocin Susceptible
37
CONS OR COPS S. lutrae
COPS
38
CONS After testing the isolate for the antibiotic novobiocin, if they would have a _____ zone of inhibition, they would be novobiocin susceptible.
clear
39
CONS OR COPS S. saprophyticus, S. xylosus
CONS - Novobiocin Resistant
39
No or little zone of inhibition after testing it with the antibiotic novobiocin.
CONS - Novobiocin Resistant
40
Primary reservoir
Human nares particularly S. aureus
41
GENERALITIES Belong to Family Micrococcaceae
41
GENERALITIES Gram (+) cocci in clusters; in tetrads (in fours)
42
GENERALITIES Usually normal flora and associated with skin lesions and more commonly isolated among immunocompromised patients
43
GENERALITIES Less medically relevant than Staphylococcus but may be easy confused as Staphylococcus
43
GENERALITIES May be found in the environment (ubiquitous in nature)
44
MICROCOCCI ■ Negative in catalase test ■ Found in air, dust, and hospital equipments
Aerococcus
44
MICROCOCCI ■ Isolated in the middle ear of the infected patient ■ Commensal organisms
Alloiococcus otitis
45
Staph vs Micrococcus Catalase test
Both positive
46
MICROCOCCI ■ emerging pathogen (UTI, endocarditis) ■ Capsulated gram (+) cocci ■ Emerging pathogen
Rothia mucilaginosa / Stomatococcus mucilaginosus
47
Staph vs Micrococcus Aerobic growth
Both yes
47
Staph vs Micrococcus Glucose Utilization
Staph: Fermentative Micro: Oxidative / Nonsaccharolytic
48
Staph vs Micrococcus Anaerobic growth
Staph
49
Staph vs Micrococcus Benzidine
S : Negative M : Positive
49
Staph vs Micrococcus Lysostaphin (>/=200 g/L) (Resistance)
S : Susceptible M : Resistant
49
Staph vs Micrococcus Modified Oxidase/ Microdase
S : Negative except for S. sciuri, S. lentus, S. vitulus M : Positive
50
Staph vs Micrococcus Bacitracin/Taxo A Disk (Resistance) (0.04 unit)
S : Susceptible M : Resistant
50
Staph vs Micrococcus Production of Acid from Glycerol in the Presence of Erythromycin
S : Positive M : Negative
51
Staph vs Micrococcus Lysosome
S : Resistant M : Susceptible
52
Staph vs Micrococcus Growth on furoxone-tween 80-oil red o agar
S : Negative M : Allow growth of micrococcus
53
CLINICALLY SIGNIFICANT STAPHYLOCOCCI : Coag +/- Staphylococcus aureus
Coag +
54
CLINICALLY SIGNIFICANT STAPHYLOCOCCI : Coag +/- ● Staphylococcus epidermidis ● Staphylococcus lugdunensis ● Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Coag -
55
Staph vs Micrococcus ○ S. warneri ○ S. capitis ○ S. hominis ○ S. schleiferi ○ S. haemolyticus
Less common but implicated as opportunistic pathogens
56
Most clinically significant staph
S. aureus
56
Can be recovered from almost any clinical specimen ○ Normally found in the human nares ○ Found in swabs
S. aureus
57
Can cause acne, sty, celulities & folliculitis
S. aureus
57
Can cause toxic shock syndrome, scalded skin syncrome, food poisoning, impetigo, and furuncles and carbuncles
S. aureus
58
STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS ■ Systemic illness that can lead to hypotension ■ Certain groups of people would have a higher risk, particularly females who use tampons.
Toxic Shock Syndrome
59
STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS Skin infections affecting the hair follicles
Furuncles and carbuncles
60
STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS Affect infants or neonates
Scalded Skin Syndrome
61
STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS more deep seated affecting the hair follicles
Furuncles
62
Also an important cause of nosocomial and opportunistic infections
S. aureus
62
STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS shallow, affectes nearby or adjacent hair follicles
Carbuncles
63
PROTEIN DETERMINANTS ○ Present on the cell surface ○ Cell wall component ○ Prevent opsonization ○ Binds to antibodies (IgG)
Protein A
64
PROTEIN DETERMINANTS Antiphagocytic
Protein A
65
PROTEIN DETERMINANTS Endotoxin like activity
Peptidoglycan and Teichoic Acids
65
PROTEIN DETERMINANTS Protein A will bind to what antibody?
IgG
66
PROTEIN DETERMINANTS Activates complement, Interleukin 1 ■ Activation of complement can lead to inflammation ■ Interleukin 1 can trigger fever
Peptidoglycan and Teichoic Acids
66
3 Protein Determinants of S. aureus
Protein A Capsular Polysaccharide Peptidoglycan & Teichoic Acids
67
PROTEIN DETERMINANTS Chemotactic factor for PMN
Peptidoglycan and Teichoic Acids
68
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS affects the smooth muscle of the blood vessels
Alpha hemolysin
69
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS ■ Heat-labile (destroyed by heat) ■ Type of sphingomyelinase ■ Hot-cold lysin
Beta hemolysin
69
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS Lyses red blood cells
Hemolysins (alpha, beta, gamma and delta)
70
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS ■ Less toxic ■ Associated to Panton Valentine Factor
Gamma
71
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS Toxic to red blood cells and other mammalian cells
Delta
72
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS ○ Penicillin binding protein ○ Binds to penicillin making the organism resistant ○ Often studied among Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
PBP2
72
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS Leukocidin (destroys WBC)
Panton Valentine Factor
73
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS ○ The one we detect in coagulase test ○ Significant in the identification process of the organism ○ Clots fibrinogen
Staphylocoagulase
74
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS ○ Superantigen ■ Can cause T cells to proliferate ■ Induce cytokine release ● Cytokine - an important cell secretion in inflammation
TSST-1
75
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS ○ Causes almost all cases of menstruating TSS ○ Formerly called Enterotoxin F
TSST-1
76
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS ○ Cause staphylococcal food poisoning, diarrhea, vomiting but the disease is self limiting ○ Heat-stable toxins
Enterotoxins
77
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS ○ Epidermolytic toxin that can cause sloughing off of the skin ○ Implicated in Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSS), Ritter-Lyell Disease or Dermatitis Exfoliativa ○ Also implicated in Bullous Impetigo
Exfoliative Toxin
78
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS extracellular toxins that affect RBCs and WBCS
Cytolytic Toxins
79
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS Group? Toxic Shock Syndrome
BCGI
79
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS Group? Staphylococcal Food Poisoning
ABD
79
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS Group? Staphylococcal pseudomembranous enterocolitis
B
80
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS Group? Also known as Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 (TSST-1) / Pyrogenic Exotoxin C
F
81
S. AUREUS - VIRULENCE FACTORS (cell free or bound); localization of abscess ■ Virulence marker ■ Used for diagnostic purposes
ENZYME: Staphylocoagulase
82
4 other factors (enzyme not related to pathogenicity)
● Penicillinase ● Catalase ● Thermonuclease ● Gelatinase
83
ASSOCIATED INFECTIONS Exfoliative dermatitis that occurs among newborns and previously healthy young children; also seen among adults with chronic renal failure
SSS: Scalded Skin Syndrome
84
ASSOCIATED INFECTIONS ○ Multisystemic disease ○ 2 Categories: Menstruating Associated and Nonmenstruating associated ○ S/S: sudden onset of fever, chills, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle pain, rashes, can progress to hypotension and shock
Toxic Shock Syndrome
85
ASSOCIATED INFECTIONS has multiple causes; maybe due to a hypersensitivity reaction; very similar initial presentation to that of SSS
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
85
ASSOCIATED INFECTIONS ○ Lesions may be localized or generalized ○ Cutaneous erythema followed by peeling of skin
SSS: Scalded Skin Syndrome
86
ASSOCIATED INFECTIONS ○ Involves the ingestion of a preformed enterotoxin from food that is improperly stored ○ S/S: appear rapidly (incubation period: 2-8 hrs); nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain
Staphylococcal Food Poisoning
87
ASSOCIATED INFECTIONS Most common enterotoxin causing food poisoning
Enterotoxin A
88
Most common staph for osteomyelitis
S. aureus
89
OTHER INFECTIONS Has been known to occur secondary to influenza virus infection
Staphylococcal pneumonia
90
OTHER INFECTIONS Develops as a contiguous, lower respiratory tract infection or a complication of bacteremia, is characterized by multiple abscesses and focal lesions in the pulmonary parenchyma
Staphylococcal pneumonia
91
OTHER INFECTIONS ○ Observed among intravenous drug users. ○ The organisms gain entrance to the bloodstream via contaminated needles or from a focal lesion present on the skin or in the respiratory or genitourinary tract
Staphylococcal bacteremia
92
OTHER INFECTIONS ○ Occurs as a manifestation secondary to bacteremia. ○ Inflammation of the bone
Staphylococcal osteomyelitis
93
OTHER INFECTIONS ○ Affecting the heart ○ For those who have undergone heart surgery
Endocarditis
94
Usually a normal inhabitant of the skin (predominant normal flora) but is a common source of hospital-acquired infections and often a contaminant in improperly collected blood culture specimens
S. epidermidis
95
● Can cause opportunistic infections (associated with endocarditis) ● Most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis and wound infection
S. epidermidis
96
Able to colonize prosthetic devices or surgical devices if not properly disinfected
S. epidermidis
97
T/F: S. epidermidis is coagulase (-)
T
98
2nd most common cause of UTIs
S. saprophyticus
99
○ This species adheres more effectively to the epithelial cells lining the urogenital tract than other CoNS ○ Rarely found on other mucous membranes or skin surfaces
S. saprophyticus
100
T/F: S. saprophyticus is coag -
T
101
Associated with pyelonephritis and cystitis in young women and in older men using catheters
S. saprophyticus
102
Colony counts may be <100,000 CFU/mL but is still significant to be considered as a cause of UTI
S. saprophyticus
103
T/F: UTI: colony count should be 100,000 or more but if it is less than 100,000, it is not typically considered UTI but there are certain exceptions, like S. saprophyticus
T
104
T/F: When the organism identified is S. saprophyticus, we do not regard it as UTI even if the colony count is <100,000 CFU/mL
F; we regard it as UTI
105
Also associated with nosocomial pneumonia
S. saprophyticus
106
● A cause of nosocomial infections such as endocarditis, septicemia, meningitis, skin and soft tissue infections ● Coagulase (-)
S. lugdunensis
107
This organism is more virulent than other and is known to contain the gene mecA, which encodes oxacillin resistance
S. lugdunensis
108
Causes an aggressive type of endocarditis
S. lugdunensis
109
Positive for the clumping factor for the Slide Coagulase Test
S. lugdunensis
110
OTHER STAPHYLOCOCCI Staph in scalp
S. capitis
111
OTHER STAPHYLOCOCCI is a commonly isolated CoNS. It has been reported in wounds, bacteremia, endocarditis, and UTIs. Vancomycin resistance exists
S. haemolyticus
112
OTHER STAPHYLOCOCCI In dogs
S. intermedius
113
OTHER STAPHYLOCOCCI In dolphins
S. delphini
114
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS T/F: Aspirates are preferred (especially if there is inflammation); if swabs are submitted, it must be at least 2 (in duplicates)
T
114
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS ● Expect to find gram (+) cocci in clusters, singly, or in pairs ● Inflammation: you will find abundant neutrophils ● After doing the gram stain, you will be applying it to the culture medium
Direct Detection (Gram Stain)
114
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION To see if there is a hemolytic pattern
115
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION ○ To allow only gram (+) cocci to grow in the medium ○ CCNA: Selective for gram (+)
SELECTIVE: CCNA, PEA
116
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION ● Generally: round, Smooth, White or Yellow pigmented, creamy colonies with smooth edges ● To check hemolytic pattern
BAP
116
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION ■ Usually has mauve or pink coloration in colonies; presumptive for S.aureus ■ Other than S.aureus will grow as blue organisms ■ Differentiates S. aureus from other organisms
SELECTIVE & DIFF: CHROMagar
117
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION Differentiates mannitol fermenters from the non-mannitol fermenters
MSA
117
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION Non-mannitol fermenter result
Pink (S. epidermidis)
117
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION T/F: S. aureus is a beta hemolysis
T
117
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION Has phenol red as indicator
MSA
118
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION Mannitol fermenter result (color, pH, and example)
Yellow, acidic, S. aureus
119
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION BAP : Medium sized colonies; Beta-hemolytic
S. lugdunensis
119
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION BAP : small-medium sized, gray colonies; nonhemolytic or gamma hemolytic
S. epidermidis
120
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION BAP : Medium-sized colonies, yellow pigmented colonies
S. saprophyticus
121
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION For isolation and direct differentiation of Staphylococcus aureus in clinical and industrial sample
CHROMagar
122
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION T/F: On CAP, S. aureus has pinhead colonies with greenish discoloration
T
123
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION T/F: MSA ● Staphylococcus epidermidis (yellow) ● Staphylococcus aureus (pink)
F; ● Staphylococcus epidermidis (pink) ● Staphylococcus aureus (yellow)
124
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION CHROMagar: ○ Staphylococcus aureus → _________ ○ Other bacteria are _________ or inhibited
pink to mauve colorless, blue
125
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION Selective medium containing the antibiotic Cefoxitin, which inhibits other members of staph and allows the growth of S. aureus
CHROMagar
126
CULTURE MEDIA FOR ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION CHROMagar that is very selective for MRSA
CHROMAgar Versa
127
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Detection of enzyme catalase
Catalase Test
128
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS converts H2O2 to water and O2
Catalase
129
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Reagent for catalase tests
3% H2O2
130
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Important test to differentiate staphylococcus (+) and micrococcus (+) from streptococcus (-)
Catalase Test
131
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS T/F: If doing catalase test, get colonies from blood agar plate
F; AVOID GETTING FROM BAP
132
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Oxidase reagent reacts with cytochrome C in the cytochrome oxidase
Modified Oxidase Test
133
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Uses filter paper; get a loopful of the specimen then apply on the filter paper then drop the reagent
Modified Oxidase Test
134
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Reagent used in modified oxidase test
6% tetramethyl phenylenediamine HCl in dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)
135
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Positive result for Modified Oxidase Test
Dark Blue
136
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Differentiates staphylococcus (most members are (-) from micrococcus (+)
Modified Oxidase Test
137
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS T/F: MOT : Staphylococcus are negative except for three species ■ S. sciuri ■ S. lentus ■ S. vitulinus
T
138
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS T/F: Use nichrome or iron loops in MOT
F; DO NOT USE. False (+) and iron is a component of the cytochrome. Use applicator stick or plastic loop instead
139
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Detection of staphylocoagulase (coagulase)
Coagulase Test
140
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Coagulase Test Reagent
Rabbit Plasma
141
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS ● For screening ● Detect bound coagulase or clumping factor (sand-like)
Slide Coagulase
142
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Positive & negative result for slide coagulase
P : Grainy / Clumping N : Homogenous / No Clumping
143
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS ● Detection of free coagulase enzyme ● Will not confirm if it is coagulase positive because this test would have many false positive result
Slide Coagulase
144
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS T/F: Rabbit plasma are added in Slide Coagulase then add colony from MSA, not BAP & CAP
F; colony from BAP & CAP, not MSA
145
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS T/F: In slide coagulase, high amounts of salt can interfere with the test
T
146
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS ● Confirms if the test is really coagulase positive ● Detects free coagulase ● More specific
Tube Coagulase
147
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Tube Coagulase (+) result
Clot formation
148
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS: TUBE COAGULASE T/F: If 4 hours, there is still no clot formation, that is not yet a negative result. Continue the incubation at room temperature. After 20 hrs from the time you put it at room temperature, check again if there is already a clot. If there is, it is positive, if there is no clot formed, it is negative
T
148
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS: TUBE COAGULASE Prepare a test tube, add colony on rabbit plasma, incubate the tube for ____ hrs at ___ C. Every 30 minutes, check if it is coagulase positive
4 hours at 37 degrees C
149
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Why don’t we just put the tube in the incubator for 24 hours?
Clot will be dissolved by Staphylokinase or Staphylococcal fibrinolysin or Muller’s Factor
150
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Result when the clot is destroyed by Staphylokinase
False negative
151
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Oxidation Fermentation Test color for fermenter in open and oxidizer in closed tube
O : Yellow C: No color (oxidizer; can be microccocus)
151
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS ● To differentiate organisms based on the ability to oxidize or ferment sugars ● Use of OF Medium
Oxidation Fermentation Test
151
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS DNAse Test positive result
Hydrolysis of surrounding medium (clear zone)
151
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Would react with a thermostable thrombin like molecule (coagulase reacting factor)
Tube Coagulase
152
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS ● Detection of DNAse activity ● Useful to identify S. aureus ● Use of special DNA Agar
DNAse Test
152
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS DNA agar contains (2)?
DNA & toluidine blue / methyl green
153
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS DNAse reagent
Toluidine Blue or Methyl Green
154
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Gelitinase Liquefaction Test (-)
Not melted
154
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS ● Makes use of 12% gelatin in a tube medium where the suspected organism is inoculated ● Incubate for 4-5 days
Gelitinase Liquefaction Test
155
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Formation of acetoin from glucose (Butylene Glycol Pathway)
Voges Proskauer Test
156
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Gelitinase Liquefaction Test (+)
Liquified - S. aureus
157
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS is a byproduct of the metabolism of glucose following the Butylene Glycol Pathway
Voges Proskauer Test
158
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Useful test to differentiate Coagulase-negative Staphylococcus (CONS)
Novobiocin (5ug) Susceptibility
158
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS ● Differentiates Coagulase (+) Staphylococcus ● Can differentiate S. aureus from S. intermedius
Voges Proskauer Test
158
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Voges Proskauer Test (+)
Red coloration in MRVP broth
159
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS ● Differentiates Coagulase (+) Staphylococcus ● Used to differentiate S. aureus (-) from S. lugdunensis, S. intermedius, and S. schleiferi (+).
PYR (Pyrrolidonyl) Test
160
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS PYR (Pyrrolidonyl) Test (+)
Pink or Cherry-Red Color
161
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Urine isolates that are coagulase-negative are tested further to identify S. saprophyticus.
Novobiocin (5ug) Susceptibility
162
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS is resistant to novobiocin
S. saprophyticus
162
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS T/F: Most CoNS are susceptible (usually S. epidermidis) to Novobiocin
T
163
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Most useful test for confirming S. lugdunensis
Ornithine Decarboxylase Test
163
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Helpful for Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus
Susceptibility to Polymyxin B (300 Units)
164
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Ornithine Decarboxylase Test (+)
Violet Coloration on OCD Tube
165
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS T/F: S. lugdunensis is also usually slide coagulase-positive, however, we don’t consider it coagulase-positive
T
166
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS T/F: After slide coagulase test, S. lugdunensis should be confirmed through tube coagulase test
T
167
LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS Identify certain species of Staphylococcus
Urease Production
168
RAPID METHODS FOR DIAGNOSIS To differentiate S. aureus from CONS (Coagulase Negative Staphylococci). A variation or an improvement of the slide coagulase test
Commercially Available Rapid Agglutination Kits
169
RAPID METHODS FOR DIAGNOSIS ● Use of plasma coated latex beads ● More specific and sensitive from traditional methods ● Useful for identification of MRSA
Commercially Available Rapid Agglutination Kits
170
RAPID METHODS FOR DIAGNOSIS Negative results should be confirmed with the tube coagulase test, nucleic acid amplification test, or MALDI-TOF
Commercially Available Rapid Agglutination Kits
171
RAPID METHODS FOR DIAGNOSIS T/F: Third-generation agglutination kits contain antibodies that bind capsular antigens 5 and 8, or other surface molecules. Thus, these assays are more sensitive but less specific -- false positive results
T
172
RAPID METHODS FOR DIAGNOSIS To identify the presence of certain genes, such as the mecA gene, to confirm MRSA & MSSA
Molecular Methods
173
RAPID METHODS FOR DIAGNOSIS Able to directly identify staphylococci from a positive blood culture sample as an aid in the diagnosis of sepsis and for targeted antimicrobial therapy treatment.
Molecular Methods
174
RAPID METHODS FOR DIAGNOSIS Gold standard for MRSA
Detection of mecA gene - RT-PCR
175
RAPID METHODS FOR DIAGNOSIS Cannot distinguish genetic differences, such as MRSA versus MSSA strains.
MALDI-TOF
176
RAPID METHODS FOR DIAGNOSIS ● A rapid diagnostic method that can identify antibiotic susceptibility ● Automated machine to identify organisms
MALDI-TOF
177
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE: MRSA Recommended for screening MRSA
Cefoxitin Test
178
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE: MRSA Found in patients who lack traditional healthcare-associated risk factors, such as recent hospitalization, long-term care, hemodialysis, or indwelling devices
Community-acquired MRSA (CA-MRSA)
179
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE: MRSA ○ Infection and outbreaks have been reported in athletes, military recruits in close contact environments, correctional facility inmates, pediatric patients, and tattoo recipients. ○ Can cause nosocomial infections
Community-acquired MRSA (CA-MRSA)
180
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE: MRSA Drug of choice
Vancomycin
181
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE: MRSA Using oxacillin and with 2-4% NaCl; growth indicates methicillin resistance
MRSA Screen Agar
182
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE: MRSA T/F: MRSA isolates should be considered susceptible to all βlactam antibiotics, including the carbapenems, except for fifth-generation cephalosporins with MRSA activity
F; resistant
183
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE Detection with the use of oxacillin disks and cefoxitin
MRSE
184
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE ● Screen plates with 2-4% NaCl ● Use of ChromAGAR
MRSE
185
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE Gold standard for MRSE
Detection of mecA gene
186
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE Use of vancomycin agar plate (spot inoculation) for screening
VRSA
187
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE MIC for VRSA
: ≥16 μg/mL
188
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE MIC for Cefoxitin & Oxacillin
C : ≥8 μg/L O : ≥4 μg/L
189
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE Detection of resistance to macrolides such as clindamycin
Macrolide Resistance
190
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE T/F: Staphylococcal resistance to clindamycin is occasionally inducible, meaning it is only detectable in vitro when the bacteria is exposed to erythromycin
T
191
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE Macrolide Resistance Method
D-Zone Test
192
DETECTION OF RESISTANCE: MACROLIDE RESISTANCE Place erythromycin and clindamycin disk close together (____ distance between the two disks)
15 mm