3 Star Difficultly

Question 1

Which could inhibit generalization?
a) Not varying prompting systems.
b) Not varying probes.
c) Not teaching learning how to learn behaviours.
d) Not changing feedback.

Answer 1

d) Not changing feedback.
(10A)

Question 2

Within the APM (Autism Partnership Method) what is one consideration when promoting generalization?
a) Type of style
b) Type of edible
c) Type of shaping
d) Type of reinforcement

Answer 2

d) Type of reinforcement
(10A)

Question 3

Which of the following did Stokes and Baer (1977) outline as a method to promote generalization?
a) Programming sequentially
b) Modifying responses
c) Training loosely
d) Reinforcing differentially

Answer 3

c) Training loosely
(10A)

Question 4

This refers to behaviour that has come under the sole control of one characteristic of a stimulus.
a) Response overselectivity
b) Stimulus overselectivity
c) Generalization overselectivity
d) Pairing overselectivity

Answer 4

b) Stimulus overselectivity
(10A)

Question 5

Engaging in a different response under the same conditions is known as which of the following:
a) Response generalization
b) Stimulus generalization
c) Stimulus class
d) Response class

Answer 5

a) Response generalization
(10A)

Question 6

Engaging in the same response when the stimulus changes is known as which of the following:
a) Stimulus generalization
b) Response generalization
c) Stimulus class
d) Response class

Answer 6

a) Stimulus generalization
(10A)

Question 7

Which of the following terms refer to when multiple responses result in the same outcome?
a) Response pairing
b) Stimulus pairing
c) Stimulus class
d) Response class

Answer 7

d) Response class
(10A)

Question 8

Which of the following terms refer to when multiple stimuli evoke the same response?
a) Response class
b) Stimulus class
c) Stimulus pairing
d) Response pairing

Answer 8

b) Stimulus class
(10A)

Question 9

Behaviour that is learned under one condition that begins to occur in other conditions is known as which of the following?
a) Maintenance
b) Stimulus control
c) Generalization
d) Overselectivity

Answer 9

c) Generalization
(10A)

Question 10

Which one of the following is one of the four basic schedules of reinforcement?
a) Fixed variable
b) Variable Interval
c) Ratio interval
d) Fixed Timing

Answer 10

b) variable interval
(4B)

Question 11

“A reinforcer delivered contingent upon the first behaviour following the time period where the time period is fixed” describes which schedule of reinforcement?
a) Fixed-ratio
b) Fixed interval
c) Variable Interval
d) Variable ratio

Answer 11

b) Fixed interval
(4B)

Question 12

Scalloped patterns of responding are typically associated with which schedule of reinforcement?
a) Variable-ratio
b) Variable interval
c) Fixed interval
d) Fixed-ratio

Answer 12

c) fixed interval
(4B)

Question 13

“A reinforcer delivered contingent upon the first behaviour following the time period where the time period is variable” describes which schedule of reinforcement?
a) Variable-interval
b) Fixed interval
c) Fixed ratio
d) Variable Ratio

Answer 13

a) Variable-interval
(4B)

Question 14

Which schedules of reinforcement requires the completion of a specified, unvarying number of responses to produce a reinforcer?
a) Variable ratio
b) Fixed interval
c) Variable interval
d) Fixed ratio

Answer 14

d) fixed ratio
(4B)

Question 15

Which schedule of reinforcement requires the completion of a variable number of responses to produce a reinforcer?
a) Variable ratio
b) Fixed ratio
c) Fixed interval
d) Variable interval

Answer 15

a) Variable Ratio
(4B)

Question 16

“A systematic approach to understanding behaviour of social important” best describes:
a) Applied Behaviour Analysis
b) Experimental Analysis of Behaviour
c) Behaviourism
d) Philosophy of Behaviour

Answer 16

a) Applied Behaviour Analysis
(3A)

Question 17

“The practice of objective observation of the phenomena of interest” best describes:
a) Determinism
b) Behaviourism
c) Empiricism
d) Pragmatism

Answer 17

c) Empiricism
(3A)

Question 18

“Those events that take place within an organism’s skin or are otherwise only accessible to the organism” best describes:
a) Private events
b) Public events
c) Explanatory fictions
d) Autoclitics

Answer 18

a) Private events
(3C)

Question 19

“A type of verbal behaviour in which the response form or topography controlled by a current unlearned or learner establishing operation” best describes:
a) Intraverbal
b) Echoic
c) Mand
d) Tact

Answer 19

C) Mand
(3C)

Question 20

“A stimulus that is auditory that evokes a response of speaking in a way that sounds similar to that stimulus” best describes:
a) Tact
b) Echoic
c) Mand
d) Intraverbal

Answer 20

b) Echoic
(3C)

Question 21

“A type of verbal behaviour with the response controlled primarily by an immediately prior nonverbal stimulus” best describes which of the following?
a) Echoic
b) Intraverbal
c) Tact
d) Mand

Answer 21

c) Tact
(3C)

Question 22

“If a behaviour is followed closely in time by a stimulus event and as a result the future frequency of that type of behaviour increases in similar conditions” best describes:
a) punishment
b) reinforcement
c) prompting
d) shaping

Answer 22

b) reinforcement
(4A)

Question 23

Providing a learner with an iPad following a correct response that results in an increase in correct responses best describes:
a) negative punishment
b) positive punishment
c) negative reinforcement
d) positive reinforcement

Answer 23

d) positive reinforcement
(4A)

Question 24

“When a response is followed by the presentation of a stimulus, and, as a result, similar responses occur more frequently in the future” best describes:
a) positive reinforcement
b) negative reinforcement
c) positive punishment
d) negative punishment

Answer 24

a) positive reinforcement
(4A)

Question 25

“The occurrence of a response produces the removal, termination, reduction, or postponement of a stimulus, which leads to an increase in the future occurrence of that response” best describes:
a) negative reinforcement
b) positive reinforcement
c) negative punishment
d) positive punishment

Answer 25

a) negative reinforcement
(4A)

Question 26

Providing a learner with a break following a correct response that increases correct responses is most likely an example of which:
a) positive punishment
b) negative punishment
c) negative reinforcement
d) positive reinforcement

Answer 26

c) negative reinforcement
(4A)

Question 27

Money is most likely an example of which of the following:
a) Generalized unconditioned reinforcer
b) Generalized conditioned reinforcer
c) Generalized conditioned punisher
d) Generalized unconditioned punisher

Answer 27

b) Generalized conditioned reinforcer
(4A)

Question 28

“A previously neutral stimulus change that has acquired the capability to function as a reinforcer through stimulus-stimulus pairing with one or more unconditioned reinforcers or conditioned reinforcers” best describes:
a) unconditioned reinforcer
b) conditioned punisher
c) unconditioned punisher
d) conditioned reinforcer

Answer 28

d) conditioned reinforcer
(4A)

Question 29

Food is an example of which of the following:
a) unconditioned reinforcer
b) conditioned reinforcer
c) conditioned punisher
d) unconditioned punisher

Answer 29

a) unconditioned reinforcer
(4A)

Question 30

“A stimulus change that can increase the future frequency of behaviour without prior pairing with any other form of reinforcement” best describes which:
a) conditioned reinforcer
b) conditioned punisher
c) unconditioned reinforcer
d) unconditioned punisher

Answer 30

c) unconditioned reinforcer
(4A)

Question 31

Which of the following is the primary behavioural principle responsible for the effectiveness of a response cost system?
a) shaping
b) prompting
c) reinforcement
d) punishment

Answer 31

d) punishment
(7E)

Question 32

Response cost should always be combined with which of the following:
a) punishment
b) shaping
c) prompting
d) reinforcement

Answer 32

d) reinforcement
(7E)

Question 33

What is one variable a technician should analyze when implementing flexible prompt fading?
a) Responses on previous trials
b) Parental reports
c) Supervision notes
d) Findings in Journal of Applied Behaviour Analysis

Answer 33

a) Responses on previous trails
(8C)

Question 34

Within flexible prompt fading the goal of the technician is to keep the learner at ___ accuracy (prompted or unprompted)
a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 100%
d) 50%

Answer 34

b) 80%
(8C)

Question 35

Which prompting system relies on the use of clinical judgement?
a) Most-to-least prompting
b) No-no prompting
c) Flexible prompt fading
d) Constant time delay

Answer 35

c) Flexible prompt fading
(8C)

Question 36

No-no prompt was orginially designed for use in a(n):
a) gross motor task
b) expressive labeling task
c) three choice discrimination
d) two choice discrimination

Answer 36

d) two choice discrimination
(8C)

Question 37

Which prompting systems involves providing a prompt and then fading prompts until the learner responds independently?
a) Least-to-most
b) Most-to-least
c) Simultaneous prompting
d) No-no prompt

Answer 37

b) Most-to-least
(8C)

Question 38

Which prompting system involves giving the learner the opportunity to respond independently prior to providing a prompt?
a) Errorless learning
b) Simultaneous prompting
c) Most-to-least
d) Least-to-most

Answer 38

d) Least-to-most
(8C)

Question 39

Which prompting system is time based with at least two time levels (e.g. 0 seconds and 10 seconds)
a) Constant time delay
b) Progressive time delay
c) Simultaneous prompting
d) Least-to-most

Answer 39

a) Constant time delay
(8C)

Question 40

Which prompting system involves providing a prompt with a 0 second delay and never increasing that delay?
a) Simultaneous
b) Most-to-least
c) Flexible prompt fading
d) Constant time delay

Answer 40

a) Simulataneous
(8C)

Question 41

The ADOS is used for which of the following?
a) To help IEP reports
b) To help diagnosis
c) As a curriculum tool
d) As a curriculum assessment

Answer 41

b) To help diagnosis
(14A)

Question 42

The GARS provides a rating of which of the following?
a) Social deficits
b) Cognitive skills
c) Autistic symptomatology
d) Language improvements

Answer 42

c) Autistic symptomatology
(14A)

Question 43

The SSiS can be used in aiding which of the following?
a) Measurement
b) Other assessments
c) Training
d) The development of treatment

Answer 43

d) The development of treatment
(14A)

Question 44

What should be the RBTs role in formal assessments?
a) Help in administration
b) Solo administration
c) Never administrate
d) Administrate with psychologist

Answer 44

a) Help in administration
(14A)