306 Exam 1 Flashcards
(199 cards)
1
Q
*Nucleus Function
A
- Storing house of the cell’s DNA.
- Houses the cell’s nucleolus
2
Q
Nucleolus Function
A
- synthesizes RNA to make ribosomes
3
Q
Messenger RNA functions to
A
transcribe
4
Q
Ribosomal RNA functions to
A
Translate
5
Q
Transfer RNA functions to
A
- moves amino acids to make proteins
6
Q
ribosomes function
A
- protein synthesis sites in the cell
7
Q
ribosomes read -
A
- ribosomes read the messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence and translates that genetic code into a specified string of amino acids, which grow into long chains that fold to form proteins.
8
Q
cilia function
A
- hairs on the outside of cells responsible for motility
9
Q
smooth endoplasmic reticulum function
A
- produces and moves lipids and steroids
10
Q
rough endoplasmic reticulum function
A
- contains ribosomes which produce proteins
11
Q
ribosomes are made in the -
A
nucleolus
12
Q
microfilaments function
A
- actin that supports the structure of the cell and helps with cell division
- cell’s skeletal system
13
Q
peroxisomes function
A
- oxidative reactions
14
Q
lysosome function
A
- digestive wasting system of the cell
15
Q
golgi apparatus function
A
- packages proteins for export outside of the cell
16
Q
centriole’s function
A
- organize microtubules which set up the skeletal system of the cell
17
Q
glycolysis occurs in the -
A
- cytoplasm
18
Q
alleles are -
A
single traits of DNA
19
Q
how many net atp result from glycolysis?
A
2 atp per 1 molecule of glucose
20
Q
which type of acid is produced in aerobic conditions?
A
pyruvic acid is produced in aerobic conditions
21
Q
which type of acid is produced in anaerobic conditions?
A
lactic acid
22
Q
Krebs Cycle: the acid from glycolysis combines with _______ to make __________?
A
acetyl combines with coenzyme A to form acetylcoenzyme A in the mitochondria
23
Q
What is produced by the Krebs cycle
A
2 ATP
6 NADH
2 FADH2
4 CO2
24
Q
What is the waste product of the krebs cycle
A
carbon dioxide
25
nadh and fadh function as
hydrogen carriers into the mitochondria
26
the electron transport chain results in the production of what
32 ATP
27
electron transport chain is also known as
oxidative phosphorylation
28
pyruvic acid breaks down into
acetyl coenzyme A
29
the enzyme that is responsible for shortening telomeres is ______
telomerase
30
facilitated diffusion is when _____
something requires a protein to be transported but does not require ATP
31
diffusion is
movement of non water molecules from and area of high concentration to and area of low concentration across a barrier.
Does not require energy
32
aerobic respiration produces ____ along with ____ and ____ from glucose and oxygen
ATP along with carbon dioxide and water
33
diffusion is _____ transport
passive (no energy required)
34
endocytosis is
a vesicle forms to bring a collection of molecules to large to fit through the membrane or in the channels into the cell cytoplasm from outside
35
phagocytosis is
a vesicle forms to bring an organism into the cell cytoplasm from outside
36
an example of phagocytosis
immune cells eating bacteria
phagocytes ingulf foreign bacteria, bring it in through phagocytosis, and engulf them.
37
phagocytosis video link
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TNK3WyEI3r8
38
aquaporins
transporter proteins in the cell membrane that allow for water to easily pass through
39
glucose transporter
membrane bound transporter proteins that allow for glucose to easily cross through the membrane
40
exocytosis is ____
the opposite of endocytosis - sending components out of the cell
41
both endocytosis and exocytosis need _____ to happen
ATP (active transport)
42
phagocytosis is used by ____ cells
white blood cells such as macrophages and neutrophils which patrol the body looking for bacteria and debris to eat.
43
______ contain digestive enzymes that lyse cells
lysosomes
44
_____ destroy engulfed materials brought in by phagocytosis
lysosomes
45
pinocytosis is where ____
the cell drinks extracellular fluid to maintain the cytoplasm
46
the electron transport chain is also called ____
oxidative phosphorylation
47
glycolysis produces which three things and how many
2 pyruvate
2 NADH
2 ATP
48
NAD and FAD are ___
hydrogen carriers
49
90% of cellular energy is supplied by the _____
electron transport chain / oxidative phosphorylation
50
anaerobic metabolism yields ______ ATP
2
51
four tissue types in humans (NECM)
nervous
epithelial
connective
muscle
52
intracellular accumulation is when _____
stressed cells fill up with unused foods such as lipids, glycogen and calcium salts
example - fatty liver
53
increases in intracellular calcium cause what ____
inappropriate activation of enzymes that damage cell organelles such as the membrane and hasten ATP depletion
54
when ATP NA-K pump fails, sodium and calcium influxes into the cells causing water to follow leading to _____
cell swelling with potassium diffusing out
55
increase in cell swelling leads to leakage of ____ and _____ and _____
leakage of potassium, lactate, and adenosine
56
glutamate attaches to _____ receptors thus opening calcium channels
NMDA receptors which open calcium channels
57
too much glutamate can lead to ______
calcium cascade (too much calcium flowing through calcium channels)
58
calcium cascade influx causes ______
release of intracellular damaging enzymes
protein breakdown
free radical formation
fragmentation of DNA
59
phospholipase enzyme causes damage to what _____
damages the lipid cell membrane
60
nuclease enzymes causes damage to what _______
damages DNA resulting in fragmentation
61
DNA fragmentation is what _____
when DNA strands are broken into pieces
62
aptase enzyme damages what _____
depletes ATP production
63
protease enzyme damages what_____
damages transporter proteins
64
when phospholipases breakdown fatty acids of the membrane wall, ______ is made resulting in inflammation
arachidonic acid
65
definition of free radicals
uncharged atoms or group of atoms having an unpaired electron
66
free radicals are very ____ and highly _____
very unstable and highly reactive
67
free radicals multiply by ____ with other molecules thus _____
reacting with other unpaired molecules and growing the chain of free radicals which cause cellular damage
68
lipid peroxidation is ____
destruction of polyunsaturated fats
69
oxidative stress is when the body _______
produces too many reactive oxygen species such as hydrogen peroxide
70
free radicals sometimes spontaneously _____ on their own without any intervention
decay
71
reactive oxygen species such as hydrogen peroxide are created in the cell on purpose as a waste product in order to ______
make used up cells apoptize
72
examples of antioxidants
superoxide dismutase
vitamin a
vitamin e
vitamin c
zinc
selinium
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catalase enzyme ____ free radicals
breaks down
74
catalase is an enzyme found in ______ and functions to _____
found in peroxisomes and functions to break down free radicals
75
antioxidants function to _____ or ______ free radicals
block formation of or inactivate
76
when lysosomes swell, they ____ causing leakage of lysosomal enzymes resulting in damage to the cell
burst
77
caseous necrosis where cell debris remains, this appears to look like _______
cottage cheese
78
fat necrosis or triglyceride breakdown shows up as having a ______
chalky appearance
79
dry gangrene is characterized by lack of _______
lack of arterial blood supply but venous flow still carries fluid out of the tissue hence the dry appearance
80
wet gangrene is characterized by ____
lack of venous flow so fluid accumulates in the tissue.
arterial flow still works fine causing fluid buildup
81
gas gangrene is caused by ______
clostridium infection resulting in toxins and nitrogen bubbles
82
_____ of telomeres causes cell division to stop
shortening
83
the cell can no longer divide if the _____ become too short
telemeres
84
cancer cells telomeres do not ______ causing uncontrolled cell division
cancer telomeres do not shorten
85
older cells have more ______
cell damage and free radicals - thus seen as deterioration in older adults
86
examples of ways which cells can adapt to prevent their own death due to environmental changes or stressors
hyperplasia
hypertrophy
metaplasia
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an allele is _____
one gene that may have many variants, which determines a characteristic
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metaplasia is caused by ______
environmental irritants such as smoking, alcohol, and other toxins
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anaplasia is _____
the loss of cell differentiation that occurs with cancer tumors
90
autosomes are ___
any chromosome that is not a sex chromosome
91
autosomal dominant disorders occur when
a single gene mutation is passed from an affected parent to an offspring regardless of sex.
92
autosomal dominant disorders occur with both _____ and ____ allele pairs.
homozygous and heterozygous
93
autosomal recessive disorders only happen in
homozygous allele pairs.
94
autosomes are located in the _____
DNA
95
benign tumors / cells are unable to metastasize because they are _____
encapsulated
96
caseous necrosis happens when _____
necrotic cells disintegrate
97
part of the nucleus that contains genetic information
chromosomes
98
coagulative necrosis occurs from _____
interruption in blood flow ie. ischemia
99
growth factors attach to receptor proteins which signal to _____ to turn on enzyme activity
G proteins
100
prime example of cell division signaling protein
MAP Kinase
101
DNA replication occurs in the ______ phase of cell division
synthesis in the interphase
102
cell division is programmed so that the number of cells produced equals
the number of cells that die
103
labile cell is a cell that can ______
differentiate into anything
104
cyclins are _____
a family of proteins that regulate if cells are dividing correctly
105
cyclins check that the______
DNA has been correctly duplicated
106
cyclins measure ______
whether the cell has grown large enough to divide
107
proto oncogenes are ____
genes that normally help cells grow and divide to make new cells, or to help cells stay alive.
When a proto-oncogene mutates (changes) or there are too many copies of it, it can become turned on (activated) when it is not supposed to be, at which point it's now called an oncogene
108
examples of proto oncogenes
growth factors
growth factor receptors
g proteins
enzymes that produce second messengers
109
oncogenes are _____
mutated proto oncogenes that still code for proteins needed for cell division but have the possibility of acting inappropriate due to mutation.
110
tumor suppressor proteins prevent _____ from developing cancers
oncogenes (muted proto oncogenes)
111
tumor suppressor proteins are _____ (examples)
cyclins
cyclin dependent kinases
cyclin inhibitors
112
3 main functions of tumor suppressor genes
slow down cell division
repair damaged DNA
control apoptosis
113
this enzyme is referred to as the "guardian of the genome"
p53 enzyme
114
function of p53 enzyme
p53 ensures cells with damaged DNA die (apoptosis) and do not replicate
115
characteristics of necrosis
always pathological
affects adjacent group of cells
cell size is increased
causes inflammatory reaction
plasma membrane is severely damaged
116
characteristics of apoptosis
may be physiological or pathological
affects single cells
cell size is shrunken
active
no inflammatory reaction
plasma membrane is intact
117
benign tumors are created when ______ cell mutate
well differentiated mature cells mutations cause benign tumors
118
malignant tumors are created when _____ cells mutate
undifferentiated immature cells mutate
119
how to tell tumor names apart
Benign: tissue name + -oma
Malignant: carcinoma
120
examples of benign tumors
adenoma
fibroma
lipoma
121
examples of malignant tumors
adeno carcinoma
squamous cell carcinoma
sarcomas
122
3 steps of oncogenesis
1. initiation
2. promotion
3. progression
123
initiation phase of oncogenesis
mutation occurs due to exposure to a toxin. DNA damage occurs
124
promotion phase of oncogenesis
mutated cells are stimulated to divide
125
progression phase of oncogenesis
tumor invades and spreads
becomes resistant to therapy
permanent and irreversible
126
an aneuploidy is
a cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes
127
anchorage independence means that _____
cancer cell can grow even thought not attached to a solid surface
128
the higher the telomerase _____
the longer the telomeres remain
129
telomerase function to do what
keep telomeres intact
130
allosomes are
sex chromosomes
131
local effects of tumor growth
bleeding
compression of blood vessels
compression of lymph vessels
compression of hollow organs
compression of nerves
132
cachexia Greek meaning
poor condition
133
crenation definition
shrinkage of a cell as a result of too much water moving out of the cell
134
most solid tumors produce increases in _____
lactic acid
135
most frequently reported symptom of cancer
fatigue
136
is used to measure ovarian cancer
CA-125
137
TNM grading system stands for
Tumor, Nodes, Metastasis
138
TNM has grades ____
1-4 for each category of TNM
139
vemurafenib or zelboraf is used to treat
metastatic melanoma in persons who carry the BRAF mutation
140
BRAF V600E is ___
protein normally responsible for regulating cell growth - when mutated, can lead to catastrophic cancer cell proliferations
141
lymphangiomas are benign or malignant?
benign
142
cyclins are ____
tumor suppressor proteins
143
G0 phase of cell cycle (1st)
nothing is happening, cells are preforming basic functions
144
anaphase of cell cycle
cells prepare to divide
145
S phase
DNA replication occurs
146
M phase
mitosis occurs
147
cytokinesis is the _____
cytoplasmic division of a cell at the end of mitosis or meiosis - bringing apart the separation of two daughter cells
148
carcinogenic embryonic antigen (CEA) is elevated in ________ cancers
colorectal
149
carcinogenic embryonic antigen (CEA) is ______ in most adults
normal at low levels
150
3 examples of paraneoplastic syndromes
peripheral neuropathy
myasthenia gravis
cerebellar degeneration
151
RNA uniquely contains ____ which defers from thymine
uracil
152
a line through the pedigree square or circle indicates that the person is _____
deceased
153
Mendel's law of segregation states _____
only one of the two gene copies present in an organism is distributed to each gamete (egg or sperm cell)
154
proband is the first person in the tree who _____
is positive for or displays the disease (not the carrier)
155
monosomy is
only one chromosome in the pair
156
polysomy is
more than 2 chromosomes in a set
157
how many genes does a person have approximately
30,000
158
when chromosome pairs line up during meiosis, they ______
exchange ends resulting in four gametes with different combinations of genes passed down from the chromosomes
159
induction (genetics) is when
something turns a gene on
160
repression (genetics) is when
something turns a gene off
161
______ cell formation is typically pre cancerous
dysplasia
162
erratic cell growth that results in cells of various sizes and shapes is _____
dysplasia
163
what causes dysplasia
rapid uncontrolled cell growth in different places
164
what is the primary function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
protein synthesis
165
recessive disorders only occur when _____
homozygous recessive alleles are present
166
injured cells become swollen as a result of ____
uncontrolled passive entry of sodium and water into the cell
167
genetics refers to ______
the study of individual genes and their impact on single gene disorders
168
genomics refers to _______
the study of all genes in the human genome
169
best definition of an allele ____
an allele is a different form of a gene located at the same place on the chromosome
170
an individual inherits _______ of each gene
an individual inherits 2 alleles of each gene. one from each parent.
171
humans only have ______ sex linked pair of chromosomes
one
172
the first 22 pairs of chromosomes are called ______
autosomes (non sex linked)
173
males have ____ sex chromosome pair
XY
174
females have _____ sex chromosome pair
XX
175
3 components of a single DNA molecule
1. nucleotide base ( A, T, C, G)
2. sugar group (deoxyribose)
3. phosphate group
176
Cytosine pairs with _____
Guanine
177
Adenine pairs with ______
Thymine
178
Guanine pairs with _____
cytosine
179
Thymine pairs with ______
Adenine
180
What is the name of the Augustinian monk who is credited with establishing the "laws of genetics" through his work with this _____ plant
Mendel established the genetics law with Peas
181
where does DNA replicate in the cell?
nucleus
182
chromatin is a ______
complex of DNA and protein found in eukarytoci cells.
183
function of chromatin _____
package long DNA molecules into more compact, denser structures
184
RNA is _____ stranded while DNA is _______ stranded
RNA is single stranded while DNA is double stranded
185
in RNA, _____ takes the place of _____ only in RNA
uracil takes the place of thymine
186
RNA does not have ______(base)
thymine
187
what is the process that converts mRNA into proteins and where does this take place
translation occurs in the cytoplasm
188
The name used when one allele's effects are observable
dominant - expressed by capital letter
189
this type of phenotype can only be expressed if the genotype is homozygous for an allele
recessive
190
what percentage of DNA makes proteins?
less than 2%
191
An individual's height and weight are considered to be what type of traits?
multi factorial
192
what is the recurrence risk for autosomal recessive disorders? (%)
25%
193
genetic discrimination is ____
when individuals are discriminated against because of their genetics. Such as being stereotyped to have a future disease because of their genetics.
194
Genetics discrimination act protects _____
patients from unfair treatment based upon their DNA.
195
what is a codon?
3 base nucleotides that code for a specific amino acid.
196
cost in $ to get genome sequenced
$1000 or less
197
transcription is
where RNA is made from DNA in the nucleus
198
RNA is made into ribosomes in the ______
nucleolus
199
______ enzyme triggers normal apoptosis of cells
caspases
