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Undeleted > Anatomy Final: Study Guide > Flashcards

Anatomy Final: Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Define Anatomy

A

Anatomy is the study of structure.

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2
Q

Describe anatomical position.

A

Individual stands upright, feet parallel on the floor, head level, eyes looking forward, arms are at sides of body with palms forward so thumbs are pointing away from the body.

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3
Q

Define parietal layer.

A

Lining of the internal surface of the body wall.

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4
Q

Define visceral layer.

A

Covers the external surface of organs.

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5
Q

Define: Golgi apparatus

A

“Shipping and Receiving”

Stacked cistern whose edges bulge, pinch off, and give rise to small transport and secretory vesicles

Function:
to receive proteins and lipids from rough ER for modification, sorting, and packaging

List the functions of the nucleus.
- Control center of cell activities:
Controls protein synthesis and directions functional/structural characteristics of the cell.
Contains/controls DNA.

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6
Q

Define: Lysosomes

A

“Clean up crew/Garbage collector”

Vesicles generated by the Golgi apparatus

Contain enzymes used to digest and remove waste products and damaged organelles within the cell.

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7
Q

Define: Cytosol

A

the viscous, syruplike fluid of the cytoplasm

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8
Q

Define: Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

Continuation of rough ER.

Functions:

  • synthesis, transport, and storage of lipids; steroids
  • metabolism of carbs
  • detox of drugs, alcohol, and poisons

Liver and Kidneys

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9
Q

Define: Ribosomes

A

Free or Fixed

Small, dense granules with a small and large subunit

Function:
protein production

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10
Q

Define: Mitochondria

A

“Powerhouse of the cell”

Function:
- produce ATP

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11
Q

Describe the sequence of mitosis.

A
  1. Interphase: Making of cell components needed for cell division (like DNA)
    * 2. Prophase: Chromatin coils and chromosomes appear; nucleolus breaks down; spindle fibers form from centrioles; centrioles move toward opposite poles; nuclear envelope breaks down
    * 3. Metaphase: Spindle fibers attach to centromeres of chromosomes; chromosomes align at equatorial plate of the cell
    * 4. Anaphase: Centromeres held by chromatid pairs separate; each sister chromatid is now a chromosome with its own centromere; sister chromatids separate and move toward opposite ends of the cell; cytokinesis begins
    * 5. Telophase: chromosomes uncoil; nucleolus reforms within each nucleus; spindle fibers breakdown and disappear; new nuclear envelope forms around each set of chromosomes; cytokinesis continues
  2. Cytokinesis: cleavage furrow pinches at the equator and the cytoplasm is split in half. The mother cell becomes 2 daughter cells that are identical the mother cell.
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12
Q

Describe the germ layer: Ectoderm.

What body parts are derived from the ectoderm?

A 
Epidermis of skin (including hair, nails, sweat glands, mammary glands)
Nervous tissue and sense organs
Pituitary gland 
Adrenal medulla
Enamel of teeth
Lens of the eye
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13
Q

Describe the germ layer: Mesoderm.

What body parts are derived from the mesoderm?

A 
Dermis of skin
Epithelial lining blood vessels, lymph vessels, serous membranes
Muscle tissue
Connective tissue
Adrenal cortex
Heart
Kidneys and ureters
Internal reproductive organs
Spleen
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14
Q

Describe the germ layer: Endoderm.

What body parts are derived from the endoderm?

A 
Epithelial lining of respiratory tract, GI tract, urinary tract, reproductive tract, tympanic cavity, auditory tube 
Lover
Gallbladder
Pancreas
Palatine tonsils
Thyroid gland
Parathyroid glands
Thymus
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15
Q

Define tissue.

A

Group of similar cells and extracellular products that carry out a common function.

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16
Q

Define an organ.

A

Two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific complex functions.

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17
Q

Define an organ system.

A

Related organs that work together to coordinate activities and achieve a common function.

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18
Q

Discuss endocrine glands and what they secrete.

A

Secrete directly into the blood stream. (No Ducts)

Secrete: hormones

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19
Q

List the functions of the integumentary system.

A 
Functions:
Protection
Prevention of water loss
Temp Regulation
Metabolic Regulation
Immune Defense
Sensory Reception
Excretion/Secretion
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20
Q

What it the cause of goose bumps?

A

Pg. 131 - Upon stimulation, the arrector pili muscles (in the skin) contract, pulling on the hair follicles and elevating the hairs, to produce “goose bumps.”

  • These muscles are usually stimulated in response to an emotional state, such as fear or rage, or exposure to old temps
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21
Q 
Give examples of the following: 
Long Bones
Irregular Bones
Short Bones
Flat Bones
Sesamoid Bones
A

Long Bone: Humerus, Femur, Phalanges

Irregular Bones: Vertebra, some skull bones, os coxae

Short Bones: Carparls, Tarsals

Flat Bones: Ribs, sternum, some skull bones, scapula

Sesamoid Bones: Patella

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22
Q

Define osteoprogenitor cells.

A
  • come from mesenchyme
  • divide into 2:
    1 stays an osteoprogenitor
    the other becomes an osteoblast

(Precursor to bone cells)

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23
Q

Define osteoclasts.

A
  • breaks down bone

by secreting hydrochloric acid and enzymes

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24
Q

Define osteocytes.

A
  • a mature osteoblast is called an osteocyte

- maintains the bone matrix

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25
Q

Be able to label these items on the diagram on Pg. 155

A
  1. External circumferential lamellae
  2. Osteon
  3. Central Canal
  4. Interstitial lamellae
  5. Perforating Canal
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26
Q

Be able to identify the bones of the axial skeleton.

A

Pg. 174 and 175

Skull, Vertebral Column, and Thoracic Cage

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27
Q

What type of vertebra have transverse foramen?

A

Cervical vertebra

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28
Q

Discuss floating ribs.

A
  • Floating ribs have no connection to the sternum at all.
  • They only articulate with the vertebra.
  • Ribs 11 and 12.
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29
Q

Identify the connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton.

A

The clavicle and scapula are the 2 bones of the pectoral girdle and their function is to attach the upper limb to the axial skeleton.

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30
Q

Discuss synovial joints. List the parts of a synovial joint.
Be able to identify these structures on the diagram.

Diagram Pg. 257

A
  • Classified as diarthrosis (freely movable)
  • Most common type of joint in the body
  • Bones are separated by a space called a “joint cavity”
Examples:
Glenohumoral joint (shoulder joint)
Tempomandibular joint (TMJ)

Parts of a synovial joint

  1. Articular capsule
  2. Joint Cavity
  3. Synovial fluid
  4. Articular cartilages
  5. Ligaments
  6. Nerves
  7. Blood vessels
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31
Q 
Define the following movements:
Abduction
Adduction
Flexion
Extension
Inversion
Eversion
Protraction
Retraction
Circumduction
Pronation
Supination
Radial and Ulnar deviation
Rotation
Depression
Elevation
A

Abduction: lateral movement of a body part AWAY from the midline

Adduction: medial movement of a body part TOWARD the midline

Flexion: movement that DECREASES the angle between the articulating bones

Extension: movement that INCREASES the angle between the articulating bones; (movement beyond 180 degrees is “hyperextension”)

Inversion: ankle movement; sole of the foot turns medially

Eversion: ankle movement; sole of the foot turns laterally

Plantar Flexion: ankle movement; extension of the foot so that the toes point inferiorly (toes point towards PLANTS on the ground)

Dorsiflexion: ankle movement; anterior surface of the foot and the toes move toward the leg (toes to your nose)

Protraction: anterior movement of the body part from anatomical position

Retraction: posterior movement of the body part from anatomical position

Circumduction: sequence of movements in which the proximal end of an appendage remains relatively stationary while the distal end makes a circular motion

Pronation: medial rotation of the forearm so that the park of the hand is directed posteriorly or inferiorly (radius and ulna are crossed like an X)

Supination: forearm rotates laterally so that the palm faces anteriorly or superiorly (radius and ulna are parallel)

Radial/Ulnar Deviation: adduction and abduction of the wrist

Rotation: pivoting motion in which a bone turns on its own longitudinal axis (medial/lateral rotation, internal/external rotation)

Depression: inferior movement of a body part

Elevation: superior movement of a body part

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32
Q

Deltoid ligament, lateral ligaments, and tibiofibular ligaments belong to which joint?

A

The ankle

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33
Q

List the functions of skeletal muscles. (5)

A
  1. Movement
  2. Maintain posture
  3. Temp regulation (ie shivering)
  4. Storage and movement of materials
  5. Support
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34
Q

Define ligament.

A

Dense, regular, fibrous connective tissue that attaches bone to bone.

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35
Q

Define fascia.

A

Sheath of dense connective tissue that envelopes the body beneath the skin, encloses muscles, and separates their various layers or groups

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36
Q

Define tendon.

A

Dense regular connective tissue that attaches muscle to: bone, skin, or another muscle; thick cordlike structure

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37
Q

Describe the components of a sarcomere. Be able to label them on a diagram.

Z disc
I band
A band
H zone
M line
Thick and thin filaments

Diagram Pg. 295 - 296

A

Z disc - dark proteins in center of I band where thin filaments attach

I bands - light band containing thin filaments only and connectin proteins

A band - dark band in middle of sarcomere; entire thick filament us located here; part of thin filaments overlaps

H zone - lighter region in middle of A band containing thick filaments only

M line - dark protein disc in center of H zone

Thick filaments - myosin (protein)

Thin filaments - actin (protein)

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38
Q

What does a motor until consist of?

A

A motor unit is composed of a

  • single motor neuron
  • the muscle fibers it controls
  • the neuromuscular junctions between them
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39
Q

Profundus means

A

Deep

40
Q

Name the hamstring muscles. (3)

A

Biceps femoris
Semitendonosus
Semimembranosis

41
Q

Difficulty dorsiflexing the ankle can be caused by

A

Weakness of the tibialis anterior

42
Q

List the muscles that adduct the arm. (4)

A
  1. Pectoralis Major
  2. Latissimus Dorsi
  3. Teres Major
  4. Coracobrachialis
43
Q

List the 4 muscles of the rotator cuff with their origins, insertions, and actions)

A
  1. Supraspinatus
    O: Supraspinous Fossa (Scapula)
    I: Greater Tubercle (Humerus)
    A: Shoulder Abduction
  2. Infraspinatus
    O: Infraspinous Fossa (Scapula)
    I: Greater Tubercle (Humerus)
    A: Shoulder External Rotation, Horizontal Abduction
  3. Teres minor
    O: Lateral border (Scapula)
    I: Greater Tubercle (Humerus)
    A: Shoulder External Rotation, Horizontal Abduction
  4. Subscpularis
    O: Subscapular Fossa (Scapula)
    I: Lesser Tubercle (Humerus)
    A: Shoulder lnternal Rotation
44
Q

List the actions of these muscles:

Internal intercostals
External intercostals
Diaphragm

A

Internal intercostals
- Depress ribs (during exhalation)

External intercostals
- Elevate ribs (during inhalation)

Diaphragm
- Inspiration

45
Q

What is the vertebral prominens?

A

C7 is the vertebral prominent.
The spinous process of C7 is not bifurcated like the rest of the cervical vertebra. It’s longer and larger that the spinous processes of the other cervical vertebra (it starts to show characteristics of the thoracic vertebra and is the transition point from cervical to thoracic vertebra). This vertebra can be seen and easily palpated through the skin.

46
Q

The peripheral nervous system includes:

A
  • Cranial Nerves (nerves extending from brain)
  • Spinal Nerves (nerves extending from spinal cord)
  • Ganglia (clusters of neuron cell bodies located outside CNS)
47
Q

List the (3) general functions of the nervous system.

A
  1. Collecting Info
    - structures int he PNS detect changes in internal and external environment and pass the info to the CNS
  2. Processing and Evaluating info
    - CNS determines what response is required, if any
  3. Responding to Information
    - CNS initiates impulses to react to environment
48
Q

What portion of the nervous system has voluntary control over skeletal muscles?

A 
Motor Division (efferent)
- transmits motor impulses FROM the CNS to muscles or glands (output)
49
Q

Which glial cells myelinate and insulate axons with the peripheral nervous system?

A

Neurolemmocytes (Schwann Cells)

50
Q

Which glial cells help form the blood-brain barrier?

A

Astrocytes

51
Q

What is the function of the neurofibril nodes?

A

Increase the speed of the transmission of nerve impulses.

52
Q

List the meninges of the brain from superficial to deep.

A

Dura Mater
Aracnoid Mater
Pia Mater

53
Q

List the general functions of the hypothalamus.

A
  • Control of autonomic nervous system and endocrine system
    • Control of emotional behavior, food & water intake
    • Regulate body temp and sleep-wake cycles
      (communicates with pineal glad for sleep-wake cycles)
54
Q

What is the function of the pons?

A
  • Rate and depth of breathing
55
Q

What is the function of the medulla oblongata?

A
  • Breathing center, HR, BP

- All info from periphery passes through here

56
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A
  • Coordinates and fine-tunes skeletal muscle movements
  • Stores memories of previously learned movement patterns
  • Receives proprioception info and uses it to regulate body position (maintain balance, equilibrium, posture by adjusting skeletal muscle activity)
  • Monitors position of joints and muscle tone
57
Q

List the lobes of the brain and their functions.

A
  1. Frontal Lobe
    - voluntary control of motor activity
    - personality center
    - cognition, attention, motivation
    - emotion, judgement, conscience
    - broca’s area: motor control of speech
  2. Parietal Lobe
    - Sensory lobe; perception and meaning
    - Spatial awareness
    - Taste perception
    - Speech comprehension (Wernicke’s)
  3. Temporal Lobe
    - Hearing, interpretation of speech and smell
    - Learning
    - Comprehension of language (Wernicke’s)
  4. Occipital Lobe
    - Primary visual cortex
    - Visual memory
  5. Insular Lobe
    - Memory
    - Interpreting taste
58
Q

Define dermatome.

A

A specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve.

  • The skin of the body is may be divided into sensory segments that collectively make up a “dermatome map”
    (Pg. 493)
59
Q

Define ganglion.

A

Group of nerve cell bodies in the PNS.

60
Q

Define plexus.

A

Nerve plexus: network of interweaving anterior rami of spinal nerves; occurs on both sides of the body

61
Q

Damage of what nerve causes loss of the ability to flex the humerus and forearm?

A

Musculocutaneous Nerve

62
Q

An ascending pathway carries:

A

Sensory information.

63
Q

A descending pathway carries:

A

Motor information/impulse.

64
Q

Where does the cell body of the PRIMARY sensory neuron within a spinal nerve reside?

A

Cell bodies of the sensory axons are in the posterior root ganglion

65
Q

List the characteristics of the sympathetic division of the ANS.

A
  • “Fight-or-flight” Division, “Thoracolumbar” Division
  • Mass activation; large # of ganglionic neurons activate many effector organs
  • Primarily concerned with preparing body for emergency
  • Increased alertness and metabolic activity; fear
  • Also helps regulate homeostasis
  • Preganglionic axon: Short
  • Postganglionic axon: Long
  • Preganglionic neuron cell bodies originate in lateral horns of T1-L2
  • More complex
66
Q

What is the neurotransmitter released by the preganglionic axons?

A

ALL preganglionic axons release ACh as their neurotransmitter

67
Q

What is the function of proprioceptors?

A

to sense position or state of contraction

68
Q

Define pericardium.

A

Outermost lining of the heart

69
Q

Define myocardium.

A

Middle layer of the heart wall; consisting of cardiac muscle.

70
Q

Define endocardium.

A

Innermost lining of the heart wall.

71
Q

Define dentin.

A

primary mass of a tooth

72
Q

Define pulp.

A

connective tissue found in the pulp cavity (center of the tooth)

73
Q

Define enamel.

A

hard substance covering the exposed portion of the tooth

74
Q

List the layers of the wall of the jejunum.

A 
Outermost to Innermost:
Serosa
Muscularis
Submucosa
Mucosa
75
Q

List the primary function of the large intestine

A
    1. Absorb most of the water and electrolytes from digested material *
      1. Store feces until body is ready to defecate
      2. Absorbs small amount of nutrients remaining in digested material
76
Q

List the organs of the GI tract.

A

GI Tract (what makes up the tube)

  1. Oral cavity
  2. Pharynx
  3. Esophagus
  4. Stomach
  5. Small intestine
  6. Large intestine
77
Q

Where are the renal pyramids located?

A

Inside the kidney;
The wide base of the renal pyramid lies at the external edge of the medulla where the cortex and medulla meet.
The apex of the renal pyramid projects toward the renal sinus

78
Q

The muscularis layer of the urinary bladder is commonly called:

A

Detrusor muscle

79
Q

List the portions of the male urethra in the correct order from urinary bladder to the exterior.

A

Urinary bladder to…

  1. Prostatic Urethra
  2. Membranous Urethra
  3. Spongy Urethra

External urethral orifice

80
Q

List the function and structure of the gonads.

A

Gonads:
Ovaries in females; produce oocytes
Testes in males; produce semen

They produce large amounts of sex hormones
Females: Estrogen and progesterone
Males: Androgens

81
Q

Discuss the phases of the ovarian cycle.

A
  1. Follicular phase
    - Days 1-13 of the 28 day cycle
  2. Ovulation phase
    - Occurs on day 14 of the 28 day cycle
    - the release of one secondary oocyte
  3. Luteal phase
    - Occurs days 15-28 of the 28 day cycle
    - Remaining follicle cell turns into corpus luteum
    - Progesterone and estrogen secreted which stabilize build up of uterine lining and prepare for possible implantation
    if implantation does not occur, uterine lining is shed as menstration
82
Q

Discuss the phases of the uterine cycle.

A
  1. Menstral Phase
    - Days 1-5 of the cycle
    - Sloughing of of he functional layer
  2. Proliferative Phase
    - 6-14 days initial development of the functional layer of endometrium
  3. Secretory Phase
    - Days 15-28
    - Increased progesterone secretion causes increased vascularization and development of uterine glands
    if fertilization does not occur, progesterone levels decrease and the functional layer lining sloughs off and the next menstrual phase begins
83
Q

What happens when the testes are exposed to cold.

A
  • The cremaster muscle contracts to bring the testes closer to the body.
  • The dartos muscle contracts causing the skin of the scrotal sac to thicken.
84
Q

Where is the normal site of fertilization?

A

In the uterine tubes (fallopian tubes/oviducts)

85
Q

Discuss the phases of meiosis and oocyte production.

A

Before birth: oogonia; they are arrested in prophase I and are called primary oocytes, they remain this way until puberty
Oogenesis is the maturation of a primary oocyte to a secondary oocyte and this occurs during ovarian cycle.

86
Q

List the order in which sperm passes through structures of the male reproductive tract from the testes to the penis.

A

Testes to…

  1. Epidymis
  2. Ductus deferens
  3. Ejaculatory duct
  4. Urethra
87
Q

Define seminal vesicle.

A
  • elongated, pouch-like hollow organ merges with the ductus deferens to form the ejaculatory duct.
  • secrete a viscous, whitish-yellow alkaline fluid that nourishes the sperm as they travel through the female reproductive tract; it also promotes widening and dilating of the cervix
88
Q

Define bulbourethral.

A

(Cowper’s gland)

  • Located on each side of the membranous urethra
  • Has a short duct that projects into the base of the penis and enters the spongy urethra
  • Secretes clear, viscous mucin that protects the urethra and serves as a lubricant during sexual intercourse
89
Q

Define prostate.

A
  • Walnut shaped gland
  • Secretes milky fluid that has a nutrient for sperm health, antibiotic to combat UTI, and an enzyme to liquefy semen following ejaculation
90
Q

Define urethral orifice.

A

Opening of the urethra where urine exits the body in males and females. (Also where sperm exits in males.)

91
Q

List the hormones that can affect blood pressure by increasing water retention in the kidney.

A
  1. Aldosterone

2. Antidiuretic hormone

92
Q

List in order the major structures through which urine must pass to be excreted from the body. Start at the kidney as it exits.

A

Kidney to…

  1. Renal pelvis/hilum of kidney
  2. Ureter
  3. Bladder
  4. Internal urethral sphincter
  5. Urethra
  6. External urethral sphincter
  7. External urethral orifice

Exits body

93
Q

List two muscles which make it possible for us to control expulsion of solid digested matter.

A

Pelvic floor muscles:

  1. Levator ani muscle
  2. Puborectalis muscle
94
Q

List the 3 types of muscle tissue and describe their structure.

A
  1. Skeletal Muscle
    - striated
    - voluntary
    - multinucleated
    i. e. muscles like biceps, quadriceps, etc
  2. Smooth Muscle
    - NOT striated
    - involuntary
    - only 1 nucleus
    - fibers are short, fusiform shape
    - takes longer to contract and relax than skeletal muscle
    i. e. muscles in the digestive tract/intestines
  3. Cardiac Muscle
    - striated
    - involuntary
    - typically 1-2 nuclei
    - fibers shorter and thicker than skeletal muscle and form Y-shaped branches
    - contain intercalated discs
    - autorythmic
    i. e. the heart wall
95
Q

Describe the form and function of skin.

A

Functions of skin:

  1. Protection
  2. Prevention of water loss
  3. Temp Regulation
  4. Metabolic Regulation
  5. Immune Defense
  6. Sensory Reception
  7. Excretion/Secretion

Skin has 3 layers:

  1. Epidermis
  2. Dermis
  3. Hypodermis

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